BPSC 69th CCE Prelims Question Paper 2023 with Answers

Every question of the BPSC 69th CCE Prelims General Studies paper — solved with the official BPSC answer key, a detailed explanation, key facts, concept diagrams and linked UPSC previous-year questions. The question text has been verified against the official question booklet.

Question order, option order and answers follow the official BPSC Booklet Series A (booklet 201-A), paper code 19-C/FI/CC/PT-2023.

1. Q1Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication networks? 1. Internet of Things 2. Edge Computing 3. Network Slicing Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
2. Q2Match List–I with List–II : List—I (Space Mission) a. Cassini-Huygens b. Juno c. Artemis d. VERITAS List—II (Exploration) 1. Jupiter 2. Saturn and its rings 3. Venus 4. Human Space-flight—Moon to Mars Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — a b c d 2 1 4 3
3. Q3Match List–I with List–II : List—I (Cloth) a. Linen b. Coir c. Mohair d. Down List—II (Origin) 1. Coconut plant 2. Flax plant 3. Feathers of duck and geese 4. Angora goat Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: C — a b c d 2 1 4 3
4. Q4Consider the following statements : 1. Taeniasis is an intestinal infection caused by three species of tapeworm— Taenia solium, Taenia saginata and Taenia asiatica. 2. When cysts develop in the brain, the condition is referred to as neurocysticercosis (NCC). Which of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
5. Q5Which of the following are computer languages? 1. Cobra 2. Python 3. Squirrel 4. Java Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: D — All of the above
6. Q6What is the full form of GPT in ChatGPT, recently seen in the news?Answer: D — Generative Pre-Trained Transformer
7. Q7Which of the following are not the tastes of the tongue? 1. Sweet 2. Bitter 3. Salty 4. Spicy 5. Umami 6. Sour 7. Pungent Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: C — 4 and 7
8. Q8Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Anorexia : Sleep disorder 2. Insomnia : Eating disorder 3. Dyspnoea : Shortness of breath 4. Anosmia : Partial or full loss of smell Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: C — Only 3 and 4
9. Q9In the universe, what are pulsars?Answer: B — Rotating neutron stars
10. Q11What is the ‘fibre’ used to make bulletproof jackets?Answer: D — Kevlar
11. Q12What is/are the full form(s) of HMX? 1. High Melting Explosive 2. High-Density Monoatomic Xenon 3. Hedge Monetizing Xenocurrency 4. Her Majesty’s Explosive Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: D — 1 and 4
12. Q13What is the name of Tesla’s humanoid robot launched in October 2022?Answer: D — Optimus
13. Q14What is the ‘Manhattan Project’?Answer: A — A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons
14. Q15The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of the object should beAnswer: B — at the centre of curvature
15. Q16A photoelectric cell is a device whichAnswer: A — converts light energy into electric energy
16. Q18How do COVID vaccines stimulate an immune response?Answer: C — By introducing a harmless piece of SARS-CoV-2 virus
17. Q19Which of the following liquids is a bad conductor of electricity?Answer: D — None of the above
18. Q20The DNA double helix structure was discovered byAnswer: A — James Watson and Francis Crick
19. Q21Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the Moon wouldAnswer: C — have same velocity at any instant
20. Q22How do vector vaccines work to provide immunity?Answer: C — By placing the virus in a modified version of a different virus
21. Q23The process that continually adds new crust isAnswer: C — seafloor spreading
22. Q24The theory that states “pieces of the Earth’s crust are in constant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle” is calledAnswer: C — the theory of plate tectonics
23. Q25What is the expanded form of the term ‘mRNA’ that has been widely discussed since the beginning of the pandemic?Answer: A — Messenger Ribonucleic Acid
24. Q26An AC current can be produced byAnswer: B — dynamo
25. Q27Current density isAnswer: B — a vector quantity
26. Q28What is the basis of most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry?Answer: B — Molecular targets
27. Q29Which of the following slows down the reaction rate?Answer: D — None of the above
28. Q30Input and output nerves meet atAnswer: B — central nervous system
29. Q31In the context of ‘Shipwreck Tourism’, shipwrecks in Indian waters have been explored at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals and Grande Island. Where are these locations?Answer: A — Off the coast of Goa
30. Q32The G20 members represent 1. around 85% of the global GDP 2. about 50% of the global trade 3. about two-thirds of the world population Which of the above statistics is/are correct?Answer: B — Only 1 and 3
31. Q33Who is the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group?Answer: B — Yevgeny Prigozhin
32. Q34The Global Gender Gap Report is released byAnswer: C — the World Economic Forum
33. Q35Which one of the following statements regarding Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom is correct?Answer: A — She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96 years.
34. Q36What was the theme of DefExpo–2022, held in Gujarat?Answer: B — Path to Pride
35. Q37The three-day celebration of Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in which country?Answer: D — Myanmar
36. Q38Consider the following statements regarding the ‘White House’ : 1. The address of the White House is 1800 Pennsylvania Avenue. 2. It is the official residence and workplace of the President of USA. 3. On November 1, 1800, John Adams became the first President to take residence in the building. 4. It is a symbol of American Democracy. Which of the above statements are correct?Answer: D — 2, 3 and 4
37. Q39‘Net Metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promotingAnswer: C — a billing mechanism for solar energy by consumers for the electricity they add to the grid
38. Q40Match List–I with List–II : List—I (Colour) a. Magenta b. Teal c. Mauve d. Cyan List—II (Combination) 1. Green and blue 2. Red and blue 3. Blue, green and white 4. Blue, red and white Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — a b c d 2 3 4 1
39. Q41What is the name of the deep-sea submersible that imploded during an underwater voyage to the Titanic wreckage?Answer: D — Titan
40. Q42Match List–I with List–II : List—I (Footwear/Fashion Accessory) a. Beret b. Stilettos c. Aviators d. Chignon e. Brogue List—II (Description) 1. A type of men’s footwear 2. A type of sunglasses 3. A type of hat 4. A type of women’s footwear 5. A type of hairstyle Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: B — a b c d e 3 4 2 5 1
41. Q43Where did the former President of the USA give his interview recently?Answer: C — Athens
42. Q44In the context of sports, which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Flushing Meadows : French Open 2. Venus Rosewater Dish : Wimbledon Trophy (Women) 3. Roland Garros : US Open 4. Australian Open (Women) : Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: D — 2 and 4
43. Q45The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?Answer: C — 576
44. Q46Which State Government launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC), proposed by the national action for the protection of vultures in India?Answer: A — Tamil Nadu
45. Q47Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys), one of the largest tortoise species in mainland Asia, were recently released into which National Park of India?Answer: A — Ntangki National Park
46. Q48Which country has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India?Answer: A — USA
47. Q49India’s Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won which medal in Men’s 10 m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo?Answer: A — Gold
48. Q50The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from which grade onwards?Answer: A — Grade 6
49. Q51India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with which country?Answer: B — Australia
50. Q52The Plain Language Act was passed by which of the following countries recently which requires Government officials to use simple and easily understandable English language in official documents and websites?Answer: C — New Zealand
51. Q53Tillyardembi Fossils of the world’s first plant pollinators, called Tillyardembiids, were discovered recently in which country?Answer: C — Russia
52. Q54The ‘Lisbon Declaration’, which made headlines, is associated with the conservation of which entity?Answer: C — Oceans
53. Q55Which of the following animals was not known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilization?Answer: B — Horse
54. Q56Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site?Answer: C — India Gate
55. Q57The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution ofAnswer: C — Ireland
56. Q58Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India inAnswer: B — 1975
57. Q59Which among the following currencies is the costliest?Answer: B — Pound Sterling
58. Q61In Indian art, the construction of ‘Stupa’, ‘Chaitya’ and ‘Vihara’ is related to which of the following?Answer: C — Buddhism
59. Q62In the context of Indian handicrafts, what is ‘Sujini’ in Bihar?Answer: C — A type of embroidery
60. Q63Consider the following statements regarding the Vikramshila University in Bihar : 1. It was located in the present-day Banka district of Bihar. 2. It was established by King Gopala I of the Pala dynasty. 3. The ‘Vajrayana’ sect of Buddhism flourished here. 4. Other subjects like Astronomy, Logic, Law, Grammar and Philosophy were also taught here. Which of the above statements are incorrect ?Answer: C — 1 and 2
61. Q64Consider the following statements : The arrival of Babur into India led to the 1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent 2. introduction of arch and dome in the region’s architecture 3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region 4. introduction of cannons in warfare Which of the above statements are correct?Answer: C — 3 and 4
62. Q65Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period?Answer: B — Surat
63. Q66‘Ashta Pradhan’ was a Council of MinistersAnswer: C — in the Maratha administration
64. Q67The painting of ‘Bodhisattva Padmapani’ is located atAnswer: C — Ajanta
65. Q68Consider the following statements : 1. Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Harsha. 2. Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II. Which of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: D — None of the above
66. Q69Match List–I with List–II : List—I a. Charaka b. Brahmagupta c. Varahamihira d. Vishakhadatta List—II 1. Mathematics 2. Medicine 3. Playwright 4. Astrology Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — a b c d 2 1 4 3
67. Q70Who among the following introduced the Persian festival Nowruz in India?Answer: C — Balban
68. Q71Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis made devotional religion popular inAnswer: A — Northern India
69. Q72Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 : 1. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies. 2. It laid stress on female education and vocational training. Which of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
70. Q73The Maithili language was started to develop during the reign of which of the following?Answer: C — Karnat dynasty
71. Q74Which city served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha during the early Vedic period?Answer: A — Rajagriha
72. Q75Which of the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act is/are correct? 1. It was enacted by Lord Lytton. 2. It came to be known as a ‘Gagging Act’. 3. The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
73. Q76Which of the following statements about Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 are correct? 1. It was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances. 2. Provincial Governments were empowered to administer certain services. 3. It attempted to rectify existing imparity. 4. It focussed on the actual needs of the Provinces. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — Only 1 and 2
74. Q77Nitisara, an early book of politics, was written byAnswer: B — Kamandaka
75. Q78Futuhat-i-Alamgiri was written byAnswer: A — Ishwardas Nagar
76. Q79According to Chinese source, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a missionary to which of the following Gupta Kings for permission to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya?Answer: B — Samudragupta
77. Q80When was Bihar first separated from the Bengal Presidency under the British-ruled India?Answer: A — 1912
78. Q81Consider the following statements : 1. Lake Victoria is the third largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area. 2. It is one of the great lakes of Africa. 3. It is bordered by four countries—Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda and Kenya. 4. The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River, which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda. Which of the above statements are incorrect?Answer: D — 1 and 3
79. Q82Consider the following statements regarding ‘heat wave’ : 1. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30 °C or more for plains. 2. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40 °C or more for hilly regions. Which of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
80. Q83Match List–I with List–II : List—I (Explorer) a. Christopher Columbus b. Jacques Cartier c. Sir Francis Drake d. Ferdinand Magellan List—II (Birthplace) 1. Portugal 2. United Kingdom 3. Italy 4. France Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — a b c d 3 4 2 1
81. Q84The emirates of UAE areAnswer: A — Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah
82. Q85The river Subarnarekha originates near which of the following villages?Answer: D — Nagri
83. Q86Which of the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries are in Bihar? 1. Valmiki National Park 2. Dudhwa National Park 3. Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — 1 and 4
84. Q87Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Gangetic Dolphin’ : 1. The Gangetic River Dolphin has been categorized as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN’s Red List. 2. It does not have a crystalline eye lens rendering it effectively blind. 3. Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation. 4. It has been recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal. Which of the above statements are correct?Answer: D — All of the above
85. Q88The other name of river Gandak isAnswer: C — Narayani
86. Q89Gold is found in which of the following districts of Bihar?Answer: D — Jamui
87. Q90The Triveni Canal has been constructed on which of the following rivers?Answer: C — Gandak
88. Q91Assertion (A) : Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil. Reason (R) : At some points of time, these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast. Select the correct answer.Answer: A — Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
89. Q92Bihar’s geographical structure consists of rock systems. Match the rock systems with their descriptions : a. Dharwar rock system b. Vindhyan rock system c. Quaternary rock system d. Tertiary rock system 1. Created by the rapid deposition of alluvium by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers 2. Can be found in the West Champaran district 3. Part of the oldest Archaean rock system 4. Sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite and shale are the main constituents of this rock system Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — a b c d 3 4 1 2
90. Q93Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising twenty-one islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?Answer: A — Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
91. Q94What is the local time of Thimphu (Bhutan) located at 90° East longitude when the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12:00 noon?Answer: A — 6:00 p.m.
92. Q95Which of the following statements is correct?Answer: B — Mica is found in Kodarma.
93. Q96How many latitudes are there on the globe drawn at 1 degree interval?Answer: C — 179
94. Q97The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level isAnswer: C — 30 m
95. Q98On which plateau, the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect each other?Answer: B — Baghelkhand
96. Q99Which district of Uttarakhand is not situated along the Tibbet boundary?Answer: C — Almora
97. Q100Where does the El Niño current flow?Answer: A — The Pacific Ocean
98. Q101Consider the following statements about the collegium system : 1. The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time. 2. The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system. 3. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system. 4. The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case. Which of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: D — 1 and 3
99. Q102Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India : 1. It added three words to the Preamble—‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’. 2. It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. 3. It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 47. 4. It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures. Which of the above statements are incorrect ?Answer: C — 2 and 3
100. Q103The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are 1. indications of primitive traits 2. distinctive culture 3. shyness of contact with the community at large 4. backwardness and geographical isolation Which of the above are correct?Answer: D — All of the above
101. Q104From which country, the Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of the Fundamental Rights?Answer: B — United States of America
102. Q105Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?Answer: C — Article 17
103. Q106The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with which of the following entities?Answer: A — The President
104. Q107The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?Answer: C — Scheduled Tribes
105. Q108In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?Answer: B — Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
106. Q109Match the following political parties listed in List–I with their years of establishment in List–II : List—I (Political Parties) a. Communist Party of India (Marxist) b. Communist Party of India c. Bahujan Samaj Party d. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) List—II (Years of Establishment) 1. 1964 2. 1998 3. 1925 4. 1984 Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — a b c d 1 3 4 2
107. Q110Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?Answer: C — Article 120 (1)
108. Q111The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include which of the following? 1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) 2. Gold 3. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) 4. Reserve Tranche Position Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: D — All of the above
109. Q112Consider the following statements about ‘Rules of Origin’ : 1. Rules of Origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product. 2. Rules of Origin help the custom agencies to know what regulations and fees apply to a given product. 3. These are used for the purpose of trade statistics. 4. Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the sources of imports. Which of the above statements are correct?Answer: D — All of the above
110. Q113Consider the following statements about infant mortality rate : 1. It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10000 live births. 2. The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189·6. 3. In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30. 4. As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the State with the highest infant mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh. Which of the above statements are correct?Answer: C — Only 2 and 3
111. Q114Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital 2. increasing the knowledge 3. increasing the skill levels 4. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: D — Only 4
112. Q115Consider the following statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy : 1. Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due. 2. Insolvency refers to a legal process, where the assets of the debtor are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors. 3. Bankruptcy is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion. 4. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings. Which of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: C — Only 4
113. Q116In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted?Answer: A — 1956
114. Q118Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme : 1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines. 2. This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level accuracy. 3. CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing. 4. The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology. Which of the above statements are incorrect?Answer: B — 1 and 3
115. Q119Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency? 1. The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs. 2. Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President. 3. The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. 4. Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — Only 1, 3 and 4
116. Q120Which of the following factors could potentially contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy? 1. High inflationary pressures due to increased Government spending 2. Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth 3. Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending 4. Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to reduction of export competitiveness Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — Only 1 and 2
117. Q121As per the Economic Survey, 2023, which of the following statements describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India? 1. It has decreased due to the less participation of the private sector. 2. It has increased compared to the prepandemic levels. 3. It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed. 4. It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: B — 2 and 4
118. Q123Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditures of the Central Government is correct?Answer: A — The expenditure is on interest payments.
119. Q124Which of the following is not true about globalization and its impact on India?Answer: C — Increase in exports is greater than increase in imports.
120. Q125Consider the following statements about the latest developments in the Union Government finances : 1. The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9·2 percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21. 2. The fiscal deficit has moderated to 7·7 percent of GDP in FY22. 3. The revenue collection over the last two years has gone down. Which of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: A — Only 1
121. Q126Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857? 1. The military superiority of the British 2. The rebels did not have a unified programme and ideology 3. There was a lack of support from all the sections of society Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: C — All of the above
122. Q127The cook from Bihar who saved Mahatma Gandhi’s life from a murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917 wasAnswer: B — Batak Mian
123. Q128The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937–1938 was organized by whom?Answer: C — Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
124. Q129Consider the following events during India’s Freedom Struggle : 1. Home Rule Movement 2. Surat Split 3. Kheda Satyagraha 4. Minto-Morley Reforms Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?Answer: B — 2–4–1–3
125. Q130Lord Lytton is not associated with which of the following?Answer: D — The Ilbert Bill
126. Q131Which treaty was signed after the Battle of Buxar?Answer: A — The Treaty of Allahabad
127. Q133In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of the hunger strike as a weapon?Answer: C — Ahmedabad Strike
128. Q134The Quit India Movement in 1942 witnessed significant contributions from leaders of Bihar. Which prominent Bihar leader was known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ and actively participated in the Quit India Movement?Answer: B — Shri Krishna Singh
129. Q135In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government took which step to address the issue?Answer: C — Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee
130. Q136Match List–I with List–II : List—I a. Servants of India Society b. Tattwabodhini Sabha c. Atmiya Sabha List—II 1. Debendranath Tagore 2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. Ram Mohan Roy 4. Keshab Chandra Sen Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Answer: A — a b c 2 1 3
131. Q137Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to which of the following States of India?Answer: C — Karnataka
132. Q138Who among the following was not the member of the Cabinet Mission?Answer: C — J. Andrew
133. Q139“The Indian National Congress was founded on the basis of safety valve theory, to protect the British Government from threats.” Which leader said that?Answer: B — Lala Lajpat Rai
134. Q140In which of the following Indian National Congress Sessions, the resolutions related to the Fundamental Rights were passed for the first time?Answer: C — Karachi Session—1931
135. Q141In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is written as ‘$ ÷ * %’ and ‘BEAD’ is written as ‘# % ÷ ×’. How will the word ‘MADE’ be written in that code language?Answer: C — * ÷ × %
136. Q142Q travels towards East. M travels towards North. S and T travel in opposite directions. T travels towards right of Q. Which of the following is definitely true?Answer: D — M and S travel in the same direction
137. Q143A man ‘Ramesh’, who owns a plot of land of 100 square yards, increases his plot of land by acquiring 10% more from his neighbour ‘Suresh’, who also owns 100 square yards land. After 2 years, he sells back 10% of the total plot to the neighbour. Which of the following is correct?Answer: B — Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh
138. Q144Find the odd pair among the following options.Answer: D — Snobbery : Shoes
139. Q145What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 132 156 ? 210 240 272Answer: B — 182
140. Q146Select the missing number from the given alternatives : 44 49 37 52 ? 41 58 35 53Answer: B — 77
141. Q147Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement. Statement : In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200, of which 160 runs were made by spinners. Conclusions : 1. 80% of the team consisted of spinners. 2. The opening batsmen were spinners. Select the correct answer.Answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2 follows the statement
142. Q148In a code language, if GREAT is written as 718222620 and MONK is written as 13121411, then how will VIGOROUS be written in the same language?Answer: A — 22187121812619
143. Q149Find the odd one in the following groups : Q,W,Z,B B,H,K,M W,C,G,J M,S,V,XAnswer: C — W,C,G,J
144. Q150Four branches of a company are located at M, N , O and P . M is in the North of N at a distance of 4 km; P is in the South of O at a distance of 2 km; N is in the Southeast of O by 1 km. What is the distance between M and P in km?Answer: A — 5·34