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Complete 2001 UPSC CSE Prelims GS1 paper with 148 questions, answers, and detailed explanations. Attempt all questions with show/hide answers, or take the timed quiz.
148
Questions
82
Easy
62
Moderate
4
Difficult
The 2001 UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination maintained the broad-based approach typical of the pre-CSAT era, yet it displayed some distinctive skews that aspirants should note. Out of 148 questions, Science & Technology alone accounted for a striking 52 items (around 35%), underlining the Commission’s intent to reward a strong school-level conceptual grounding in Physics, Chemistry and Biology. Geography (22) and the Indian Economy (24) formed the next two heavyweights and, together with Sci-Tech, made up roughly two-thirds of the paper. The traditional staples—Indian Polity (12) and Modern History (8)—were comparatively light, hinting that the 1990s-style dominance of polity/history was already waning.
Difficulty distribution shows 82 Easy, 62 Moderate and just 4 Difficult questions, making 2001 one of the more scoring papers of the decade. Many Economy and Polity items were straightforward fact-based or definition-based, enabling well-prepared candidates to clear the cut-off comfortably. Conversely, the ‘surprise’ component lay in the depth of Science & Technology, where several questions probed applied concepts such as polymer usage, satellite payloads and human physiology—areas often ignored by humanities-centric aspirants. Another minor surprise was the modest share of Environment & Ecology (only 3 questions) despite growing environmental discourse globally at the time.
A notable pattern was the clear preference for one-liner factual statements over analytical matching or assertion-reason formats, simplifying time management. Current Affairs (11 questions) leaned heavily on events from 1999–2000, especially international summits and space milestones. Overall, the 2001 paper rewarded breadth rather than depth, quick recall over lengthy reasoning, and highlighted the need for balanced preparation that does not underestimate the ever-expanding Science & Tech domain.
| Subject | Questions | Percentage |
|---|---|---|
| Science & Technology | 52 | 35.1% |
| Indian Economy | 24 | 16.2% |
| Geography | 22 | 14.9% |
| Indian Polity | 12 | 8.1% |
| Current Affairs | 11 | 7.4% |
| Modern History | 8 | 5.4% |
| Art & Culture | 6 | 4.1% |
| Medieval History | 6 | 4.1% |
| Ancient History | 4 | 2.7% |
| Environment & Ecology | 3 | 2.0% |
| Total | 148 | 100% |
Q: In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
Q: Who among the following organised the famous Chittagong armoury raid?
Q: Consider the decadal Census data given below: Decadal Population (in millions) Population 1961 10.7 1971 14.3 1981 16.2 1991 18.9 The above data refer to which one of the ‘Population by Religion’ groups?
Q: Which of the following committees examined and suggested Financial Sector Reforms?
Q: In which one of the following cities is the Lingaraja Temple located?
Q: A London branch of the All-India Muslim League was established in 1908 under the presidency of
Q: The above map is the Union Territory of
Q: Identify the correct order of the processes of soil erosion from the following:
Q: The new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) released by the Government of India is with reference to the base prices of
Q: The chess player Alexi Shirov represents
Q: Consider the following organisations: I. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration II. Heavy Water Board III. Indian Rare Earths Limited IV. Uranium Corporation of India Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?
Q: Who among the following was the President of the All-India States’ Peoples’ Conference in 1939?
Q: Consider the following statements about the minorities in India: I. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities. II. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993. III. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians. IV. The Constitution of India recognises and protects religious and linguistic minorities. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: The temperature and rainfall of a meteorological station are given below: J F M A M J J A S O N D Temperature (°C): 9.4 10.6 11.7 12.2 13.3 13.9 13.9 14.4 15.6 15.0 13.3 10.6 Rainfall (cm): 12.2 9.1 7.9 2.5 1.8 0.3 – – 0.8 2.5 6.1 11.7 Average Temperature: 12.8 °C Average Rainfall: 54.9 cm per annum Identify the region having the above climatic pattern from amongst the following:
Q: The theme of the World Development Report, 2001 is
Q: In which one of the following areas does the State Government NOT have control over its local bodies?
Q: Who amongst the following Englishmen first translated the Bhagavad-Gita into English?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India: I. There are eighteen High Courts in the country. II. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one State. III. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own. IV. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: The term National Income represents
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Local Wind) I. Fohn II. Samun III. Santa Ana IV. Zonda List II (Region) A) Argentina B) Kurdistan C) California D) Alps Codes:
Q: The given map shows four towns of the Central Asian region marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Identify these from the following list and select the correct answer using the codes given below: Towns: A. Bishkek B. Ashkhabad C. Tashkent D. Dushanbe Codes:
Q: Mekong Ganga Cooperation Project is
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Amendments to the Constitution) I. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 II. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994 III. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000 IV. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000 List II (Contents) A) Establishment of State-level Rent Tribunals Act, 1991 B) No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh C) Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels D) Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission E) According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi Codes:
Q: The largest number of Buddhists is found in
Q: Who amongst the following was the Chairman of ISRO when INSAT-3B was launched?
Q: Assertion (A): The Battle of Khanua was certainly more decisive and significant than the First Battle of Panipat. Reason (R): Rana Sanga, the Rajput hero, was certainly a more formidable adversary than Ibrahim Lodi.
Q: Assertion (A): Anti-cyclonic conditions are formed in winter season when atmospheric pressure is high and air temperatures are low. Reason (R): Winter rainfall in Northern India causes development of anticyclonic conditions with low temperatures.
Q: Assertion (A): Harshavardhana convened the Prayag Assembly. Reason (R): He wanted to popularise only the Mahayana form of Buddhism.
Q: Assertion (A): There was an increase in industrial production during 1999-2000. Reason (R): The period witnessed a stable exchange rate and improved business sentiments.
Q: Assertion (A): Ceiling on foreign exchange for a host of current account transaction heads was lowered in the year 2000. Reason (R): There was a fall in foreign currency assets also.
Q: Assertion (A): During the Neap Tides, the high tide is lower and the low tide is higher than usual. Reason (R): The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring Tide, occurs on the New Moon instead of on the Full Moon.
Q: The prices at which the Government purchases food grains for maintaining the public distribution system and for building up buffer stocks is known as
Q: The theme of Indian Science Congress, 2001 was
Q: Consider the following statements regarding environment issues of India: I. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves. II. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan. III. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts nonformal education in environment and conservation. IV. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralised information network for environmental information. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Which one of the Chola kings conquered Ceylon?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the Armed Forces: I. First batch of women pilots was commissioned in Indian Air Force in 1996. II. Officers’ Training Academy is located in Nagpur. III. Southern Command of Indian Navy has its Headquarters at Chennai. IV. One of the Regional Headquarters of Coast Guard is located at Port Blair. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding power sector in India: I. The installed capacity of power generation is around 95000 MW. II. Nuclear plants contribute nearly 15% of total power generation. III. Hydroelectricity plants contribute nearly 40% of total power generation. IV. Thermal plants at present account for nearly 80% of total power generation. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
Q: National Agriculture Insurance Scheme replacing Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year
Q: Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Country) I. Columbia II. The Philippines III. Mexico IV. Venezuela List II (President) A) Vicente Fox B) Hugo Chavez C) Gloria Macapagal Arroyo D) Andres Pastrana
Q: The annual agricultural production of a product for the period 1991-92 to 1998-99 is shown in the figure given above. Which one of the following is the product in Q?
Q: Consider the following States: I. Gujarat II. Karnataka III. Maharashtra IV. Tamil Nadu The descending order of these States with reference to their level of Per Capita Net State Domestic Product is
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India: I. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties. II. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission. III. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more States. IV. During the 1999 general elections, there were six National and 48 State level parties recognised by the Election Commission. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Institute) I. Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants II. Centre for DNA Finger Printing and Diagnostics III. Institute of Microbial Technology IV. National Institute of Immunology List II (Location) A) Chandigarh B) Hyderabad C) New Delhi D) Lucknow
Q: Which one of the following animals was NOT represented on the seals and terracotta art of the Harappan culture?
Q: The range of Agni-II missile is around
Q: The approximate age of the Aravalli’s range is
Q: Consider the following: I. Market borrowing II. Treasury bills III. Special securities issued to RBI Which of these is/are component(s) of internal debt?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Article of the Constitution) I. Article 54 II. Article 75 III. Article 155 IV. Article 164 List II (Content) A) Election of the President of India B) Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers C) Appointment of the Governor of a State D) Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State E) Composition of Legislative Assemblies
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Important Day) I. World Environment Day II. World Forestry Day III. World Habitat Day IV. World Ozone Day List II (Date) A) March 20 B) June 5 C) September 16 D) October 3 E) December 10
Q: The shaded area in the above map shows the empire of
Q: Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India: I. It is a banker to the Central Government. II. It formulates and administers monetary policy. III. It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India’s membership of IMF. IV. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Most magmas are a combination of liquid, solid and gas. II. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the principal gases dissolved in a magma. III. Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following schemes launched by the Union Government: I. Antyodaya Anna II. Gram Sadak Yojana III. Sarvapriya IV. Jawahar Gram Samriddhi Yojana. Which of these were announced in the year 2000?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Books) I. The Struggle in My Life II. The Struggle and the Triumph III. Friends and Foes IV. Rebirth List II (Author) A) Lech Walesa B) Nelson Mandela C) Leonid Brezhnev D) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto E) Sheikh Mujibur Rehman
Q: Hoysala monuments are found in
Q: Consider the following statements regarding earthquakes: I. The intensity of an earthquake is measured on the Mercalli scale. II. The magnitude of an earthquake is a measure of energy released. III. Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct measurements of the amplitude of seismic waves. IV. In the Richter scale, each whole number demonstrates a hundred-fold increase in the amount of energy released. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
Q: Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
Q: A great landslide caused by an earthquake killed hundreds of people in January 2001 near
Q: In the above map, the black marks show the distribution of
Q: Consider the following factors regarding an industry: I. Capital investments II. Business turnover III. Labour force IV. Power consumption Which of these determine the nature and size of the industry?
Q: Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Dancer) I. Kalamandalam Kshemavaty II. Kottakkal Sivaraman III. Lakshmi Viswanathan IV. N. Madhabi Devi List II (Dance) A) Kathakali B) Manipuri C) Mohiniyattam D) Bharata Natyam
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Bhakti Saint) I. Namdev II. Kabir III. Ravidas IV. Sena List II (Profession) A) Barber B) Weaver C) Tailor D) Cobbler
Q: The most appropriate measure of a country’s economic growth is its
Q: The Supreme Court of India tenders’ advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
Q: Falun Gong is
Q: The Hunter Commission was appointed after the
Q: Who amongst the following was the first to state that the Earth was spherical?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Term) I. Fiscal deficit II. Budget deficit III. Revenue deficit IV. Primary deficit List II (Explanation) A) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts B) Excess of Revenue Expenditure over Revenue Receipts C) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings D) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings and Interest Payments
Q: Consider the following organisations: I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development II. International Finance Corporation III. International Fund for Agricultural Development IV. International Monetary Fund Which of these are agencies of the United Nations?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Person) I. Deep Sen Gupta II. P. Hari Krishna III. Seema Antil IV. Tejas Bakre List II (Achievement) A) India’s youngest International Master in the Sangli International Chess Tournament, 2000 B) The first Indian ever to win a gold in discus in the World Athletic Championship in Santiago, 2000 C) Won the title in the Asian Junior Chess Tournament in Mumbai, 2000 D) Won the Under-12 title in the World Youth Chess Festival in Oropesa, 2000
Q: Under the Permanent Settlement, 1793, the zamindars were required to issue pattas to the farmers which were not issued by many of the zamindars. The reason was
Q: If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an observer, he is located on the
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Person) I. Santosh Yadav II. Oprah Winfrey III. Oscar Wilde IV. P. Sainath List II (Distinguished as) A) T.V. Host B) Journalist C) Mountaineer D) Dramatist and Author
Q: In the shaded area of the above map, the mean temperature for the month of July varies between
Q: The Union Budget, 2000 awarded a Tax Holiday for the North-eastern Region to promote industrialisation for
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Arya Samaj was founded in 1835. II. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed the appeal of Arya Samaj to the authority of Vedas in support of its social reform programmes. III. Under Keshab Chandra Sen, the Brahmo Samaj campaigned for women’s education. IV. Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodaya Samaj to work among refugees. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following taxes: I. Corporation tax II. Customs duty III. Wealth tax IV. Excise duty Which of these is/are indirect taxes?
Q: The Mongols under Genghis Khan invaded India during the reign of
Q: The high density of population in Nile Valley and Island of Java is primarily due to
Q: The largest share of Foreign Direct Investment (1997-2000) went to
Q: Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Q: Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following statements made about the sedimentary rocks: I. Sedimentary rocks are formed at Earth’s surface by the hydrological system. II. The formation of sedimentary rocks involves the weathering of pre-existing rocks. III. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils. IV. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Publisher) I. Ministry of Industry II. Central Statistical Organisation III. Reserve Bank of India IV. Ministry of Finance List II (Publication) A) Report on Currency and Finance B) Economic Survey C) Wholesale Price Index D) National Accounts Statistics
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Award / Prize) I. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament II. Jamanlal Bajaj Award III. International Gandhi Peace Prize IV. Wolf Prize List II (Recipient) A) Archbishop Desmond Tutu B) Dr. Gurudev Khush C) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan D) Nelson Mandela
Q: Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Q: Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal Period?
Q: Volcanic eruptions do not occur in the
Q: Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt Complete Independence as the goal of the Congress in the Ahmedabad session of 1920?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Sports Women) I. Anjali Vedpathak II. Mouma Das III. Neelam Singh IV. Tumpa Debnath List II (Sport) A) Athletics B) Gymnastics C) Rifle Shooting D) Table Tennis E) Chess
Q: A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of
Q: The location of the space organisation units have been marked in the given map as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these units with the list given and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: A. ISRO B. IIRS C. NRSA D. SAC
Q: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Q: The earlier name of WTO was
Q: Two wires have their lengths, diameters and resistivities, all in the ratio of 1 : 2. If the resistance of the thinner wire is 10 ohms, the resistance of the thicker wire is
Q: Assertion (A): A stick is dipped in water in a slanting position. If observed sideways, the stick appears short and bent at the surface of water. Reason (R): The light coming from the stick undergoes scattering from water molecules giving the stick a short and bent appearance.
Q: Assertion (A): A piece of copper and a piece of glass are heated to the same temperature. When touched, thereafter, the copper piece appears hotter than the glass piece. Reason (R): The density of copper is more than that of glass.
Q: Assertion (A): The boiling point of water decreases as the altitude increases. Reason (R): The atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
Q: When light waves pass from air to glass, the variables affected are
Q: When water is heated from 0 °C to 10 °C, its volume
Q: Consider the following statements: In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because I. more neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions. II. the neutrons immediately take part in the fission process. III. the fast neutrons are slowed down by Graphite. IV. every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Characteristic) I. Zero mass II. Fractional charge III. Fractional spin IV. Integral spin List II (Particle) A) Positron B) Neutrino C) Quark D) Phonon
Q: Who is the scientist in whose honour the “Chandra” X-ray telescope has been named?
Q: The mass of a body on Earth is 100 kg (acceleration due to gravity, gₑ = 10 m/s²). If acceleration due to gravity on the Moon = gₑ/6, then the mass of the body on the moon is
Q: Consider the following statements: A simple pendulum is set into oscillation. Then I. the acceleration is zero when the bob passes through the mean position. II. in each cycle the bob attains a given velocity twice. III. both acceleration and velocity of the bob are zero when it reaches its extreme position during its oscillation. IV. the amplitude of oscillation of the simple pendulum decreases with time. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds
Q: Which of the following weather conditions is indicated by a sudden fall in barometer reading?
Q: A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three fourth of the substance would decay in
Q: The following table shows the percentage change in the consumption of electricity by five towns P, Q, R, S, T from 1986 to 1988: Town Per cent change from 1986 to 1987 From 1987 to 1988 P +8 −18 Q +15 −11 R +6 +9 S −7 −5 T +13 −6 If town T consumed 500,000 units in 1986, how much did it consume in 1988?
Q: Which of the following distance–time graphs (x–t) represents one-dimensional uniform motion?
Q: Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures. Reason (R): At higher temperatures, molecular motion becomes more rapid. Which of the following is correct?
Q: Which one of the following is NOT radioactive?
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weights of the hydrocarbons?
Q: In an atom, the order of filling up of the orbitals is governed by
Q: An aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature because the salt undergoes
Q: Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic Table of chemical elements: I. Ionisation potential gradually decreases along a period. II. In a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight increases. III. In a given period, electronegativity decreases as the atomic number increases. Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
Q: Quartzite is metamorphosed from
Q: Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
Q: Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules. Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated using restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases. Which of the following is correct?
Q: The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as
Q: Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA?
Q: Epiphytes are plants which depend on other plants for
Q: Antigen is a substance which
Q: Which of the following features of DNA makes it uniquely suited to store and transmit genetic information from generation to generation?
Q: The American multinational company, Monsanto has produced an insect-resistant cotton variety that is undergoing field-trials in India. A toxin gene from which ONE of the following bacteria has been transferred to this transgenic cotton?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Bone) I. Breast-bone II. Collar-bone III. Knee-cap IV. Shoulder blade List II (Name) A) Clavicle B) Patella C) Scapula D) Sternum
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Tapeworm is a hermaphrodite. II. Round-worm has separate sexes. III. Filaria is caused by a nematode. IV. Guinea worm is an annelid. Which of these are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Achievement in genetics) I. Discovery of transduction and conjugation in bacteria II. Establishing the sex-linked inheritance III. Isolation of DNA polymerase from E. coli IV. Establishing the complete genetic code List II (Scientists) A) Khurana B) Kornberg C) Lederberg D) Morgan E) Ochoa
Q: “Athlete’s Foot” is a disease caused by
Q: In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the donor?
Q: A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the blood groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion?
Q: “Metastasis” is the process by which
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Substance) I. Ptyalin II. Pepsin III. Renin IV. Oxytocin List II (Physiological role) A) Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin B) Digests starch C) Digests proteins D) Hydrolyses fats E) Induces contraction of smooth muscles
Q: Solve the given equations: x² + y² = 34 x⁴ − y⁴ = 544 The values of x and y are
Q: A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is
Q: A conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 3 tons in 5 minutes, and a second conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 1 ton in 2 minutes. How much time will it take to get 33 tons of baggage delivered using both the conveyer belts?
Q: Water is filled in a container in such a manner that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the container to be full, in how much time will it be one-fourth full?
Q: A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males. 50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, the number of literate females is
Q: In a survey, it was found that 80% of those surveyed owned a car while 60% of those surveyed owned a mobile phone. If 55% owned both a car and a mobile phone, what per cent of those surveyed owned a car or a mobile phone or both?
Q: In 1930, a person’s age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the father’s age became ten times that of his son’s age in 1930. The ages of the son and father in 1940 were, respectively.
Q: Most guitarists are bearded males. If A represents all males, B represents bearded males and C represents all male guitarists, then the correct diagram for their relation (shaded portion) is
Q: In the above figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, AB = BC and angle BAC = 70°, then angle ADC is
Q: Anand must be a vegetarian because he is a Buddhist. The argument assumes that
Q: A person travels from X to Y at a speed of 40 kmph and returns by increasing his speed by 50%. What is his average speed for both the trips?
Science & Technology contributed 52 out of 148 questions (about 35%), far exceeding its usual share and overshadowing conventional high-weight sections like Polity and History.
Overall difficulty was moderate-to-easy: 82 questions were classified as Easy, 62 Moderate and only 4 Difficult. Candidates with comprehensive coverage found it a relatively high-scoring paper.
Apart from the sheer volume of Sci-Tech, the paper asked several applied-concept questions (e.g., satellite technology, human physiology) that humanities-oriented students often overlook, catching many off-guard.
