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885 questions across 21 sub-topics. Practice all Science & Technology PYQs with detailed explanations, or explore specific sub-topics below.
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Science & Technology (S&T) is a high-return segment in the UPSC Prelims, routinely accounting for 15–20% of the 100-question paper. Between 1995 and 2025, the exam has posed almost 900 S&T previous year questions (PYQs), making it the third-largest contributor after Polity and Environment. UPSC uses S&T to test an aspirant’s ability to link basic concepts with contemporary developments, rather than to judge specialist knowledge. Therefore, clarity of fundamentals, wide current-affairs coverage and relentless PYQ practice are the three pillars of a winning strategy.
Key patterns seen in UPSC Prelims: (1) Questions are increasingly application-oriented—e.g. instead of asking the definition of a semiconductor, UPSC may ask why gallium nitride chips are preferred in 5G hardware. (2) Approximately 60% of questions are current-affairs triggered but require static understanding. (3) Elimination-friendly options are common, rewarding careful reading and logical reasoning. (4) From 2018 onwards, biotechnology, health and ICT have clearly outpaced traditional physics and chemistry.
Top sub-topics to master (1995-2025 counts in brackets): Quantitative Aptitude & reasoning (175) that test data interpretation in scientific contexts; core Physics (105) concepts such as optics, modern physics and acoustics; Biology (96) and Health & Diseases (87) with emphasis on lifestyle diseases, vaccines, WHO programmes and Indian initiatives; Space Technology & Astronomy (71) covering ISRO missions, telescope technology and basic astrophysics; Logical Reasoning & Puzzles (71) that often appear under the CSAT-II paper but conceptually overlap with S&T; Biotechnology & Genetics (53) including CRISPR, mRNA, genome India Project; Computer & Information Technology (52) like AI, blockchain, 5G, quantum computing; Energy & Environment interface (52) such as hydrogen economy, lithium batteries, carbon capture; and core Chemistry (51) focusing on materials science, polymers and green chemistry.
Preparation roadmap: 1) Build foundations with NCERT Class VI-X science, selectively covering Class XI-XII chapters on genetics, semiconductor electronics and thermodynamics. 2) Consolidate with standard references—‘Science & Tech’ by Ravi Agrahari or Spectrum’s book—for static theory mapped to UPSC syllabus. 3) Integrate current affairs through The Hindu, Indian Express ‘Explained’, PIB releases, Down to Earth, WHO/ISRO/DRDO websites and Yojana-Kurukshetra issues on technology themes. 4) Solve all 900 PYQs topic-wise; note the framing, favourite terminologies and factual traps. 5) Create concise 50-page revision notes and maintain a ‘tech timeline’ of the past 18 months to capture new missions, Nobel prizes, and major scientific regulatory changes in India.
Smart practice & exam-day tips: Treat S&T MCQs as a mix of fact and logic. If you don’t know the exact fact, use elimination—statements involving extreme words like ‘only’, ‘all’, ‘never’ are often incorrect. Draw quick concept diagrams during mock tests; visual memory speeds recall. Finally, revise numerical constants (speed of sound, Avogadro number, Planck constant), SI units, and international observatories one week before Prelims; these small facts have yielded repeated questions.
Q: In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following? 1. Area of the hole in the lid 2. Temperature of the flame 3. Weight of the lid Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following phenomena: 1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
Q: In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news: 1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice. 2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter. 3. It is buried deep in the ice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because
Q: Consider the following phenomena: 1. Size of the sun at dusk 2. Colour of the sun at dawn 3. Moon being visible at dawn 4. Twinkle of stars in the sky 5. Polestar being visible in the sky Which of the above are optical illusions?
Q: Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this? 1. Dispersion 2. Refraction 3. Internal reflection Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Q: The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/ importances of discovering this particle? 1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass. 2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them. 3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter? 1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper. 2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter. 3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
Q: Consider the following statements: If there were no phenomenon of capillarity 1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp 2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink 3. The blotting paper would fail to function 4. The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason ?
Q: If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because
Q: Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?
Q: India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light. 2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay. 3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass. 4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?
Q: Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufacture of these lamps?
Q: Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus ?
Q: Which one among the following has the highest energy ?
Q: In the year 2008, which one of the following conducted a complex scientific experiment in which sub-atomic particles were accelerated to nearly the speed of light ?
Q: Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
Q: How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometres?
Q: A person is sitting in a car which is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary?
Q: Assertion (A): In the visible spectrum of light, red light is more energetic than green light. Reason (R): The wavelength of red light is more than that of green light.
Q: Assertion (A): Radio waves bend in a magnetic field. Reason (R): Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature.
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. If magenta and yellow coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have red colour. 2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have blue colour. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. A flute of smaller length gives waves of lower frequency. 2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal elastic waves only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Four wires of the same material and of the dimensions given below are stretched by equal loads separately. Which one of them will be elongated the maximum?
Q: Assertion (A): A jet aircraft moving at Mach number equal to 1 travels faster at an altitude of 15 km than while moving at Mach number equal to 1 near sea level. Reason (R): The velocity of sound depends on the temperature of the surrounding medium.
Q: Three identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water, mercury and kerosene respectively up to an equal height. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is emptied first?
Q: In which one among the following is the speed of sound maximum?
Q: There are 8 equidistant points A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the clockwise direction on the periphery of a circle. In a time-interval t, a person reaches from A to C with uniform motion while another person reaches the point E from the point B during the same time-interval with uniform motion. Both the persons move in the same direction along the circumference of the circle and start at the same instant. How much time after the start will the two persons meet each other?
Q: Which one of the following is printed on a commonly used fluorescent tube light?
Q: Assertion (A): In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60 times per second. Reason (R): The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.
Q: A car is running on a road at a uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant force on the car is
Q: A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity ω around a circular path of radius r. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to
Q: A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while plane. The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is
Q: A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Steam at 100 °C and boiling water at 100 °C contain the same amount of heat. 2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the latent heat of vaporization of water. 3. In an air-conditioner, heat is extracted from the room air at the evaporator coils and is rejected out at the condenser coils. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: A four-wheel vehicle moving on a sharp circular path at high speed will 1. Overturn about its outer wheels. 2. Overturn about its inner wheels. 3. Skid outwards. 4. Skid inwards. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to
Q: An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: If the radius of the earth were shrunk by one per cent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would
Q: Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to
Q: A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm above the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube?
Q: Consider the following natural phenomena: 1. Terrestrial heating 2. Reflection of light 3. Refraction of light 4. Diffraction of light Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Light of longer wavelength is scattered much more than light of shorter wavelength. 2. The speed of visible light in water is 0.95 times its speed in vacuum. 3. Radio waves are produced by rapidly oscillating electrical currents. 4. To detect over-speeding vehicles, police use the Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: A hollow sphere of radius R, a hollow cube of side R and a thin circular plate of radius R, made up of the same material, are all heated to 20 °C above room temperature. When left to cool in the room, which of them will reach the room temperature first?
Q: Assertion (A): An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water. Reason (R): The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury.
Q: Two wires have their lengths, diameters and resistivities, all in the ratio of 1 : 2. If the resistance of the thinner wire is 10 ohms, the resistance of the thicker wire is
Q: Assertion (A): A stick is dipped in water in a slanting position. If observed sideways, the stick appears short and bent at the surface of water. Reason (R): The light coming from the stick undergoes scattering from water molecules giving the stick a short and bent appearance.
Q: Assertion (A): A piece of copper and a piece of glass are heated to the same temperature. When touched, thereafter, the copper piece appears hotter than the glass piece. Reason (R): The density of copper is more than that of glass.
Q: Assertion (A): The boiling point of water decreases as the altitude increases. Reason (R): The atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
Q: When light waves pass from air to glass, the variables affected are
Q: When water is heated from 0 °C to 10 °C, its volume
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Characteristic) I. Zero mass II. Fractional charge III. Fractional spin IV. Integral spin List II (Particle) A) Positron B) Neutrino C) Quark D) Phonon
Q: The mass of a body on Earth is 100 kg (acceleration due to gravity, gₑ = 10 m/s²). If acceleration due to gravity on the Moon = gₑ/6, then the mass of the body on the moon is
Q: Consider the following statements: A simple pendulum is set into oscillation. Then I. The acceleration is zero when the bob passes through the mean position. II. In each cycle the bob attains a given velocity twice. III. Both acceleration and velocity of the bob are zero when it reaches its extreme position during its oscillation. IV. The amplitude of oscillation of the simple pendulum decreases with time. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Which of the following distance–time graphs (x–t) represents one-dimensional uniform motion?
Q: Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set?
Q: A noise level of 100 decibels would correspond to
Q: Fluorescent tubes are fitted with a choke. The choke coils
Q: When a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and video systems) is seen in sunlight, rainbow-like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of the phenomenon of
Q: Assertion (A): A man standing on a completely frictionless surface can propel himself by whistling. Reason (R): If no external force acts on a system, its momentum cannot change.
Q: Assertion (A): In a motion picture, usually 24 frames are projected every second over the whole length of the film. Reason (R): An image formed on the retina of eye persists for about 0.1 s after the removal of stimulus.
Q: Assertion (A): Small glass beads fixed on traffic signals glow brightly when light falls upon them. Reason (R): Light is totally reflected when the angle of incidence exceeds a certain critical value and light travelling in a denser medium is reflected back into a rarer medium.
Q: Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons. Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquified at ambient temperatures at low pressures.
Q: Consider the following statement: An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the I. Filament wire is not uniform. II. Bulb cannot be evacuated completely. III. Wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Match List I (Quantity) with List II (Units) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. High speed II. Wavelength III. Pressure IV. Energy List II A) Mach B) Angstrom C) Pascal D) Joule Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements: I. If a person looks at a coin which is in a bucket of water, the coin will appear to be closer than it really is. II. If a person under water looks at a coin above the water surface, the coin will appear to be at a higher level than it really is. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other inner parts of the body is based on the phenomenon of
Q: Strips of two metals A and B are firmly joined together as shown in the figure. On heating, A expands more than B does. If this joined strip is heated, then it will appear as:
Q: Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find application in
Q: A hunter aims his gun at a point between the eyebrows of a monkey sitting on a branch of a tree. Just as he fires, the monkey jumps down. The bullet will
Q: A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?
Q: A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s². What will be its velocity after 3 seconds?
Q: Assertion (A): The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed through it. Reason (R): Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.
Q: The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
Q: Which one of the following is a vector quantity?
Q: Which one of the following is a valid conclusion?
Q: The working principle of a washing machine is
Q: A smooth inclined plane is inclined at an angle θ with the horizontal as shown in the figure. A body starts from rest and slides down the inclined surface. The time taken by the body to reach the bottom is
Q: A girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position. When the same girl stands up, the period of swing will
Q: A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water in km/hr is
Q: I. ‘A’ stood first in the race. II. ‘C’ led all the way. III. ‘D’ ran faster than others in the later part of the race. Of these statements
Q: When an air bubble at the bottom of a lake rises to the top, it will
Q: When a mirror is rotated by an angle of θ, the reflected ray will rotate by
Q: A truck, a car and a motor cycle have equal kinetic energies. If equal stopping ...
Q: A liquid is flowing in a streamlined manner through a cylindrical pipe. Along a section containing the axis of the pipe, the flow profile will be
Q: The variation of displacement (d) with time (t) in the case of a particle falling freely under gravity from rest is correctly represented by which of the following graphs?
Q: Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from
Q: Assertion (A): Transformer is useful for stepping up or stepping down voltages. Reason (R): Transformer is a device used in D.C. circuits. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Q: Domestic electrical wiring is basically a
Q: A simple machine helps a person doing
Q: The alpha particle carries two positive charges. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of
Q: 105. A parachutist jumps from a height of 5000 metres. The relationship between his falling speed ‘v’ and the distance fallen through ‘d’ is best represented as (four graphs labelled a, b, c, d).
Q: 106. Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma-emitting isotope or not?
Q: 107. The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is
Q: 108. When the same note is played on a sitar and a flute, the sound produced can be distinguished from each other because of the difference in
Q: 109. Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape. Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Q: 111. Optical fibre works on the principle of
Q: 112. Suppose a rocketship is receding from the earth at a speed of 2⁄10th the velocity of light. A light in the rocketship appears blue to the passengers on the ship. What colour would it appear to an observer on the earth?
Q: An air bubble in water will act like a
Q: Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because
Q: In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
Q: Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change? 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride 2. Melting of ice 3. Souring of milk Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to
Q: Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
Q: What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?
Q: What is Agent Orange?
Q: Who among the following discovered heavy water?
Q: Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?
Q: Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest metal, respectively?
Q: Which one of the following is another name of RDX?
Q: Which one of the following is called Philosopher’s wool?
Q: Which one of the following does not contain silver?
Q: Consider the following chemicals: 1. Benzene 2. Carbon tetrachloride 3. Sodium carbonate 4. Trichloroethylene Which of the above is/are used as dry-cleaning chemicals?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Anhydrous sodium carbonate is commonly known as baking soda 2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers 3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Banking soda is used in fire extinguishers. 2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass. 3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Consider the following statements The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is 1. To keep the washing powder dry 2. To maintain the alkalinity of the powder Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in a group. Reason (R): In a group, the atomic radius generally increases from top to bottom.
Q: Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats. Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.
Q: With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements: 1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol. 2. Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Match List I (Oxidation number) with List II (The element) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Oxidation number) — List II (The element) A. 2 — 1. Oxidation number of Mn in MnO₂ B. 3 — 2. Oxidation number of S in H₂S₂O₇ C. 4 — 3. Oxidation number of Ca in CaO₂ D. 6 — 4. Oxidation number of Al in NaAlH₄
Q: Assertion (A): With the increase of temperature, the viscosity of glycerine increases. Reason (R): Rise of temperature increases kinetic energy of molecules.
Q: Assertion (A): Synthetic detergents can lather well in hard water. Reason (R): Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts with hard water.
Q: Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures. Reason (R): At higher temperatures, molecular motion becomes more rapid. Which of the following is correct?
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weights of the hydrocarbons?
Q: In an atom, the order of filling up of the orbitals is governed by
Q: An aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature because the salt undergoes
Q: Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic Table of chemical elements: I. Ionisation potential gradually decreases along a period. II. In a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight increases. III. In a given period, electronegativity decreases as the atomic number increases. Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. German Silver II. Solder III. Bleaching Powder IV. Hypo List II A) Tin B) Nickel C) Sodium D) Chlorine Codes:
Q: A small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel
Q: Match List I (Industrial processes) with List II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Cracking II. Smelting III. Hydrogenation IV. Vulcanization List II A) Rubber B) Petroleum C) Copper D) Edible fats Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements: Hard water is not suitable for I. Drinking. II. Washing clothes with soap. III. Use in boilers. IV. Irrigating crops. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): To dilute sulphuric acid, acid is added to water and not water to acid. Reason (R): Specific heat of water is quite large.
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Potassium bromide II. Potassium nitrate III. Potassium sulphate IV. Mono-potassium tartrate List II A. Fertiliser B. Photography C. Bakery D. Gunpowder Codes:
Q: Which one of the following metals does not form amalgams?
Q: Consider the following statements about acetylene: I. It is used in welding industry. II. It is raw material for preparing plastics. III. It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water. Of these statements:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Blue vitriol II. Epsom salt III. Baking soda IV. Caustic soda List II A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Sodium hydroxide C) Magnesium sulphate D) Copper sulphate
Q: Assertion (A): Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. Reason (R): Formic acid is an organic acid.
Q: Assertion (A): Phenyl is used as a household germicide. Reason (R): Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
Q: Assertion (A): Sodium metal is stored under kerosene. Reason (R): Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.
Q: Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War?
Q: Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of per cent by mass in the earth’s crust?
Q: The characteristic odour of garlic is due to
Q: Which one of the following is an active component of oil of clove?
Q: The most reactive among the halogens is
Q: Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
Q: Which one of the following is used as an anti-freeze for the automobile engines?
Q: 101. Which one of the following is a mixed fertilizer?
Q: 103. The chemical used as a ‘fixer’ in photography is
Q: Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow ?
Q: Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
Q: Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms? 1. Cnidarians 2. Fungi 3. Protozoa Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells ?
Q: The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
Q: Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms? 1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following : 1. Bats 2. Bears 3. Rodents The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
Q: Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
Q: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Maize can be used for the production of starch. 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?
Q: Consider the following minerals: 1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Sodium Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
Q: Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
Q: Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
Q: Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
Q: When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because
Q: Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process ?
Q: From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution ?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Sweet orange plant is propagated by grafting technique. 2. Jasmine plant is propagated by layering technique. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following : 1. Camphor 2. Chicory 3. Vanilla Which of the above is/are plant product(s) ?
Q: In the context of Indian wild life, the flying fox is a
Q: In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used ?
Q: With reference to the evolution of living organisms, which one of the following sequences is correct?
Q: In which one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?
Q: Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
Q: What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?
Q: Norman Ernest Borlaug who is regarded as the father of the Green Revolution in India is from which country?
Q: Assertion (A): In human body, liver has an important role in fat digestion. Reason (R): Liver produces two important fat-digesting enzymes.
Q: Among the following, which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
Q: Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plant becomes modified into a pitcher?
Q: In the human body, to which structure is the appendix attached?
Q: In the human body which one of the following hormones regulates blood calcium and phosphate?
Q: How do most insects respire?
Q: Which one of the following parts of the human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting?
Q: Production of which one of the following is a function of the liver?
Q: Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system?
Q: Which of the following light types of light are strongly absorbed by plants:
Q: In human beings, normally in which one of the following parts does the sperm fertilize the ovum?
Q: Which on the following is the correct sequence in order of decreasing length of the three structural parts given below of small intestine in the human body?
Q: What is the name of the vessel that delivers the nutrient-rich blood from the stomach and small intestine to the liver?
Q: Consider the following statements with reference to the human body: 1. The common bile duct releases its contents into the stomach. 2. The pancreatic duct releases its contents into the duodenum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body (dry)?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution. 2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): All the proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only. Reason (R): The protein-digesting enzymes from pancreas are released into small intestine.
Q: Assertion (A): Amoeba reproduces by fission. Reason (R): All unicellular organisms reproduce by asexual methods.
Q: The hormone insulin is a
Q: In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?
Q: With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements: 1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery. 2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Octopus is
Q: With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements: 1. In response to the presence of HCl, secretin is produced from the duodenum 2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Among living organisms, which one of the following is the most responsible factor for bringing about the origin of a new species?
Q: Ticks and mites are actually
Q: With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Consider the following plants: 1. Bougainvillea 2. Carnations 3. Cocoa 4. Grapes Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?
Q: In the context of the organic evolution, the loss of limbs of snakes is explained by the phenomenon of
Q: With reference to the human body, consider the following statements: 1. The production of somatotropin goes up when a person exercises. 2. Men’s testes produce progesterone. 3. Women’s adrenal glands secrete testosterone. 4. Stress causes the adrenals to release very little cortisol compared to usual. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynaecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known as
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Drinking of whisky increases the frequency of urination. Reason (R): Alcohol intake speeds up the secretion of vasopressin in the body.
Q: Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
Q: The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as
Q: Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA?
Q: Epiphytes are plants which depend on other plants for
Q: Antigen is a substance which
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Bone) I. Breast-bone II. Collar-bone III. Knee-cap IV. Shoulder blade List II (Name) A) Clavicle B) Patella C) Scapula D) Sternum
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Tapeworm is a hermaphrodite. II. Round-worm has separate sexes. III. Filaria is caused by a nematode. IV. Guinea worm is an annelid. Which of these are correct?
Q: A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the blood groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Substance) I. Ptyalin II. Pepsin III. Renin IV. Oxytocin List II (Physiological role) A) Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin B) Digests starch C) Digests proteins D) Hydrolyses fats E) Induces contraction of smooth muscles
Q: At which stage in its life-cycle does the silkworm yield the fibre of commerce?
Q: Match List I (Endocrine glands) with List II (Hormones secreted) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Gonads II. Pituitary III. Pancreas IV. Adrenal List II A) Insulin B) Progesterone C) Growth hormones D) Cortisone Codes:
Q: The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is caused by
Q: Match the hormones in List I with items in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Adrenaline II. Estrogen III. Insulin IV. Pheromones List II A) Anger, fear, danger B) Attracting partners through sense of smell C) Females D) Glucose Codes:
Q: Neem tree has acquired industrial importance as a source of
Q: For which one of the following is capillarity not the only reason?
Q: When ants bite, they inject
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Fruit II. Seed III. Wood IV. Starch List II A) Ovule B) Leaf C) Stem D) Ovary
Q: Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is NOT correct?
Q: The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called
Q: The pituitary gland by virtue of its tropic hormones controls the secretory activity of other endocrine glands. Which one of the following endocrine glands can function independent of the pituitary gland?
Q: Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through I. Blood II. Lungs III. Tissue The correct sequence of transportation is
Q: Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in
Q: Alpha-keratin is a protein present in
Q: Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called
Q: Antigen is a substance which
Q: Which one of the following is a modified stem?
Q: Fat present below the skin surface in our body acts as a barrier against
Q: Which one of the following is NOT an essential micronutrient for plants?
Q: Living organisms require at least 27 elements, of which 15 are metals. Among these, those required in major quantities include
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Vitamin II. Enzyme III. Hormone IV. Protein List II A. Pepsin B. Carotene C. Keratin D. Progesterone
Q: Match List I (Physiological processes) with List II (Cell organelles) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Photosynthesis II. Mineral uptake III. Respiration IV. Protein Synthesis List II A) Plasma membrane B) Chloroplast C) Mitochondria D) Ribosomes Codes:
Q: The Nobel Prize for deciphering the language of bees was awarded to
Q: A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the
Q: Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
Q: Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because
Q: The only snake that builds a nest is
Q: Which of the following elements are present in all proteins? I. Carbon II. Hydrogen III. Oxygen IV. Nitrogen Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: Which one of the following hormones contains iodine?
Q: 'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?
Q: 'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?
Q: Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: 1. Assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. Distinguish among species that look alike. 3. Identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to recent developments regarding 'Recombinant Vector Vaccines', consider the following statements: 1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. 2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg. 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of
Q: In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent. 2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage. 3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Q: 'RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. 2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. 3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
Q: With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements: 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. 2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization. 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
Q: In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term 'transcriptome', sometimes seen in the news, refers to
Q: With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements: 1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum. 2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants? 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus. 3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following techniques/phenomena : 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
Q: Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. Across different species of plants 2. From animals to plants 3. From microorganisms to higher organisms Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: With reference to 'stem cells', frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only. 2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs. 3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Q: What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
Q: Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
Q: At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us? 1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock. 2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases. 3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is
Q: Recently, ‘oilzapper’ was in the news. What is it?
Q: A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
Q: Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason
Q: Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?
Q: Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills ?
Q: Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilizers ?
Q: In the context of genetic disorders, consider the following: A woman suffers from colour blindness while her husband does not suffer from it. They have a son and a daughter. In this context, which one of the following statements is most probably correct ?
Q: With reference to the latest developments in stem-cell research, consider the following statements: 1. The only source of human stem cells are the embryos at blastocyst stage. 2. The stem cells can be derived without causing destruction to blastocysts. 3. The stem cells can regenerate themselves in vitro virtually forever. 4. Indian research centres also created a few cell lines which can be developed into many types of tissues. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: When one gene controls two or more different characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is called
Q: Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules. Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated using restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases. Which of the following is correct?
Q: Which of the following features of DNA makes it uniquely suited to store and transmit genetic information from generation to generation?
Q: The American multinational company, Monsanto has produced an insect-resistant cotton variety that is undergoing field-trials in India. A toxin gene from which ONE of the following bacteria has been transferred to this transgenic cotton?
Q: Which one of the following organisms can serve as a biofertilizer for rice crop?
Q: Phytotron is a facility to
Q: Insect resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an
Q: Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of
Q: Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the
Q: Assertion (A): In human beings, the females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring. Reason (R): Women have two ‘X’ chromosomes.
Q: Assertion (A): “DNA Finger-printing” has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. Reason (R): Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.
Q: Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of “Terminator Seed Technology” because the seeds produced by this technology are expected to
Q: Which one of the following genetic diseases is sex-linked?
Q: Assertion (A): Insect-resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene. Reason (R): The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
Q: Assertion (A): Dolly was the first cloned mammal. Reason (R): Dolly was produced by in-vitro fertilization.
Q: Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to
Q: Which one of the following types of micro-organisms is most widely used in industries?
Q: Which one of the following techniques can be used to establish the paternity of a child?
Q: The sequencing of the entire genome (the totality of all genes) of an organism was completed in 1996. The organism was
Q: Which of the following professional(s) are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA? I. Researchers using carbon-14 isotope II. X-ray technician III. Coal miner IV. Dyer and painter Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by
Q: 'Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Virus Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. 2. Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The term 'ACE2' is talked about in the context of
Q: 'Triclosan', considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?
Q: What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India ? 1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. 2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. 3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q: Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 1. Genetic predisposition of some people 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following pairs: Commonly used / consumed materials — Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 1. Lipstick — Lead 2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils 3. Chinese fast food — Monosodium glutamate Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Q: With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011? 1. List of ingredients including additives 2. Nutrition information 3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions 4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct? Viruses can infect 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Plants Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to the use of nanotechnology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology. 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.
Q: H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
Q: Consider the following diseases : 1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox 3. Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?
Q: Consider the following pairs : Vitamin Deficiency disease 1. Vitamin C : Scurvy 2. Vitamin D : Rickets 3. Vitamin E : Night blindness Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Q: Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by
Q: Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? 1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 3. HIV-AIDS Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy. 2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium. 3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers? 1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils. 2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils. 3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
Q: Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?
Q: Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine ?
Q: Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In-Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct?
Q: With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS 2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition ?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu. 2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu. 3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements about probiotic food: 1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans. 2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Mixture of which one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence of most of the explosions in mines?
Q: Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following?
Q: Which of the following types is used by computed tomography employed for visualization of the internal structure of human body?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee, is a diuretic. 2. Citric acid is used in soft drinks. 3. Ascorbic acid is essential for the formation of bones and teeth. 4. Citric acid is a good substitution for ascorbic acid in our nutrition. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Meningococcal Meningitis is transmitted from person to person by mosquito bites. 2. Vomiting and neck pain are two of the symptoms of Meningococcal meningitis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one among the following is not a good source of nutritional calcium?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. ELISA test is employed as the first and most basic test for an individual to detect cancer. 2. Almost 50% of human beings have Rh+ blood while the remaining have Rh- blood. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in
Q: Assertion (A): The person with diabetes insipidus feels thirsty. Reason (R): A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin.
Q: Which one of the following diseases of milching animals are infectious? 1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax 3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitoes. 2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue. 3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of Dengue. Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A. 2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement. 3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles. 4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine. Which of these statements given above are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet. Reason (R): The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body. 2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria. 3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Consider the following conditions of sick human body 1. Swollen lymph nodes 2. Sweating at night 3. Loss of memory 4. Loss of weight Which of these are the symptoms of AIDS?
Q: Foot-and-mouth disease in animals, a current epidemic in some parts of the world, is caused by
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Human diet should compulsorily contain Glycerine, Serine and Tyrosine. Reason (R): Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised in the human body.
Q: “Athlete’s Foot” is a disease caused by
Q: In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the donor?
Q: “Metastasis” is the process by which
Q: The stones formed in human kidney consist mostly of
Q: Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of
Q: Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantities of
Q: Match List I (Diseases) with List II (Types of disease) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Haemophilia II. Diabetes III. Diabetes IV. Ringworm List II A) Deficiency disease B) Genetic disease C) Hormonal disorder D) Fungal infection Codes:
Q: The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as
Q: In eye donation, which one of the following parts of donor’s eye is utilised?
Q: Match List I (Drugs / Chemicals) with List II (Their uses) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Atropine II. Ether III. Nitro-glycerine IV. Pyrethrin List II A) Local anaesthesia B) Heart trouble C) Dilation of pupil D) Mosquito control Codes:
Q: Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of
Q: Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X-ray examination of the stomach, because
Q: Cobalt-60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it emits
Q: Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Disease) I. Malaria II. Poliomyelitis III. Tuberculosis IV. Ringworm List II (Organism) A. Fungi B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Protozoan Codes:
Q: Ergotism is due to consumption of
Q: The major chemical compound found in human kidney stones is
Q: A major health mission carried in 1996 was
Q: What is the average fat content of buffalo milk?
Q: The major component of honey is
Q: Recommended daily intake of proteins for a moderately active woman is
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Malaria II. Filaria III. Encephalitis IV. Leukaemia List II A) Bone marrow B) Brain C) Muscle D) Lymph node E) Blood cells
Q: According to the World Health Organisation, the disease which causes the death of the largest number of people today is
Q: The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given top priority for remedial action in India today is
Q: Which of the following are associated with diabetes mellitus, a common disease in adults? I. Higher sugar level in blood II. Lower sugar level in blood III. Lower insulin level in blood IV. Higher insulin level in blood Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements: AIDS is transmitted — I. By sexual intercourse. II. By blood transfusion. III. By mosquitoes and other blood-sucking insects. IV. Across the placenta. Of these statements —
Q: Which of the following would lead to ‘malnutrition’? I. Overnutrition II. Undernutrition III. Imbalanced nutrition Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are likely to suffer from all of the following diseases, except
Q: Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of nutritional value found in milk include
Q: The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to blindness, etc. is
Q: Which one of the following sets is correctly matched?
Q: Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy?
Q: “It begins as a single cell and grows into a merciless disease that claims millions of lives year after year. But scientists are steadily unlocking its mysteries, and the fight against it may now have reached a dramatic turning point. New discoveries promise better therapies and hope in the war against ...” The disease referred to in the above quotation is
Q: Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: Consider the following pairs : Objects in space — Description 1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q: Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
Q: If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
Q: “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to
Q: For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
Q: With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements: 1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. 2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. 3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Q: What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?
Q: With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. 2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements: The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 1. Is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission 2. Made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA 3. Made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of
Q: In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? 1. Assessment of crop productivity 2. Locating groundwater resources 3. Mineral exploration 4. Telecommunications 5. Traffic studies
Q: Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft : Purpose 1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth 2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating the Mercury 3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe? 1. Detection of microwaves in space 2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space 3. Movement of asteroids in space 4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Q: Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth ?
Q: Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: 1. The orbit is geosynchronous. 2. The orbit is circular. 3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. 4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth
Q: What is the difference between asteroids and comets? 1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material. 2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury. 3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in 1. Estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere. 2. Predicting the onset of monsoons. 3. Monitoring the pollution of coastal waters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news?
Q: Who of the following scientists proved that the stars with mass less than 1·44 times the mass of the Sun end up as White Dwarfs when they die ?
Q: India has recently landed its Moon Impact Probe on the Moon. Among the following countries, which one landed such probe on the Moon earlier ?
Q: Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the following?
Q: ISRO successfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test-stand used for the purpose, located?
Q: In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
Q: Which one of the following is a spacecraft?
Q: What is the purpose of the US Space Agency's Themis Mission, which was recently in the news?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket: 1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space. 2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form, and fuel. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. In the year 2006, India successfully tested a full-fledged cryogenic stage in rocketry. 2. After USA, Russia and China, India is the only country to have acquired the capability for use of cryogenic stage in rocketry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: NASA’s Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
Q: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Q: What is the Galileo project which has been in news recently?
Q: Assertion (A): To orbit around the Sun, the planet Mars takes lesser time than the time taken by the Earth. Reason (R): The diameter of the planet Mars is less than that of the Earth.
Q: What is the approximate mean velocity with which the Earth moves round the Sun in its orbit?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of India's advanced satellite INSAT–4A : 1. INSAT–4A was launched in December, 2005 from New Mexico. 2. The European commercial launch service provider Arianespace was associated with the launch of INSAT–4A. 3. Tata-Sky—a digital cable service provider is associated with DTH television broadcasting services from INSAT-4A. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable. Reason (R): Venus has extremely high level of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite (METSAT) in September 2002. 2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
Q: In the year 2001, NASA launched a spacecraft to Mars named
Q: The world's highest ground-based telescopic observatory is located in
Q: Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and also assume that it rises in the East exactly at 6.48 p.m. on the first day. On the fourth day, at what time will it rise?
Q: With reference to Indian satellites and their launchers, consider the following statements: 1. All the INSAT-series of satellites were launched abroad 2. PSLVs were used to launch IRS-series of satellites 3. India used the indigenously built cryogenic engines for the first time for powering the third stage of GSLV 4. GSAT, launched in the year 2001, has payloads to demonstrate digital broadcasts and internet services Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Artificial satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastward direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity.
Q: Who amongst the following was the Chairman of ISRO when INSAT-3B was launched?
Q: The location of the space organisation units have been marked in the given map as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these units with the list given and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: A. ISRO B. IIRS C. NRSA D. SAC
Q: Who is the scientist in whose honour the “Chandra” X-ray telescope has been named?
Q: A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out. This property is due to its
Q: The damage to the Spektr Module of the Russian Space Station Mir was due to
Q: Which of the following statements are true about the Indian-born woman astronaut Kalpana Chawla? I. She was born in Karnal. II. She flew on board the shuttle flight STS-87. III. She was trained at the Kennedy Space Centre. IV. She did a space-walk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: The satellites of which one of the following countries have helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of Antarctica?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding asteroids: I. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun. II. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km. III. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn. Of these statements:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Special Characteristic) I. Farthest planet from the Sun II. Largest planet of the solar system III. Planet second from the Sun in the solar system IV. Planet nearest to the Sun List II (Name of Planet) A) Mercury B) Venus C) Jupiter D) Pluto E) Saturn
Q: One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between
Q: The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because
Q: Which one of the following stars is nearest to the earth?
Q: Which one of the following conditions is most relevant for the presence of life on Mars?
Q: The planet Mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun as shown in the given figure. The kinetic energy of Mercury is greatest at the point labelled
Q: Which one of the following satellites is to be launched from India in 1996?
Q: Consider the following statements: A person in a spaceship located half-way between the earth and the sun will notice that the I. Sky is jet black. II. Stars do not twinkle. III. Temperature outside the spaceship is much higher than that on the surface of the earth. Of these statements
Q: ‘Diamond Ring’ is a phenomenon observed
Q: A meteor is
Q: In the field of space technology, India has demonstrated during 1994 her capability to
Q: Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 hit the planet
Q: 114. Cryogenic engines find applications in
Q: Consider the following activities: 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
Q: Consider the following aircraft : 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft ?
Q: Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? Army — Airforce — Navy 1. Brigadier — Air Commodore — Commander 2. Major General — Air Vice Marshal — Vice Admiral 3. Major — Squadron Leader — Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel — Group Captain — Captain Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following actions : 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive 3. Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
Q: Consider the following activities : 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes 3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones ?
Q: What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?
Q: Which one of the following is the best description of 'INS Astradharini', that was in the news recently?
Q: What is 'Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)', recently in the news?
Q: With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. INS Sindhughosh is an aircraft carrier. 2. INS Viraat is a submarine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of Indian defence, consider the following statements : 1. The Shourya missile flies with a speed of more than 8 Mach. 2. The range of Shourya missile is more than 1600 km. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: From which one of the following did India buy the Barak anti-missile defence systems?
Q: In the context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. In November 2006, DRDO successfully conducted the interception test using Prithvi-II missile. 2. Prithvi-II is a surface-to-surface missile and can be deployed to guard the metros against air attack. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Q: With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: The range of Agni-II missile is around
Q: Which one of the following is a modern tank?
Q: Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
Q: With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned?
Q: Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?
Q: With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? 1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units 2. Create meaningful short stories and songs 3. Disease diagnosis 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion 5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct? 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm. 2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication. 3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth. 4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to "Blockchain Technology", consider the following statements : 1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls. 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. 3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: In India, the term 'Public Key Infrastructure' is used in the context of
Q: In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? 1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer 2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so 3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion 4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? 1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. 2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
Q: In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements: 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out. 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings. 3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC. 4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements. A digital signature is 1. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it 2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet 3. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? 1. Location identification of a person 2. Sleep monitoring of a person 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open 'Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)'. What does it imply? 1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 2. Online authentication using iris is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-PIN debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
Q: Consider the following pairs: Terms sometimes seen in news - Context/Topic 1. Belle II - Artificial Intelligence experiment 2. Blockchain - Digital/Cryptocurrency technology 3. CRISPR - Cas9 - Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Q: When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm on which your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?
Q: Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays? 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. 3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission. 2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than WiFi. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: 'Project Loon', sometimes seen in the news, is related to
Q: 'SWAYAM', an initiative of the Government of India, aims at
Q: With reference to 'Bitcoins', sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries. 2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. 3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Regarding ‘DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. 2. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields. 2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other. 3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person? 1. Iris scanning 2. Retinal scanning 3. Voice recognition Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices ?
Q: A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD? 1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video. 2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity. 3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What is "Virtual Private Network"?
Q: Consider the following : 1. Bluetooth device 2. Cordless phone 3. Microwave oven 4. Wi-Fi device Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio-frequency band ?
Q: Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies?
Q: WiMAX is related to which one of the following ?
Q: Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (WWW)?
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Company) A. Chevron B. AT&T C. AMD D. Enercon GmbH List-II (Major Area/Product) 1. Wind Energy 2. Oil 3. Telephone, Internet 4. Micro-processor Codes:
Q: What is the Universal Product Code (UPC) adopted for?
Q: What does the term ‘Dolby B’, or ‘Dolby C’ printed on tape recorders and other sound systems refer to?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km 2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do little harm. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Param Padam, which was in news recently, is
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip. 2. Digital Technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite and fibre optics transmission. 3. A digital library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on the Internet only. Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of
Q: For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a
Q: Assertion (A): Information technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in India. Reason (R): Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a very strong base in hardware.
Q: The world’s fastest computer has been able to perform (as of Dec. 1996)
Q: 104. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcasts is
Q: Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?
Q: With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
Q: With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements : 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? 1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. 2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps. 3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not?
Q: With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements: 1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps but not for submersible pumps. 2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps but not the ones with piston. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements: 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of 'The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEAY ?
Q: With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements: 1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. 2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large-scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?
Q: With reference to 'fuel cells' in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements: 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements: 1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while 'Solar Thermal' is a technology that utilizes the Sun's rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process. 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC). 3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
Q: What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? 1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water. 2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water. 3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium? 1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium. 2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium. 3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why? 1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates. 2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates. 3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
Q: What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp? 1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semi-conductor material. 2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp. 3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Hydrogen fuel-cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”.
Q: In a dry cell (battery), which of the following are used as electrolytes?
Q: In the year 2007, an earthquake led to massive radioactive water leakage in the largest nuclear plant in the world. In which country did it occur?
Q: In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?
Q: Where was the first desalination plant in India to produce one lakh litres freshwater per day based on low temperature thermal desalination principle commissioned?
Q: With which one of the following is BRIT (Government of India) engaged?
Q: Recently, the European Union and six other countries including India signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project. Which one of the following was NOT a signatory to it?
Q: In which one of the following areas did the Indira Gandhi Center for Atomic Research make significant progress in the year 2005?
Q: Assertion (A): The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum Gas is methane. Reason (R): Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.
Q: Match List-I (Atomic Power Plants/Heavy Water Plants) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (A) Thal (B) Manuguru (C) Kakrapar (D) Kaiga List-II (State) 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Gujarat 3. Maharastra 4. Maha 5. Karnataka
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology. 2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production. 3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India's nuclear programme beside other rare earth products. Which of these statements given above are correct?
Q: Match List I (Fuel Gases) with List II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (A) CNG (B) Coal gas (C) LPG (D) Water gas List II 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen 2. Butane, Propane 3. Methane, Ethane 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide Codes:
Q: Consider the following organisations: I. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration II. Heavy Water Board III. Indian Rare Earths Limited IV. Uranium Corporation of India Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?
Q: Consider the following statements: In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because I. More neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions. II. The neutrons immediately take part in the fission process. III. The fast neutrons are slowed down by Graphite. IV. Every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three fourth of the substance would decay in
Q: Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars: I. Radial tyres II. Streamlined body III. Multipoint fuel injection IV. Catalytic converter with exhaust Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fuel-efficient?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding a motor car battery: I. The voltage is usually 12 V. II. Electrolyte used is hydrochloric acid. III. Electrodes are lead and copper. IV. Capacity is expressed in ampere-hour. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Which one of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors?
Q: Which one of the following has the highest fuel value?
Q: Consider the following statements: At the present level of technology available in India, solar energy can be conveniently used to I. Supply hot water to residential buildings. II. Supply water for minor irrigation projects. III. Provide street lighting. IV. Electrify a cluster of villages and small towns. Of these statements
Q: 113. Which one of the following pairs of materials serves as electrodes in chargeable batteries commonly used in devices such as torchlights, electric shavers, etc.?
Q: The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that
Q: ‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across borders is
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements: 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements : 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. 2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body. 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Q: '3D printing' has applications in which of the following? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? 1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. 2. They can enter the food chains. 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? 1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. 3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency. 4. It can be used as conducting electrodes required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why? 1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export. 2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. 3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The series of international paper sizes is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 m² (approx). 2. The area of A4 size paper is 1⁄8th of the A0 size paper. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following types of glass can cut off ultraviolet rays?
Q: Assertion (A): Cellulose is used in making shatter-proof glass. Reason (R): Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.
Q: Which are the materials generally employed as solder in soldering operation in electronics?
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
Q: Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market contains
Q: Which one of the following materials is very hard and very ductile?
Q: Aluminium surfaces are often “anodized”. This means the deposition of a layer of
Q: Match List I (Naturally occurring substances) with List II (Elements) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Diamond II. Marble III. Sand IV. Ruby List II A) Calcium B) Silicon C) Aluminium D) Carbon Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Glass can be etched or scratched by diamond. II. Glass can be etched or scratched by hydrofluoric acid. III. Glass can be etched or scratched by aqua regia. IV. Glass can be etched or scratched by concentrated sulphuric acid. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for the production of steel/iron. Its function is to I. Act as a reducing agent. II. Remove silica associated with the iron ore. III. Function as fuel, to supply heat. IV. Act as an oxidizing agent. Of these statements:
Q: Which one of the following elements is alloyed with iron to produce steel which can resist high temperatures and also have high hardness and abrasion resistance?
Q: 102. Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bullet-proof material?
Q: To which one of the following processes is the term CMYK related?
Q: Which one of the following non-metals is NOT a poor conductor of electricity?
Q: Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Theory/Law — Associated Scientist 1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble 2. Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener 3. Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Who among the following scientists shared the Nobel Prize in Physics with his son?
Q: Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Francis Collins — Mapping human genome 2. Sergey Brin : Google Search Engine 3. Jimmy Wales — Wikipedia Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Nobel Prize–winning scientist James D. Watson is known for his work in which area?
Q: What is the broad area in which the Nobel Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine worked to get the prize?
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Person) A. John C. Mather B. Michael Griffin C. Paul G. Allen D. Piers Sellers List-II (Known as) 1. Co-founder of Microsoft 2. Space walker 3. Administrator of NASA 4. Nobel Prize winner, 2006 in Physics Codes:
Q: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Q: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Recent Scientific Achievement : Country
Q: Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Inventor : Invention 1. Christopher Cockerell : Hovercraft 2. David Bushnell : Submarine 3. J. C. Perrier : Steamship Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Match List-I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) with List-II (Area of work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I A. C. N. R. Rao B. Jagdish Bhagwati C. G. N. Ramchandran D. Ashok List II 1. Telecommunication 2. Physics 3. Economics 4. Solid State Chemistry and Material Science Code:
Q: Who among the following invented Lasers?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer. 2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep. Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Q: The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for Medicine in 2003, relates to
Q: Match List I (Scientists) with List II (Achievement) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Scientists) A. Arber and Smith B. Feldman C. Mullis D. Temin and Baltimore List II (Achievement) 1. Developed transgenic plants with Agrobacterium T-DNA 2. Discovered endonucleases 3. Discovered reverse transcriptase 4. Discovered polymerase chain reaction
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Achievement in genetics) I. Discovery of transduction and conjugation in bacteria II. Establishing the sex-linked inheritance III. Isolation of DNA polymerase from E. coli IV. Establishing the complete genetic code List II (Scientists) A) Khurana B) Kornberg C) Lederberg D) Morgan E) Ochoa
Q: Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List I with the area of their specialised work given in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Dr. Raja Ramanna II. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan III. Prof. U. R. Rao IV. Prof. Meghnad Saha List II A) Plant Chemistry B) Nuclear Physics C) Thermodynamics and astrophysics D) Space research E) Agricultural sciences
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Theory of Mutation II. Theory of Evolution III. One-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis IV. Operon concept List II A) Beadle and Tatum B) Jacob and Monod C) Darwin D) De Vries
Q: Of the four landmarks in medical history given below, which one was the first to take place?
Q: 110. Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things gravitate to the earth?
Q: “By weaving threads of physics, chemistry and biology into a rich tapestry, this remarkable scientist provided a unifying molecular view of the world... He touted the wonderful properties of Vitamin C first as a cure of common cold and later as a preventive agent against cancer.” One of science’s major figures of all time referred to above is
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation–India (NIF)? 1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government. 2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of
Q: For outstanding contribution to which one of the following fields is Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize given ?
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Institute — Location 1. National Centre for Cell Science : Mysore 2. Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics : Hyderabad 3. National Brain Research Centre : Gurgaon Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Who is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome 2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards. 3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Vigyan Rail is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. 2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development. 3. EDUSAT, the ISRO’s educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Match List I (Institute) with List II (Located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (A) Indian Institute of Geomagnetism (B) International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials (C) Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (D) Tropical Forestry Research Institutes List II 1. Coimbatore 2. Mumbai 3. Jabalpur 4. Hyderabad Codes: A B C D
Q: The theme of Indian Science Congress, 2001 was
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Institute) I. Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants II. Centre for DNA Finger Printing and Diagnostics III. Institute of Microbial Technology IV. National Institute of Immunology List II (Location) A) Chandigarh B) Hyderabad C) New Delhi D) Lucknow
Q: In a business concern, there are four functions, namely, Production (PR), Finance (FN), Personnel (PS) and Marketing (MK). The Customer (C) may also play a role in the prosperity of the concern. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I – Pie Diagram I. II. III. IV. List II – Statement A) Customer is the controlling factor B) Marketing is an integrating factor while customer is the controlling factor C) Marketing is the controlling factor D) Marketing is more important than others E) Marketing is as equal a function as the others Codes: a) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B b) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-E d) I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence in respect of the Roman numerals—C, D, L and M?
Q: A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown?
Q: Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law reports and others are Gazetters. What book is a new law report with a red colour?
Q: Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R. O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information, who is facing N?
Q: In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a doctor and a lawyer. A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of the married couple in the group, E is the husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who is the professor?
Q: Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are below twenty-five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?
Q: P, Q, R and S are four men. P is the oldest but not the poorest. R is the richest but not the oldest. Q is older than S but not than P or R. P is richer than Q but not than S. The four men can be ordered (descending) in respect of age and richness, respectively, as
Q: In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that south-east becomes north, north-east becomes west and so on. What will south become?
Q: Examine the following statements : 1. All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4. Some colours are not pleasant. Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded ?
Q: A person travels 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after that 15 km due West and then 18 km due South. How far is he from the starting point ?
Q: Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. C and D are standing close to each other alongside E. B is standing beside A only. A is fourth from F. Who are standing on the extremes ?
Q: How many letters of the English alphabet (capitals) appear same when looked at in a mirror?
Q: There is a family of 6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are two married couples in the family. The family members are lawyer, teacher, salesman, engineer, accountant and doctor. D, the salesman is married to the lady teacher. The doctor is married to the lawyer. F, the accountant is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of A. E is the unmarried engineer. A is the grandmother of F. How is E related to F?
Q: There are three cans A, B and C. The capacities of A, B and C are 6 litres, 10 litres and 16 litres respectively. The can C contains 16 litres of milk. The milk has to be divided in them using these three cans only. Consider the following statements : 1. It is possible to have 6 litres of milk each in can A and can B. 2. It is possible to have 8 litres of milk each in can B and can C. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: In the series AABABCABCDABCDE... which letter occupies the 100th position?
Q: How many different triangles are there in the figure shown above?
Q: Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each face carrying one different number. Further, 1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6. 2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5. 3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and face 5. 4. The face 4 is adjacent to the face 2. Which one of the following is correct?
Q: P, Q, R, S and T reside in a 5-storeyed (Ground + 4) building, and each of them resides on a separate floor. Further, 1. T does not reside on the topmost floor. 2. Q does not reside on the ground floor. 3. S resides on one storey above that of P and one storey below that of R. To know as to which of the 5 persons resides on the ground floor which of the above statements are sufficient / insufficient?
Q: Refer to the three figures I, II and III in which numbers are arranged in squares. What is the value of X in figure III?
Q: Each of the six faces of a cube is numbered by one of the six digits from 1 to 6. This cube is shown in its four different positions in the figures I, II, III and IV. Consider the following statements: 1. Figures II and III are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 6. 2. Figures II and III are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 4. 3. Figures I and IV are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 4. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Each of the persons A, B, C, D and E possesses unequal number (<10) of similar items. A, B and C possess 21 items in all, while C, D and E possess 7 items in all. How many items do A and B possess in all?
Q: In an office, the number of persons who take tea is twice the number of persons who take only coffee. The number of persons who take coffee is twice the number of persons who take only tea. Consider the following statements: 1. The sum of the number of persons who take either tea or coffee or both is four times the number of persons who take both coffee and tea. 2. The sum of the number of persons who take only coffee and those who take only tea is twice the number of persons who take both coffee and tea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which is Krishnan’s hometown?
Q: Which College is situated in Inder’s hometown?
Q: Who studies in Bhopal?
Q: If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct combination of Person–Hometown–Place of Study?
Q: The magazine on science is published by
Q: The magazine on sports is
Q: The magazine on films is
Q: The magazine on politics is
Q: Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours and 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished. The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is:
Q: Most guitarists are bearded males. If A represents all males, B represents bearded males and C represents all male guitarists, then the correct diagram for their relation (shaded portion) is
Q: Anand must be a vegetarian because he is a Buddhist. The argument assumes that
Q: Consider the following pictures of a dice: What is the number opposite of 3?
Q: Examine the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. I. The number of males equals that of females. II. A and E are sons of F. III. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. IV. B is the son of A. V. There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?
Q: The given diagram shows the number of students who failed in an examination comprising papers in English, Hindi and Mathematics. The total number of students who took the test is 500. What is the percentage of students who failed in at least two subjects?
Q: In a certain code, MARCH is written as OCTEJ. How is RETURN written in that code?
Q: A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting in six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F. C is opposite D. D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following must be true?
Q: A club has 108 members. Two-thirds of them are men and the rest are women. All members are married except for 9 women members. How many married women are there in the club?
Q: The following figure represents time vs. learning curves of two students, Q and R, for learning a Mathematics lesson. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the graph?
Q: A goat is tied to two poles P and Q with ropes that are 15-metre long. P and Q are 20 metres apart as shown in the given diagram. Which one of the following shaded portions indicates the total area over which the goat can graze?
Q: A person starts from a point A and travels 3 km eastwards to B and then turns left and travels thrice that distance to reach C. He again turns left and travels five times the distance he covered between A and B and reaches his destination D. The shortest distance between the starting point and destination is
Q: On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky are ‘sky’, ‘light’, ‘air’, ‘water’ and ‘earth’ respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
Q: In a code language, ‘SOLID’ is written as “WPSLIMFHA’. What does the code word ‘ATEXXQIBVO’ refer to?
Q: In a group of five people—K, L and M are ambitious; M, N and R are honest; L, M and N are intelligent and K, N and R are industrious. Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious person(s) would include
Q: Examine the following three statements: I. Processed meat is a perishable food. II. All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins. III. Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
Q: Which one of the following satisfies the relationship D d a : a D D :: R r b : ?
Q: A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting on six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F, C is opposite D, and D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring chairs?
Q: If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE?
Q: The missing fraction in the series given below is:
Q: In the set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage?
Q: Examine the following statements: I. All members of Mohan’s family are honest. II. Some members of Mohan’s family are not employed. III. Some employed persons are not honest. IV. Some honest persons are not employed. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
Q: In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat. Which one of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects the above situation?
Q: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G, are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
Q: In the series POQ, SRT, VUW, ?, the blank space refers to
Q: Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V participate in and finish all the events of a series of swimming races. There are no ties at the finish of any of the events. V always finishes somewhere ahead of P. P always finishes somewhere ahead of Q. Either R finishes first and T finishes last or S finishes first and U or Q finishes last. If in a particular race V finished fifth, then which one of the following would be true?
Q: Consider the following: I. Saxena, David, Jain and Kumar were District Collectors at places P, Q, R and S respectively in 1970. II. In 1972 they were transferred. Saxena and Jain interchanged places. Kumar and David also interchanged places. III. One year later in 1973 they were again transferred such that David and Jain interchanged places and Saxena and Kumar were also interchanged. What should be the next round of transfers so that all the four persons could have been posted at all the four places?
Q: In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages and one person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group?
Q: Examine the following statements regarding a set of balls: I. All balls are black. II. All balls are white. III. Only some balls are black. IV. No balls are black. Assuming that the balls can only be black or white, which two statements given above can both be true, but cannot both be false? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: Consider the figures given below: (In the given sequence of figures, the figure that would logically appear at Sl. No. V is)
Q: Examine the following statements: I. George attends Music classes on Monday. II. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday. III. His Literature classes are not on Friday. IV. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes. V. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes. If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on
Q: Two important characteristics of a hypothesis are that it should be testable and that it should be stated in a manner that it can be refuted. Which one of the following hypotheses fulfils these characteristics?
Q: Six roads lead to a country. They may be indicated by letters X, Y, Z and digits 1, 2, 3. When there is storm, Y is blocked. When there are floods X, 1 and 2 will be affected. When road 1 is blocked, Z also is blocked. At a time when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used?
Q: Which one of the following Venn diagrams correctly illustrates the relationship among the classes: Carrot, Food, Vegetable?
Q: In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, the square represents sportspersons and the circle represents coaches. The portion in the figure which represents girls who are sportspersons but not coaches is the one labelled
Q: The next pair of letters in the series AZ, CX, FU, ...... is
Q: Mouse is to cat as fly is to
Q: A man starts walking in the north-easterly direction from a particular point. After walking a distance of 500 metres, he turns southward and walks a distance of 400 metres. At the end of this walk he is situated
Q: Examine the following statements: I watch TV only if I am bored. I am never bored when I have my brother’s company. Whenever I go to the theatre, I take my brother along. Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?
Q: In the given diagram, circle A represents teachers who can teach Physics, circle B represents teachers who can teach Chemistry and circle C represents those who can teach Mathematics. Among the regions marked p, q, r, s, t, u and v, the one which represents teachers who can teach Physics and Mathematics but not Chemistry, is
Q: Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo-coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
Q: Which of the following can be inferred from the statement that “Either John is stupid or John is lazy”? I. John is lazy / therefore, John is not stupid. II. John is not lazy / therefore, John is stupid. III. John is not stupid / therefore, John is lazy. IV. John is stupid / therefore, John is not lazy. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played?
Q: A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are possible?
Q: Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train?
Q: A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is
Q: Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?
Q: A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour. How much distance did he travel on foot ?
Q: How many numbers from 0 to 999 are NOT divisible by either 5 or 7?
Q: Each person's performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons?
Q: Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km. Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point for the first time?
Q: A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each successive day is the same as the number already present in the basket. This way the basket gets completely filled in 24 days. After how many days was the basket 1⁄4th full?
Q: The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1 : 3. The smaller coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from where the process of rolling started. How many times did the smaller coin roll around the bigger coin?
Q: The difference between the simple interest received from two banks on Rs. 500 for two years is Rs. 2·50. What is the difference between their rates?
Q: When ten persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible?
Q: A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% marks in the test and all questions carried equal marks, then what is the total number of questions in the test?
Q: In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a line such that two of them, A and B, are always together?
Q: A person has 4 coins each of different denomination. What is the number of different sums of money the person can form (using one or more coins at a time)?
Q: How many numbers lie between 300 and 500 in which 4 comes only one time?
Q: How many three-digit numbers can be generated from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 such that the digits are in ascending order?
Q: There are four persons A, B, C, D; and A has some coins. A gave half of the coins to B and 4 more besides. B gave half of the coins to C and 4 more besides. C gave half of the coins to D and 4 more besides. Both B and D end up with same number of coins. How many coins did A have originally?
Q: While adding the first few continuous natural numbers, a candidate missed one of the numbers and wrote the answer as 177. What was the number missed?
Q: Four metal rods of lengths 78 cm, 104 cm, 117 cm and 169 cm are to be cut into parts of equal length. Each part must be as long as possible. What is the maximum number of pieces that can be cut?
Q: In an examination, there are three subjects A, B and C. A student has to pass in each subject. 20% students failed in A, 22% students failed in B and 16% failed in C. The total number of students passing the whole examination lies between
Q: How many times are an hour hand and a minute hand of a clock at right angles during their motion from 1.00 p.m. to 10.00 p.m.?
Q: There are 240 balls and n number of boxes B1, B2, B3, … , Bn. The balls are to be placed in the boxes such that B1 should contain 4 balls more than B2, B2 should contain 4 balls more than B3, and so on. Which one of the following cannot be the possible value of n?
Q: In a carrom board game competition, m boys and n girls (m > n > 1) of a school participate in which every student has to play exactly one game with every other student. Out of the total games played, it was found that in 221 games one player was a boy and the other player was a girl. Consider the following statements : 1. The total number of students that participated in the competition is 30. 2. The number of games in which both players were girls is 78. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: What is the number of terms in the series 117, 120, 123, 126, ..., 333?
Q: In how many different ways can four books A, B, C and D be arranged one above another in a vertical order such that the books A and B are never in continuous position?
Q: Carpenter A can make a chair in 6 hours, carpenter B in 7 hours and carpenter C in 8 hours. If each carpenter works for 8 hours per day, how many chairs will be made in 21 days?
Q: A person purchases 100 pens at a discount of 10%. The net amount of money spent by the person to purchase the pens is Rs 600. The selling expenses incurred by the person are 15% on the net cost price. What should be the selling price for 100 pens in order to earn a profit of 25%?
Q: A schoolteacher has to select the maximum possible number of different groups of 3 students out of a total of 6 students. In how many groups any particular student will be included?
Q: In an examination, 70% of the students passed in the Paper I, and 60% of the students passed in the Paper II. 15% of the students failed in both the papers while 270 students passed in both the papers. What is the total number of students?
Q: March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March 1, 2002?
Q: In how many different ways can all of 5 identical balls be placed in the cells shown above such that each row contains at least 1 ball?
Q: There are 6 different letters and 6 correspondingly addressed envelopes. If the letters are randomly put in the envelopes, what is the probability that exactly 5 letters go into the correctly addressed envelopes?
Q: There are two identical red, two identical black and two identical white balls. In how many different ways can the balls be placed in the cells (each cell to contain one ball) shown above such that balls of the same colour do not occupy any two consecutive cells?
Q: (Each small circle represents a different station) Refer to the figure showing a network between station A and station B. What is the maximum number of different paths that exist between station A and station B?
Q: In how many maximum different ways can 3 identical balls be placed in 12 squares (each ball is placed in the exact centre of a square) shown in the figure above such that they do not lie along the same straight line?
Q: In the figure shown above, what is the maximum number of different ways in which 8 identical balls can be placed in small triangles 1, 2, 3 and 4 such that each triangle contains at least one ball?
Q: Amit has five friends: 3 girls and 2 boys. Amit’s wife also has five friends: 3 boys and 2 girls. In how many maximum different ways can they invite 2 boys and 2 girls such that two of them are Amit’s friends and two are his wife’s friends?
Q: Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three different boxes such that any box contains at least one ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
Q: All six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in any one word. The words so formed are then arranged as a dictionary. What will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence?
Q: Three dice (each having six faces with each face showing one number from 1 to 6) are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one die shows the number 2?
Q: Groups, each containing 3 boys, are to be formed out of 5 boys – A, B, C, D and E – such that no one group contains both C and D together. What is the maximum number of different groups?
Q: Each of the 3 persons is to be given some identical items such that the product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum different ways can this distribution be done?
Q: Six equidistant vertical lines are drawn on a board. Six equidistant horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the six vertical lines and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of squares thus formed?
Q: A person has to completely put each of three liquids – 403 litres of petrol, 465 litres of diesel and 496 litres of mobile oil – in bottles of equal size without mixing any of the three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled. What is the least possible number of bottles required?
Q: A and B can complete work together in 5 days. If A works at twice his speed and B at half of his speed, this work can be finished in 4 days. How many days would it take for A alone to complete the job?
Q: If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are written, what is the total number of times the digit 6 appears?
Q: Amit starts from a point A, walks to another point B and then returns from B to A by his car, taking a total time of 6 hours 45 minutes. If he had driven both ways in his car, he would have taken 2 hours less. How long would it take for him to walk both ways?
Q: A watch showed a time of fourteen minutes past nine (9 hrs 14 minutes). The positions of the hour-hand and the minute-hand of the watch are exactly interchanged. The new time shown by the watch is closest to which one of the following?
Q: Each of 8 identical balls is to be placed in the squares shown in the figure given above in a horizontal direction such that one horizontal row contains 6 balls and the other horizontal row contains 2 balls. In how many maximum different ways can this be done?
Q: In a tournament each of the participants was to play one match against each of the other participants. 3 players fell ill after each of them had played three matches and had to leave the tournament. What was the total number of participants at the beginning, if the total number of matches played was 75 ?
Q: A box contains 5 sets of balls while there are 3 balls in each set. Each set of balls has one colour which is different from every other set. What is the least number of balls that must be removed from the box in order to claim with certainty that a pair of balls of the same colour has been removed?
Q: 3 digits are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 without repeating any digit. What is the probability that their product is odd?
Q: In a question paper, there are four multiple-choice questions. Each question has five choices with only one choice for its correct answer. What is the total number of ways in which a candidate will not get all the four answers correct?
Q: There are three parallel straight lines. Two points A and B are marked on the first line, points C and D are marked on the second line, and points E and F are marked on the third line. Each of these six points can move to any position on its respective straight line. Consider the following statements: 1. The minimum number of triangles that can be formed by joining these points is zero. 2. The maximum number of triangles that can be formed by joining these points is twenty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: A mixed doubles tennis game is to be played between two teams (each team consists of one male and one female). There are 4 married couples. No team is to consist of a husband and his wife. What is the maximum number of games that can be played?
Q: How many numbers are there in all 6000 to 6999 (both 6000 and 6999 included) having at least one of their digits repeated?
Q: Each of 2 women and 3 men is to occupy one chair out of 8 chairs, each of which is numbered from 1 to 8. First, women are to occupy any two chairs from those numbered 1 to 4; and then 3 men would occupy any three chairs out of the remaining 6 chairs. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
Q: Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
Q: On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
Q: Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
Q: A big rectangular plot of area 4320 m² is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot?
Q: 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats are vacant. One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
Q: A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball in one square only). In how many different ways can this be done?
Q: There are 6 persons – A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A. In how many different ways can this be done?
Q: 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians there are 110 men who are not judges; 160 are men judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no foreign judges. How many Indian women attended the meeting?
Q: There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F. (i) A has 3 items more than C (ii) D has 2 items less than B (iii) E has 6 items less than F (iv) C has 2 items more than E (v) F has 3 items more than D Which one of the following figures CANNOT be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
Q: Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the probability that at any given point of time all ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box?
Q: An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into a number of identical small equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be a possible value of n?
Q: There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on one face and ‘T’ engraved on the other face. These 10 coins are lying on a table and each one of them has the ‘H’ face as the upper face. In one attempt, exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What is the minimum number of attempts in which the ‘T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
Q: Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other?
Q: In a question of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The examinees are required to match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is given that 1. No examinee has given the correct answer 2. Answers of no two examinees are identical What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test?
Q: A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field 400 m × 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 1 and 2.30 p.m.?
Q: Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?
Q: How many three-digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit, and 7 is the preceding digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit?
Q: In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them, Ajit and Mukherjee, are never together?
Q: 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work, but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is completed in
Q: Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their birth is
Q: Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes can be generated by waving i) a single flag of different colours, or ii) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or iii) three flags in a different sequence of colours. The maximum number of codes that can be generated is
Q: A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is
Q: ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each other at
Q: A two-member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?
Q: Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All three begin to toll at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again?
Q: Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is
Q: ‘A’ and ‘B’ are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist C moves such that ACB is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: A complete cycle of a traffic light takes 60 seconds. During each cycle the light is green for 25 seconds, yellow for 5 seconds and red for 30 seconds. At a randomly chosen time, the probability that the light will not be green is
Q: A trader fixed the price of an article in such a way that by giving a rebate of 10 % on the price fixed he made a profit of 15 %. If the cost of the article is Rs 72, the price fixed on it is
Q: Consider the volumes of the following: 1. A parallelepiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height 4 cm 2. A cube of each side 4 cm 3. A cylinder of radius 3 cm and length 3 cm 4. A sphere of radius 3 cm The volumes of these in the decreasing order is
Q: A train of length 150 metres, moving at a speed of 90 km/hr can cross a 200-metre bridge in
Q: The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Five years hence, his age will be double the sum of the ages of his sons. The father’s present age is
Q: The length of the longest pole that can be placed in a room 12 m long and 9 m wide and 8 m high is
Q: In a company 60 % of the employees are men. Of these, 40 % are drawing more than Rs 50,000 per year. If 36 % of the total employees of the company draw more than Rs 50,000 per year, what is the percentage among women who are drawing less than Rs 50,000 per year?
Q: A bus is moving at 30 km/h, and a car is coming from behind at 50 km/h. How far apart are they if it takes 15 minutes for the car to catch up with the bus?
Q: Two ladies simultaneously leave cities A and B connected by a straight road and travel towards each other. The first lady travels 2 km/hr faster than the second lady and reaches B one hour before the second lady reaches A. The two cities A and B are 24 km apart. How many kilometres does each lady travel in one hour?
Q: Amit started a business by investing Rs 30,000. Rahul joined the business after some time and invested Rs 20,000. At the end of the year, profit was divided in the ratio of 2 : 1. After how many months did Rahul join the business?
Q: The time in the wall clock is 3.25; the acute angle between the hours hand and the minutes hand is
Q: Solve the given equations: x² + y² = 34 x⁴ − y⁴ = 544 The values of x and y are
Q: A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is
Q: A conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 3 tons in 5 minutes, and a second conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 1 ton in 2 minutes. How much time will it take to get 33 tons of baggage delivered using both the conveyer belts?
Q: Water is filled in a container in such a manner that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the container to be full, in how much time will it be one-fourth full?
Q: A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males. 50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, the number of literate females is
Q: In a survey, it was found that 80% of those surveyed owned a car while 60% of those surveyed owned a mobile phone. If 55% owned both a car and a mobile phone, what per cent of those surveyed owned a car or a mobile phone or both?
Q: In 1930, a person’s age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the father’s age became ten times that of his son’s age in 1930. The ages of the son and father in 1940 were, respectively.
Q: A circle of 1 m radius is drawn inside a square as shown in the figure given above. What is the area of the shaded portion in m²?
Q: In the above figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, AB = BC and angle BAC = 70°, then angle ADC is
Q: A person travels from X to Y at a speed of 40 kmph and returns by increasing his speed by 50%. What is his average speed for both the trips?
Q: A rectangular water tank measures 15 m × 6 m at top and is 10 m deep. It is full of water. If water is drawn out lowering the level by 1 metre, how much of water has been drawn out?
Q: An accurate clock shows 8 o’clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o’clock in the afternoon?
Q: The monthly income of Komal and Asha are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, both save Rs. 600 per month. What is their total monthly income?
Q: If X = –2, then X³ – X² – X – 1 is equal to
Q: In the given figure, all line segments of the shaded portion are of the same length and at right angles to each other. The same can be cut out of a board of side 10 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion?
Q: In a class there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these boys constitute three fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two third of the number of students in the class, then what is the number of girls in the class?
Q: A rectangular piece of iron sheet measuring 50 cm by 100 cm is rolled into a cylinder of height 50 cm. If the cost of painting the cylinder is Rs. 50 per square metre, then what will be the cost of painting the outer surface of the cylinder?
Q: In an examination, every candidate took Physics or Mathematics or both. 65.8% took Physics and 59.2% took Mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000. How many candidates took both Physics and Mathematics?
Q: A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blind-folded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?
Q: Which one of the following has a greater perimeter than the rest?
Q: In the given figure, angle QOP = 30° and angle ORP = 20°, angle QOR is equal to
Q: The distribution of 1,00,000 tourists who visited India during a particular year is shown in the given charts. Based on this, the number of Japanese tourists below the age of 39 who visited India in the year concerned is
Q: What is the maximum number of pieces of 5 cm × 5 cm × 10 cm cake that can be cut from a big cake of 5 cm × 30 cm × 30 cm size?
Q: In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89, ……… the value of ‘X’ is
Q: The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25% more than that of the return journey. The train halts for one hour on reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to-and-fro journey is 17 hours covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey is
Q: In a town 25% families own a phone and 15% own a car. 65% families own neither a phone nor a car. 2000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the following statements in this regard: I. 10% families own both a car and a phone. II. 35% families own either a car or a phone. III. 40,000 families live in the town. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: The yield versus fertilizer input is shown in the graph. Consider the following statements based on this graph: I. Yield rate is zero at B and C. II. There is no yield with no fertilizer input. III. The yield is minimum at D. IV. The yield is neither minimum nor maximum at C. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: A company manufacturing air-conditioners has set a monthly target. The target and realised values are shown in the bar chart. Consider the following statements based on the chart: I. The targeted sales on a monthly basis have been achieved. II. The overall target value has been exceeded by 7.5%. III. The Sales Department deserves a pat on the back. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: A man is standing on the 8 m long shadow of a 6 m long pole. If the length of his shadow is 2.4 m, what is the height of the man?
Q: If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2, then the triangle
Q: The surface area of a spherical dome-shaped roof of a cylindrical water tank shown in the figure is
Q: If X + 2Y = 2X + Y, then X² / Y² is equal to
Q: A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with a beverage. The contents of the bowl are transferred into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is the same for both bowl and cylinder, then the volume of the beverage in the cylindrical vessel will be
Q: In an office, the distribution of work hours is as shown in the following table: No. of Staff Members | No. of hours worked 5 | 0 – 19 12 | 20 – 24 25 | 25 – 29 40 | 30 – 34 15 | 35 – 39 8 | 40 – 45 Consider the following inferences drawn from the table: I. The average number of hours worked by a staff member is about 30. II. The percentage of those who worked 35 or more hours is less than 25. III. At least 5 staff members worked more than 44 hours. Which of these inferences is/are valid?
Q: In a factory, a quality-assurance test is conducted on various samples for a specific characteristic value of the product. The values and the number of samples are as given in the following table (table not reproduced here). Consider the following statements based on the table: I. The probability that X = 15 is 0.64. II. The probability that 13 < X = 17 is greater than 0.64. III. The probability that X = 15 is less than 0.22. Which of the above statements is/are NOT true?
Q: At a given time, two players are standing on a play-field. The cartesian coordinates of their locations are (20, 60) and (-40, -20) units. What is the distance between the players?
Q: The area of an ellipse is twice that of a circle. The major diameter of the ellipse is twice that of the minor diameter. The radius of the circle is
Q: Amar, Akbar and Anthony are friends, being looked after by a matron Farah. Amar weighs 50% more than Akbar and Anthony weigh 25% less than Amar. Farah weighs a third of the combined weight of the three boys. All four together weigh 232 kg. The correct arrangement of the persons in the ascending order of their weights is
Q: LMNOP is a semi-circle with centre at R and diameter LP; LSR and RQP are also semi-circles with centres at T and U and diameters LR = RP = 1⁄2 LP. The ratio of perimeters of LMNOP and LSRQP is
Q: A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of Rs 650. He sells A with 20% profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the same selling price for both the clocks. What are the purchasing prices of A and B respectively?
Q: If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 7 days, then how many extra pumps will be required to fill the tank in 5 days?
Q: Out of the three annual examinations, each with a total of 500 marks, a student secured average marks of 45 % and 55 % in the first and second annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60 %, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third annual examination?
Q: A square pond has 2 m sides and is 1 m deep. If it is to be enlarged, the depth remaining the same, into a circular pond with the diagonal of the square as diameter as shown in the figure, then what would be the volume of earth to be removed?
Q: One local and another express train were proceeding in the same direction on parallel tracks at 29 km/hour and 65 km/hour respectively. The driver of the former noticed that it took exactly 16 seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the faster train?
Q: In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother?
Q: There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
Q: An accurate clock shows the time as 3 : 00. After the hour hand has moved 135°, the time would be
Q: A rectangular plot of lawn shown in the figure has dimensions x and y and is surrounded by a gravel pathway of width 2 m. What is the total area of the pathway?
Q: The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 1000. What will be the monthly average income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 12,000 per year?
Q: In the given figure, if QRS is an equilateral triangle and QTS is an isosceles triangle and x = 47°, then the value (in degrees) of y will be
Q: There are three drawers in a table. One contains two gold coins, another two silver coins, and the third, a silver coin and a gold coin. One of the drawers is pulled out and a coin is taken out. It turns out to be a silver coin. What is the probability of drawing a gold coin, if one of the other two drawers is pulled out next and one of the coins in it is drawn at random?
Q: P is 300 km eastward of O and Q is 400 km north of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R is
Q: When three coins are tossed together the probability that all coins have the same face up is
Q: The number of students in two sections, A and B, having different heights is shown in the following table: Height (in metres) Number of students with that height in Section A Section B 1.55 3 2 1.60 7 3 1.62 12 14 1.65 15 14 1.68 8 9 1.71 6 5 1.75 3 4 The ratio of the number of students of a particular height in Section A to that in Section B is the maximum for the height of
Q: If the number representing volume and surface area of a cube are equal, then the length of the edge of the cube in terms of the unit of measurement will be
Q: The length, breadth and height of a room are l, b and h respectively. The perimeter of the ceiling expressed as a percentage of the total area of the four walls is
Q: A survey was conducted on a sample of 1000 persons with reference to their knowledge of English, French and German. The results of the survey are presented in the given Venn diagram. The ratio of the number of persons who do not know any of the three languages to those who know all the three languages is
Q: The number of times in a day the Hour hand and the Minute hand of a clock at right angles is
Q: Consider the following figures: (i) a rectangle 4 cm × 9 cm (ii) a square of side 6 cm (iii) a right-angled triangle with base 8 cm and height 9 cm Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from these figures?
Q: In an accurate clock, over a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, the minute hand will move over
Q: If the price of a television set is increased by 25%, then by what percentage should the new price be reduced to bring the price back to the original level?
Q: The given pie charts show the proportion of literates and illiterates in a country, in the year 1970 and 1990 and also the proportion of males (M) and females (F) among the literates. Which one of the following statements can be said to be beyond any doubt?
Q: If A = x² − y², B = 20 and x + y = 10, then
Q: When the frequency distribution is normal
Q: The following figure contains three squares with areas of 100, 16 and 49 lying side by side as shown. By how much should the area of the middle square be reduced in order that the total length PQ of the resulting three squares is 19?
Q: The average of X1, X2 and X3 is 14. Twice the sum of X2 and X3 is 30. What is the value of X1?
Q: A rectangle has a perimeter of 50 metres. If its length is 13 metres more than its breadth, then its area is
Q: Two packs of cards are thoroughly mixed and shuffled and two cards are drawn at random, one after the other. What is the probability that both of them are Jacks?
Q: Consider the series given below: 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96... The next term of the series is
Q: In track meets both 100 yards and 100 metres are used as distances. By how many metres is 100 metres longer than 100 yards?
Q: A person travelled from one place to another at an average speed of 40 kilometres/hour and back to the original place at an average speed of 50 kilometres/hour. What is his average speed in kilometres/hour during the entire roundtrip?
Q: The value of (a – m)(b – m) … (y – m)(z – m) is
Q: A rectangular sump of dimensions 6 m × 5 m × 4 m is to be built by using bricks to make the outer dimension 6.2 m × 5.2 m × 4.2 m. Approximately how many bricks of size 20 cm × 10 cm × 5 cm are required to build the sump for storing water?
Q: Consider the figure given below: PQRS is a square of side 1 unit and Q, S are the centres of the two circles. The area of the shaded portion is
Q: A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 metres ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be
Q: A student has 60% chance of passing in English and 54% chance of passing in both English and Mathematics. What is the percentage probability that he will fail in Mathematics?
Q: One of the drawers is opened at random and a coin is drawn. It is found to be a silver coin. What is the probability that the other coin in the drawer is a gold coin?
Q: In the Cartesian plane four points P, Q, R, S have coordinates (1, 1), (4, 2), (4, 4) and (1, 4). The area of the quadrilateral PQRS is
Q: X and Y are two variables whose values at any time are related to each other as shown in Fig. (i). X is known to vary periodically with reference to time as shown in Fig. (ii). Which of the following curves depicts correctly the dependence of Y on time?
Q: Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5 % can play all the three instruments—guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?
Q: A person earns Rs 2000 per month over and above his salary as additional charge allowance. However, 30 % of this additional income will be deducted as additional income tax at source. If the person would deposit Rs 1000 per month in a long-term saving fetching 12 % interest, his tax liability on the additional allowance would reduce to 10 %. What is the effective interest for this person for money invested in the long-term savings scheme?
Q: Which one of the following is NOT radioactive?
Q: The following table shows the per cent change in the number of sales (in rupees) at different retail stores in a given neighbourhood market in the period 1993 to 1995: Retail Store — Percent Change 1993 to 1994 — 1994 to 1995 Anshu: +10, -10 Borna: -20, +9 Calpo: +5, +12 Dilip: -7, -15 Elegant: +17, -8 If the sales at Anshu store amounted to Rs. 8 lakhs in 1993, then the number of sales (in lakhs of rupees) at that store in 1995 was
Q: Examine the following statements: I. All children are inquisitive. II. Some children are inquisitive. III. No children are inquisitive. IV. Some children are not inquisitive. Among these statements, the two statements which cannot both be true simultaneously but can both be false would be
On average, 15–20 questions (roughly 15–20% of the paper) come from Science & Technology, but the exact number can fluctuate between 10 and 25 depending on the year’s current-affairs intensity.
Start with NCERT Class VI–X for basics, selectively read Class XI–XII Biology and Physics sections, then use one comprehensive guide such as Ravi Agrahari’s ‘Science & Technology’ (McGraw Hill) or Spectrum’s ‘Science & Technology for Civil Services’. Complement these with current-affairs sources like The Hindu, PIB and ISRO/DRDO websites.
Yes, but only at a conceptual level. UPSC asks the principle, applications and India-related developments rather than heavy mathematical detail. Knowing the basic working, advantages, challenges and recent Indian initiatives is sufficient.
Solve PYQs topic-wise after completing a chapter to understand framing and difficulty. Revise them again closer to the exam to spot patterns. If a concept has been asked twice, mark it ‘high priority’ because UPSC often revisits core ideas after a gap.
In the last decade, Biotechnology & Genetics (+ Health & Diseases) together have contributed about 25–30% of all S&T questions, surpassing traditional Physics (~20%) and Chemistry (~10%). Hence, biotech and health have become must-cover areas.
