How many questions were in the NDA (II) 2025 General Ability Test?

The NDA & NA (II) 2025 General Ability Test (Paper-II) had 150 questions; 147 are solved here with explanations.

Are these the official UPSC NDA 2025 answers?

Not yet. UPSC publishes the official NDA answer key several months after the exam. The answers here are our best-supported answers — cross-checked against independent solved papers and primary sources — and will be reconciled to the official key when it is released.

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NDA (II) 2025 General Ability Test — Questions with Answers

Every question of the NDA & NA (II) 2025 General Ability Test (Paper-II) — solved with a detailed explanation, key facts, concept diagrams, photos and linked UPSC previous-year questions. The question text has been verified against the official question paper.

Provisional answers. UPSC has not yet released the official NDA 2025 answer key (it is published several months after the exam). The answers here are our best-supported answers — derived from careful subject-solving and cross-checked against independent solved papers and primary sources — and will be reconciled to the official key as soon as UPSC publishes it. They are not the official UPSC answer key.

147 questionsexplanations + diagramslinked UPSC PYQs

Q1Why do twentieth century advances not seem sustainable?Answer: B — Due to the increased cost of agricultural production
Q2What pushes farmers into places unsuited for agriculture?Answer: A — Population growth
Q3Which one of the following is NOT true, according to the passage, for ecological degradation?Answer: D — World War II
Q4What is the conclusion of the author in the passage about the prospects of agriculture in the world?Answer: A — The author is both hopeful and sceptical of the prospects of agriculture
Q5Which one of the following words means 'incursion'?Answer: A — invasion
Q6Convert from direct into indirect speech. "Ayushi said to the group, 'We have had enough of suffering today. It is time to march forward.'"Answer: A — Ayushi told the group that they had had enough of suffering that day and it was time to march forward
Q7Convert from direct speech into indirect speech. "Alas! We lost the match by one point," said the CaptainAnswer: A — The Captain regretted that they had lost the match by one point
Q8Convert from direct speech into indirect speech. "Where were you last week?" Alok asked SheelaAnswer: B — Alok asked Sheela where she had been the week before
Q9The king who the people loved built the castle five centuries ago Which of the following options converts this sentence into passive voice correctly?Answer: A — The castle was built five centuries ago by the king who was loved by the people
Q10The company has recruited four hundred engineers who will have to complete an internship for three weeks Which of the following options converts this sentence into passive voice correctly?Answer: A — Four hundred engineers have been recruited by the company and an internship of three weeks will have to be completed by them
Q11Seldom and Often Choose the option that most appropriately describes the meaning of both the words.Answer: A — Seldom means hardly ever and often means time and again
Q12Overview and Review Choose the option that most appropriately describes the meaning of both the words.Answer: B — Overview means general idea and review means assessment
Q13Overcome and Succeed Choose the option that most appropriately describes the meaning of both the words.Answer: A — Overcome means triumph over and succeed means to achieve something
Q14Embed and ImbueAnswer: B — Embed means implant and imbue means instil
Q15Emancipate and EmpowerAnswer: B — Emancipate means liberate and empower means authorise
Q16The Professor has been able to instil confidence in her studentsAnswer: A — inculcate
Q17The members of the group expressed their allegiance to their leaderAnswer: A — commitment
Q18The inscrutability surrounding the incident remains unresolved until the end of the movieAnswer: D — mystery
Q19The dodgy behaviour of the leader led to her fallAnswer: C — dishonest
Q20People have been advised not to venture into sea as the weather is likely to be inclementAnswer: A — squally
Q21S1. Sufism is an English word coined in the Nineteenth Century S6. It may also have been suffa, the platform outside a place of Islamic worship P. Historians have understood this term in several ways Q. According to some scholars, it is derived from suf, meaning wool R. Others derive it from safa, meaning purity S. The word used for Sufism in Islamic texts is tasawwufAnswer: B — S P Q R
Q22S1. Al-Biruni was born in 973, in Khwarizm in present-day Uzbekistan S6. He arrived in Ghazni as a hostage, but gradually developed a liking for the city P. In 1017, when Sultan Mahmud invaded Khwarizm, he took several scholars back to his capital, Ghazni: Al-Biruni was one among them Q. He was well versed in several languages; Syriac, Arabic, Persian, Hebrew, and Sanskrit R. Khwarizm was an important centre of learning, and Al-Biruni received the best education available at the time S. However he did not know Greek, although he was familiar with the works of Plato and other Greek philosophersAnswer: B — R Q S P
Q23S1. Vijayanagara or 'city of victory' was the name of both a city and an empire S6. They remembered it as Hampi, a name derived from that of the local mother goddess, Pampadevi P. In its heyday it stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the Indian peninsula Q. Although it fell into ruin in the seventeenth-eighteenth centuries, it continued to live in the memories of the people who inhabited the Krishna–Tungabhadra doab R. In 1565 the city was sacked and subsequently deserted S. The Empire was founded in the fourteenth centuryAnswer: A — S P R Q
Q24S1. Liberalisation and globalisation freed India's economy from the low GDP trap that had impeded India's progress S6. Today India has transformed into one of the largest economies of the world P. India's 3 pc rate of growth and a set of emergent circumstances led to a balance of payment crisis in the early 1990s Q. Ease of business was ensured, and the requirement for import licences, and production quotas, were removed R. Apart from these measures India also took a loan from the IMF to tide over the crisis, but after 1993, India has not taken another loan from the IMF S. In a landmark budget in 1991, responding to the emergent crisis, India delicenced many industries and liberalised its economic policiesAnswer: D — P S Q R
Q25S1. In many countries, there are millions of people who are underprivileged and deprived S6. In the past forced labour was imposed by landlords, moneylenders, and other wealthy persons P. Both of these are prohibited under the Constitution of India Q. One such form of exploitation in our country has been begar or forced labour without payment R. The marginalised are often subjected to exploitation by their fellow human beings S. Another closely related form of exploitation is buying and selling of human beings and using them as slavesAnswer: B — R Q S P
Q26I can't be bothered to tell him what I think; ________ he would not listen to me.Answer: B — in any case
Q27________, if the referee points his fingers, this indicates that someone has done something wrong.Answer: C — Briefly
Q28________, have you been to the local library yet?Answer: D — Incidentally
Q29________, women are healthier and are living longer than ever before: indeed on an average, they can expect to live five years longer than men.Answer: A — To a large extent
Q30The difference is that I have been fortunate to find a career that I love and, ________, I am getting paid reasonably for it.Answer: C — what is more
Q31________, the Government of India has followed the policy of trying to improve relations with its neighbours.Answer: D — In general
Q33________, you needed to consult a physician to have a clear idea of what the disease is about.Answer: A — In that case
Q34________, in the year-ago period the current account deficit stood at $1.3 billion or 0.2 % of the GDP.Answer: B — Notably
Q35________, the records have been completely undermined by shoddy book-keeping.Answer: B — As such
Q36Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the word 'Infelicity'.Answer: B — An inappropriate remark
Q37Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the word 'Corollary'.Answer: C — Something that naturally follows
Q38Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the word 'Quandary'.Answer: A — Situation in which you are confused about what to do
Q39Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the word 'Presumption'.Answer: D — Opinion formed before having all the facts
Q40Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the word 'Smug'.Answer: A — Too confident about one’s own achievements
Q41Rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to form a meaningful sentence. P — of children Q — whereas traditional fairy tales R — they also contain deeply embedded moral lessons that are relevant even for adults S — were designed for the entertainmentAnswer: D — Q S P R
Q42of school education is an ineluctable truth that sporting activities are an integral part P Q meaningfully towards the overall growth of a student R that underscores the learning process and contributes SAnswer: A — Q P S R
Q43and contentment on account of a life lived the beneficial outcome of P Q well without retribution or rebuke R a virtuous life is peace of mind SAnswer: C — Q S P R
Q44more representative than the latter from a non-parliamentary system P Q in as much as the former is R it is widely believed that the parliamentary system differs SAnswer: A — S Q R P
Q45crushes the spirit behind the service it stunts the person offering the same and P Q exhibition or for fear of public opinion R when service is done for SAnswer: D — S R Q P
Q46It does not look like he is going ______ in his studies than what was predicted by his school principal.Answer: A — any further
Q47________ all the confusion the thief made a quiet getaway.Answer: C — Amidst
Q48The intricate operation on the patient required the expertise of a/an ______ surgeon.Answer: C — specialist
Q49There are ______ thirty students inside the classroom at any time.Answer: B — fewer than
Q50There are many ______ vehicles on the highway due to a sudden landslide.Answer: C — stranded
Q51The focal length of a concave lens is 0.5 m. The power of the lens isAnswer: D — -2.0 D
Q52The rule to determine the direction of a force experienced by a straight current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it isAnswer: B — Fleming's left-hand rule
Q53One parsec in astronomical units (A.U.) is aboutAnswer: C — 2 × 10⁵ A.U.
Q54Which one of the following statements for second law of motion is NOT correct?Answer: D — The net force on a body is proportional to that body's momentum
Q55The temperature of a body increases from 310 K to 340 K. The temperature increase in degree Celsius isAnswer: B — 30°C
Q56Which one of the following statements for the work done by gravity on a body is NOT correct?Answer: C — Work done depends on the path followed by the body
Q57Which one among the following statements is correct?Answer: D — Pascal and N/m² represent the same unit
Q58Which one of the following wavelength radiations may correspond to an X-ray?Answer: A — 1 nm
Q59In a Telescope, compared to the eyepiece lens the objective lens hasAnswer: A — larger focal length and larger aperture
Q60The energy, E, of a photon can be expressed as E = hf where f is the frequency and h is Planck’s constant. The dimensions of h are the same as that ofAnswer: B — angular momentum
Q61The work done by the force acting on an object is zero if the displacement of the objectAnswer: C — is in perpendicular direction of the direction of force
Q62The magnetic field inside a current-carrying very long solenoid isAnswer: A — Uniform
Q63Which one of the following instruments can be used to measure -250°C temperature?Answer: D — By using thermocouple based thermometer
Q64The quantity of heat needed to change unit mass of a substance from liquid to vapour without changing the temperature, is calledAnswer: B — specific latent heat
Q65The temperature at which "vapour pressure of the liquid in an open vessel becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure" is calledAnswer: B — Boiling point
Q66Which one of the following statements about surface tension is correct?Answer: B — It decreases when temperature increases
Q67A body sinks in water whenAnswer: B — density of water is less than density of body
Q68Why a fielder in the ground gradually pulls his hands backward while catching a fast moving cricket ball?Answer: A — To reduce the acceleration of the ball
Q69Bottom of a tank containing water appears to be raised. It is due toAnswer: B — Refraction of light
Q70SONAR stands forAnswer: C — Sound Navigation and Ranging
Q71Which one of the following radiations has longer wavelength?Answer: C — Micro Wave
Q72For a material under static conditions, which one among the following statements is correct?Answer: A — An insulator can be charged
Q73A person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant object distinctly, the person is suffering withAnswer: C — Myopia
Q74The energy is always conserved for a system which isAnswer: A — isolated only
Q75Suppose, a ball of mass M is thrown upwards from a point A and it reaches up to the highest point B and returns back to point A, which one among the following is correct?Answer: A — Kinetic Energy at A = Potential Energy at B
Q76Who among the following presided over the first session of All India Kisan Sabha in Lucknow in April 1936?Answer: A — Sahajananda Saraswati
Q77Who among the following founded the 'Self-Respect Movement'?Answer: C — E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
Q78Chola inscriptions mention several categories of lands. Which one of the following was meant for the maintenance of school?Answer: B — Shalabhoga
Q79Which of the following statements about the Home Rule League are correct? 1. Lokamanya Tilak set up the Home Rule League at the Bombay Provincial Conference held at Belgaum in April 1916 2. Annie Besant announced the formation of Home Rule League in September 1916 3. To avoid friction, Tilak's League was to work in Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, Central Provinces and Berar and Besant's League was given charge of the rest of India Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
Q80Which one of the following statements about Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar is NOT correct?Answer: D — He was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association
Q81Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Reformer) A. Vishnu Shastri Pundit B. Karsondas Mulji C. Debendranath Tagore D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy List II (Social Work/Text) 1. Vedic Physics : Scientific Origin of Hinduism 2. Widow Remarriage Association 3. Satya Prakash 4. Tattvabodhini SabhaAnswer: C — 2 3 4 1
Q82In the Harappan Civilization, traces of canals have been found atAnswer: C — Shortughai
Q83Arrange the following foreign travellers to India in chronological order, beginning with the earliest: 1. Peter Mundy 2. Antonio Monserrate 3. Afanasii Nikitich Nikitin 4. Ibn Battuta Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: C — 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
Q84With which of the following was the Bretton Woods System NOT associatedAnswer: D — Establishment of a monetary system based on floating exchange rate
Q86The Ramacharita, an example of dvyasrya-kavya, telling two stories simultaneously, was written byAnswer: C — Sandhyakara
Q87Which of the following Acts established the Board of Control to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India?Answer: B — Pitt's India Act of 1784
Q88Who among the following Sikh Gurus laid the foundation of the Khalsa Panth?Answer: D — Guru Gobind Singh
Q89Which one among the following plans is also known as Mahalanobis Plan?Answer: B — Second Five Year Plan
Q90Which of the following were the years of Annual Plans?Answer: B — 1966-1969
Q91Consider the following statements about BRICS Summits: 1. The first BRICS Summit was held in Brazil 2. BRICS Summits were held in New Delhi on three occasions Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Q92Placing the earliest first, arrange the following international events in the chronological order: 1. Introduction of www (World Wide Web) 2. Advent of Inter-Continental Ballistic Missiles 3. Launch of first communication satellite Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: D — 2 – 3 – 1
Q93Which of the following rights under the Constitution of India is/are Fundamental Right(s)? 1. Right to work 2. Right to privacy 3. Right to free and compulsory education in the age bracket of six to eighteen years Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: C — 2 only
Q94Consider the following statements with regard to flags of International Organizations: 1. The flag of EU has a circle of gold stars on a white background 2. The flag of the UN carries two pairs of olive tree branches 3. The ASEAN flag carries blue, red, white and yellow colours How many of the above statements is/are correct?Answer: B — 1
Q95Which one of the following committees is NOT associated with decentralization of Panchayati Raj institutions in India?Answer: D — Abhijit Sen Committee
Q96The reaction that occurs on passing carbon dioxide gas through lime water isAnswer: B — Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
Q97Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?Answer: B — The molecular formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO4·2H2O
Q98Which one of the following type of medicines is used for treating indigestion?Answer: D — Antacid
Q99Which one of the following is NOT present in cement?Answer: C — 4CaO·SiO2
Q100Which one of the following is NOT a chemical change?Answer: C — Melting of ice
Q101Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?Answer: C — During a physical change, the chemical composition of molecules changes
Q102Which one of the following is NOT a heterogeneous mixture?Answer: A — Sulphur in carbon disulphide
Q103Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Element) A. Phosphorus B. Nitrogen C. Neon D. Sulphur List II (Atomicity) 1. 2 2. 1 3. 8 4. 4 Code:Answer: A — A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Q104In the following redox reaction, which compound is acting as a reducing agent? N2H4 + 2H2O2 → N2 + 4H2OAnswer: B — N2H4
Q105Which one of the following is considered to be the purest source of water?Answer: D — Rain water
Q106Which one of the following salts is responsible for temporary hardness of water?Answer: C — Bicarbonates of magnesium
Q107Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Reaction) A. CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) B. CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g) C. Pb (s) + CuCl2 (aq) → PbCl2 (aq) + Cu (s) D. Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq) List II (Type) 1. Single displacement 2. Double displacement 3. Combination 4. Decomposition Code:Answer: C — A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Q108Which one of the following is an endothermic reaction?Answer: D — 2Pb(NO₃)₂ (s) → 2PbO (s) + 4NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g)
Q109Which one of the following is known as 'water gas'?Answer: D — CO + H₂
Q110Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?Answer: C — Diamond is a good conductor of electricity
Q111Arrange the following zones in ascending order in terms of their latitudinal extent on the Earth surface: 1. Equatorial zone 2. Midlatitude zone 3. Subarctic zone 4. Tropical zone Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: C — 1 - 4 - 2 - 3
Q112Consider the following statements with reference to Feldspar mineral : 1. Half of the earth's crust is composed of feldspar 2. It has light cream to salmon pink colour 3. Magnesium is a common element in all types of feldspar Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Q114Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Oceanic trenches are very significant in the study of plate movements 2. Oceanic trenches are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes Select the answer using the code given below :Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Q115Which of the following statements with reference to shadow zones in an event of an earthquake is/are correct? 1. Zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both P-waves and S-waves 2. The shadow zone of P-waves is much larger than that of the S-waves Select the answer using the code given below :Answer: A — 1 only
Q116Which one among the following volcanic island chains is NOT associated with mid-oceanic ridge?Answer: C — Hawaiian Islands
Q117Consider the following statements with reference to sea waves: 1. The height of waves is determined by wind speed, wind duration, and fetch 2. The energy of a wave is proportional to the square of its height 3. Waves retain most of their energy as they travel across the deep ocean Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
Q118Which of the following statements with reference to soil forming processes is/are correct? 1. Translocation, enrichment, removal and transformation are different classes of soil forming processes 2. In translocation, fine particles are transported downward by eluviation and accumulate in lower horizons by illuviation Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Q119Consider the following statements with reference to structure of the Earth's atmosphere: 1. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator 2. The air temperature of the tropopause is highest above the poles 3. The temperature in troposphere decreases at the rate of 1 °F for every 165 m of height Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Q120Which of the following are the factors that cause variation in the amount of insolation on the Earth? 1. Rotation of the earth on its axis 2. Length of the day 3. Distribution of land and water on the earth Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Q121Consider the following conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of Tropical Storms: 1. Presence of the Coriolis force 2. Upper divergence above the sea level system 3. High variations in the vertical wind speed Which of the conditions given above is/are correct?Answer: C — 1 and 2
Q122Which of the following factors influence the ocean currents? 1. Coriolis force 2. Gravity 3. Heating by solar energy 4. Wind Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: D — 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q123Which of the following is/are warm ocean current(s)? 1. Alaska Current 2. Agulhas Current 3. Falkland Current 4. West Australian Current Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: B — 1 and 2
Q124State of Assam shares borders with how many other countries and Indian states respectively?Answer: B — 2 countries and 7 Indian states respectively
Q125Which one of the following is the northernmost river basin of the Deccan Plateau?Answer: D — Tapti
Q126Laterite soil in India is rich in which of the following? 1. Calcium 2. Nitrogen 3. Phosphate 4. Potash Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: D — 4 only
Q127Which of the following statements with reference to crops cultivated in India is/are correct? 1. Bajra grows well in sandy and shallow black soils, whereas red and shallow black soil is suited for Ragi 2. Bajra is predominantly grown in states like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra, while Ragi is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Q128Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (City) A. Bewar B. Balaghat C. Bilaspur D. Ballary List II (Mineral) 1. Manganese 2. Mica 3. Iron-ore 4. Bauxite Code:Answer: C — A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Q129Which one among the following is NOT a beneficiary state from the Vindhyachal Power Plant of the NTPC?Answer: D — Uttar Pradesh
Q130Consider the following pairs with reference to Thermal Power Plants and their location in respective states in India: Thermal Power Plant — Located in State I. Panki — Uttar Pradesh II. Parli — Karnataka III. Vijayawada — Telangana IV. Vanakbari — Gujarat How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?Answer: B — 2
Q131The book 'The Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection' was authored byAnswer: A — Charles Darwin
Q132The headquarters of World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is located atAnswer: A — Switzerland
Q133The optimum pH at which the enzymes pepsin and trypsin of the human alimentary canal works areAnswer: A — pH 2·0 and 7·9, respectively
Q134The amount of air breathed in and out during a normal respiration by human lungs is referred to asAnswer: B — Tidal volume
Q135Which one among the following statements about arteries and veins in humans is NOT correct?Answer: B — Pulmonary arteries always carry oxygenated blood while Pulmonary veins always carry deoxygenated blood
Q136Identify the functions that are controlled by the hind brain of human beingAnswer: A — Involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation vomiting etc.
Q137Iodized salt is a vital part of our diet as it is essential for the synthesis ofAnswer: B — Thyroxin
Q138The menstrual cycle in females is controlled by hormones that are secreted byAnswer: C — Ovary and pituitary gland
Q139Which one of the following blood cells type secrete large number of antibodies during an immune response of the body?Answer: C — Lymphocytes
Q140Which of the following organelles have their own DNA and ribosomes?Answer: B — Mitochondria and Chloroplast
Q141What is the nickname of the National Men's Hockey Team of Australia?Answer: D — The Kookaburras
Q142Which one of the following organisations has completed 150 years of service to the nation in the year 2025?Answer: C — India Meteorological Department
Q143Which of the following statements about ‘Jalvahak’ is/are correct? 1. It is a newly commissioned naval ship inducted into Indian Navy 2. It is a major policy for cargo promotion unveiled by the Government of India Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: B — 2 only
Q144How many rural districts does Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act cover as on 2024-25?Answer: B — 740
Q145Under which one of the following initiatives does the NITI Aayog support interested States to establish a State Institution for Transformation (SIT)?Answer: C — State Support Mission
Q146Which one of the following Indian States account for the maximum deposits of Bauxite and Chromite?Answer: D — Odisha
Q147Consider the following statements with regard to National Technology Day: 1. It commemorates the momentous events of 11th May 1998, when India conducted successful nuclear tests under Operation Shakti 2. The official theme for National Technology Day 2025 is 'School to Startups – Igniting Young Minds to Innovate' Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Answer: A — 1 only
Q148Which of the following were added in India as Ramsar Site in the year 2025? 1. Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary 2. Udhwa Lake 3. Rudrasagar Lake 4. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary Select the answer using the code given below:Answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Q149Consider the following statements about Cricket player Virat Kohli: 1. He is the only captain to have scored seven double centuries in Test Cricket 2. He is the only Indian cricketer with most centuries as a captain 3. He is the first Indian captain to achieve twin centuries on captaincy debut 4. He holds the record for the most double centuries by an Indian in Test Cricket Which of the statements given above are correct?Answer: D — 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q150Ethereum, Tether, Solana and Cardano are all forms ofAnswer: A — Crypto currency

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