Geography — UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions (1995–2025)
543 questions across 19 sub-topics. Practice all Geography PYQs with detailed explanations, or explore specific sub-topics below.
543
Total Questions
19
Sub-topics
31
Years
Geography for UPSC Prelims is a high-yield area that consistently contributes 15-20% of the General Studies Paper I. A close look at the 543 Geography Previous Year Questions (PYQs) asked between 1995 and 2025 shows that the Union Public Service Commission loves mixing static concepts with current affairs—everything from El Niño updates to India’s latest Census tables can surface in the same paper. Hence, aspirants who master the static core while linking it to news events gain a decisive edge.
The PYQ statistics reveal clear patterns. Atmosphere & Climatology dominates with 69 questions: expect items on jet streams, monsoon mechanisms, cyclones and Köppen classification. Population & Demography follows (57 Qs), often clubbed with government reports like NFHS or Census. World Political Geography & Borders (54) and Economic & Mineral Geography (54) underline UPSC’s interest in strategic chokepoints (Strait of Hormuz, Malacca), maritime boundaries, mineral belts and resource distribution. Indian Rivers & Water Resources (49) and Indian Agriculture & Land Use (46) are perennial favourites—inter-state river disputes, irrigation projects, soil types and cropping patterns appear almost every year. Indian Physical Geography (45) and World Physical Geography (34) test mapping skills: mountain ranges, plate tectonics and physiographic regions. Transport & Infrastructure Geography (32) has grown recently because of schemes like Sagarmala and Bharatmala, while Astronomy & Earth–Sun System (29) covers seasons, eclipses and lat-long basics.
What does this mean for your study plan? First, anchor your preparation in the NCERTs (Class 6-12) and the UPSC syllabus blueprint. Then, super-impose PYQ analysis: highlight repeating themes, note the phrasing style (“Which of the following statements is/are correct?”), and practise elimination techniques. For dynamic content, track PIB, IMD bulletins and flagship reports—these often feed directly into map-based or concept-based questions.
Second, practice map work daily. Mark straits, rivers, mineral belts, biosphere reserves and recent cyclone tracks. UPSC increasingly frames location-based MCQs, so a visual recall of spatial data is indispensable. Use blank maps and attempt to place at least ten features every morning.
Third, integrate Environment and Economy linkages. Questions on agro-climatic zones, sustainable mining or climate agreements sit at the intersection of Geography and other disciplines. A holistic approach prevents you from compartmentalising facts and helps you tackle fusion questions.
Finally, attempt timed PYQ mocks. Simulating the 120-minute pressure reveals weak zones early and conditions your brain to switch between conceptual and factual questions seamlessly. Revise with concise notes, mind-maps and flashcards—especially for climate classification, soil orders and demographic indicators. By following this PYQ-anchored, current-aware and map-intensive strategy, you can reliably convert Geography into a scoring playground in the IAS prelims.
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II:
Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II:
In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II :
Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long-wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement-II :
At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following description:
1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.
What is this type of climate?
Q: With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II:
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. उच्च मेघ सौर विकिरण को परावर्तित कर भू-पृष्ठ को ठंडा करते हैं।
2. भू-पृष्ठ से उत्पन्न होने वाली अवरक्त विकिरण का निम्न मेघों में उच्च अवशोषण होता है, और इससे ताप प्रभाव होता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं/है?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’, sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Niño’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.”
Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
Q: The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1. Thermal difference between land and water
2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.”
The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
Q: During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because
1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface.
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere.
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino ?
1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
Q: The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
Q: A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt.
2. In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Either of the two belts over the ocean at about 30°–35° N and S latitudes is known as Horse Latitude.
2. Horse Latitudes are low-pressure belts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean than in the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The annual range of temperature is greater in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.
2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African Coast.
3. Greece and Albania form a part of the Iberian Peninsula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Assertion (A): Wind patterns are clockwise in the northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the southern hemisphere.
Reason (R): The directions of wind patterns in the northern and the southern hemisphere are governed by the Coriolis Effect.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: Assertion (A): Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than Mangalore.
Reason (R): Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south-west and north-east monsoons.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.
Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q: Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near the equator.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following climatic and geographical phenomena:
1. Condensation
2. High temperature and humidity
3. Orography
4. Vertical wind
Thunder-cloud development is due to which of these phenomena?
Q: For short-term climate prediction, which one of the following events, detected in the last decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian sub-continent?
Q: The average annual temperature of a meteorological station is 26 °C, its average annual rainfall is 63 cm and the annual range of temperature is 9 °C. The station in Q is
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In equatorial regions, the year is divided into four main seasons
2. In Mediterranean region, summer receives more rain
3. In China type climate, rainfall occurs throughout the year
4. Tropical highlands exhibit vertical zonation of different climates
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): 60°–65° latitudes in both the hemispheres have a low-pressure belt instead of high pressure.
Reason (R): The low-pressure areas are permanent over oceans rather than on land.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: The temperature and rainfall of a meteorological station are given below:
J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temperature (°C): 9.4 10.6 11.7 12.2 13.3 13.9 13.9 14.4 15.6 15.0 13.3 10.6
Rainfall (cm): 12.2 9.1 7.9 2.5 1.8 0.3 – – 0.8 2.5 6.1 11.7
Average Temperature: 12.8 °C Average Rainfall: 54.9 cm per annum
Identify the region having the above climatic pattern from amongst the following:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Local Wind)
I. Fohn II. Samun III. Santa Ana IV. Zonda
List II (Region)
A) Argentina B) Kurdistan C) California D) Alps
Codes:
Q: Assertion (A): Anti-cyclonic conditions are formed in winter season when atmospheric pressure is high and air temperatures are low.
Reason (R): Winter rainfall in Northern India causes development of anticyclonic conditions with low temperatures.
(a)Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements about the “Roaring Forties”:
I. They blow uninterrupted in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
II. They blow with great strength and constancy.
III. Their direction is generally from North-West to East in the Southern Hemisphere.
IV. Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are generally associated with them.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C and D in the given figure of the cyclone, witnesses heavy torrential short-duration rainfall accompanied by thunderstorms?
Q: Consider the following temperature and rainfall data:
Month Temperature °C Rainfall cm
January 6.7 14.0
February 6.7 13.2
March 7.2 11.4
April 8.9 9.4
May 11.1 8.1
June 13.9 8.1
July 15.0 9.6
August 15.0 12.2
September 13.9 10.4
October 11.1 14.4
November 8.9 14.0
December 7.8 16.8
The climate to which this data pertains is
Q: July 27.8 14.5
August 27.8 14.0
September 22.3 12.7
October 18.3 7.0
November 12.2 5.0
December 6.7 3.5
These data are most likely to be found in the natural regions of
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Climatic Conditions)
I. Chennai is warmer than Calcutta
II. Snowfall in Himalayas
III. Rainfall decreases from Depressions
IV. Sutlej-Ganga Plain gets some rain in winter
List II (Reasons)
A) North-east Monsoon
B) Altitude
C) Western West Bengal to Punjab
D) Distance from sea
E) Latitude
Codes:
Q: Consider the map given below:
Of the four shaded areas in the map, that which is characterised by hot dry summers, mild and moist winters and seasonal reversal of winds is the area labelled
Q: Assertion (A): Areas near the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain in most afternoons near the equator.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: High temperature and low pressure over the Indian sub-continent during the summer season, draws air from the Indian Ocean leading to the in-blowing of the
Q: The graph given below shows the mean average monthly temperatures (in °C) and mean monthly rainfall (in cms) of a place:
This graph is indicative of which one of the climatic zones of the world?
Q: निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. इटली
2. जापान
3. नाइजीरिया
4. दक्षिण कोरिया
5. दक्षिण अफ्रीका
उपयुक्त में से किन देशों का उल्लेख प्रायः मीडिया में उनकी निम्न जन दर, अथवा वृद्धिंगत जनसंख्या अथवा घटमान जनसंख्या के लिए किया जाता है ?
Q: With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements :
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: As per the UN-Habitat's Global Report on Human Settlements 2009, which one among the following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
1. Ludhiana
2. Kochi
3. Surat
4. Nagpur
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among Pondicherry, NCT of Delhi and other Union Territories.
3. Maharashtra has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Census 2001, Kerala has the smallest gap in male and female literacy rates among the 28 states of India (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
2. According to the Census 2001, Rajasthan has literacy rate above the national average literacy rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Area-wise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
2. According to the 2001 Census, the population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: As per 2001 Census
1. The two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab.
2. The two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram.
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: India's population growth during the 20th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match List I (Period) with List II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Period) List II (Phase)
A. 1901-21 1. Steady growth
B. 1921-51 2. Rapid high growth
C. 1951-81 3. Stagnant growth
D. 1981-2001 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown
Codes:
A B C D
Q: Consider the following countries of South Asia:
1. Bangladesh
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Sri Lanka
The descending order of literacy among these countries is
Q: Consider the following countries:
1. Brazil
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Russia
What is the descending order of the size of the following countries population wise?
Q: Match List I (Ethnic Community) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Ethnic community)
A. Apatani
B. Dayak
C. Dinka
D. Uighur
List II (Country)
1. China
2. India
3. Indonesia
4. Sudan
Q: Consider the decadal Census data given below:
Decadal Population (in millions)
Population 1961 10.7 1971 14.3 1981 16.2 1991 18.9
The above data refer to which one of the ‘Population by Religion’ groups?
Q: Consider the following statements about the megacities of India:
I. Population of each megacity is more than 5 million.
II. All the megacities are important sea ports.
III. Megacities are either national or State capitals.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements about the megacities of India:
I. Population of each megacity is more than 5 million.
II. All the megacities are important sea ports.
III. Megacities are either national or State capitals.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: The population growth rate in Kerala is the lowest among major Indian states. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted reason for this?
(a)Kerala has made the highest investment in family planning
(b)Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India
(c)Kerala has invested heavily in promoting literacy and public health and placed high priority on social policies
(d)The population pyramid in Kerala has relatively fewer women in the reproductive age group
Q: Match the areas shown as A, B, C and D on the given map showing the largest religious minorities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list of minorities.
Largest Religious Minorities
1. Buddhists
2. Christians
3. Jains
4. Muslims
5. Sikhs
Q: Assertion (A): According to statistics, more female children are born each year than male children in India.
Reason (R): In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the female child.
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Among the Indian states shown labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given, the correct sequence in descending order of percentage of scheduled-tribe population to their total population is
Q: What is the correct sequence of the descending order of the following States in respect of female literacy rates as per the 1991 Census?
I. Mizoram
II. Kerala
III. Goa
IV. Nagaland
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: As per the 1991 Census, the average size of households in terms of number of persons per household in respect of the given states follows the sequence (highest first, lowest last).
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Country — Resource-rich in
I. Botswana : Diamond
II. Chile : Lithium
III. Indonesia: Nickel
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following minerals:
1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत में राज्य सरकारों को गैर-कोयला खदानों की नीलामी का अधिकार नहीं है ।
2. ओडिशा प्रदेश एवं झारखण्ड में सोने की खानें नहीं हैं ।
3. राजस्थान में लौह अयस्क की खानें हैं ।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?
1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs:
Mineral — 90% Natural sources in
1. Copper — Jharkhand
2. Nickel — Orissa
3. Tungsten — Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Q: Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?
1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. India does not have any deposits of Thorium.
2. Kerala's monazite sands contain Uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Which of the following minerals are found in a natural way in the State of Chhattisgarh?
1. Bauxite
2. Dolomite
3. Iron ore
4. Tin
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
2. Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?
1. Ilmenite
2. Zircon
3. Sillimanite
4. Tungsten
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Power Station)
(A) Kothagudem
(B) Raichur
(C) Mettur
(D) Wanakbori
List II (State)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka
4. Tamil Nadu
Q: Match List I (Minerals) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer:
List I
(A) Coal
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Lignite
List II
1. Giridih
2. Jayankondam
3. Alwar
4. Dharwar
Q: Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in rupees) of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002-03?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Minerals)
I. Mineral oil
II. Copper
III. Manganese
IV. Bauxite
List II (Major producer)
A) Zambia
B) Guyana
C) Venezuela
D) Gabon
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Timber)
I. Cedar
II. Douglas Fir
III. Mahogany
IV. Teak
List II (Country)
A. Myanmar
B. Canada
C. Mexico
D. Honduras
Codes:
Q: The given figure shows a portion of Southern India. The proposed site (Koodankulam) for the construction of two 1000 MW nuclear power plants has been labelled in the map as
Q: In which one of the following areas in the given map was there a recent discovery of copper deposits by the Atomic Minerals Division of Department of Atomic Energy?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Industries)
I. Pearl fishing
II. Automobiles
III. Ship-building
IV. Engineering goods
List II (Industrial Centres)
A) Pune
B) Tuticorin
C) Pinjore
D) Marmagao
Q: Assertion (A): Chile continues to be an important producer of copper in the world.
Reason (R): Chile is endowed with the world’s largest deposit of porphyry copper.
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Ringgit
II. Baht
III. Rupiah
IV. Won
List II
A) Indonesia
B) South Korea
C) Thailand
D) Malaysia
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Minerals)
I. Graphite
II. Lead
III. Salt
IV. Silver
List II (Mining area)
A. Bellary
B. Didwana
C. Rampa
D. Zawar
Q: In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised towns have been developed. Match the lists of specialisation with towns and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Towns)
I. Alibag
II. Balapur
III. Nhava Sheva
IV. Ratnagiri
List II (Specialisation)
A. Fishing Centre
B. Holiday resort
C. Petro-chemical complex
D. Port
Codes:
Q: The rough outline map given shows centres of cement industry labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these centres with the following sets of names:
Names
A. Katni
B. Tirunelveli
C. Sikka
D. Churk
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Minerals)
I. Coal
II. Gold
III. Mica
IV. Manganese
List II (Typical areas of Occurrence)
A) Bhandara
B) Karanpura
C) Hutti
D) Nellore
Codes:
Q: Which of the following places are known for paper manufacturing industry?
I. Yamuna Nagar
II. Guwahati
III. Shahabad
IV. Ballarpur
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Hazardous industries using child labour leading to the filing of a public interest petition in the Supreme Court) – Located at
I. Glass industry
II. Brassware industry
III. Slate industry
IV. Hand-made carpet industry
List II
A) Moradabad
B) Marakpur
C) Ferozabad
D) Mirzapur
Codes:
Q: Match List I (Ores) with List II (States where they are mined) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Manganese
II. Nickel
III. Lead-zinc
IV. Asbestos
List II
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Orissa
C. Rajasthan
D. Andhra Pradesh
Codes:
Q: In the map given below, three out of the four places marked indicate places where a thermal power station is located. The place where there is no thermal power station is marked
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Region — Country
I. Mallorca : Italy
II. Normandy : Spain
III. Sardinia : France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :
प्रायः समाचारों में दृष्टिगोचर होने वाले क्षेत्र — समाचारों में होने का कारण
1. उत्तरी हिल्ज़ और टुटिंग : आर्मेनिया और अज़रबैजान के बीच युद्ध
2. नागोर्नो-काराबाख : अज़रबैजान के साथ क्षेत्रीय संघर्ष
3. बेलफ़ास्ट और जॉर्जिया : सीमा विवाद
उपरोक्त में से कितने युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. अज़रबैजान
2. किर्गिज़स्तान
3. ताजिकिस्तान
4. तुर्कमेनिस्तान
5. उज्बेकिस्तान
उपयुक्त में से किन-किनकी सीमाएँ अफ़गानिस्तान के साथ लगती हैं?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Region often mentioned in the news — Country
1. Anatolia — Turkey
2. Amhara — Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado — Spain
4. Catalonia — Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :
सागर — सागर से लगा हुआ देश
1. ऐड्रियाटिक सागर : अल्बानिया
2. काला सागर : क्रोएशिया
3. कैस्पियन सागर : कज़ाखिस्तान
4. भूरा सागर : म्यान्मार
5. लाल सागर : सीरिया
उपयुक्त में से कौन-से युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in news — Country
1. Aleppo — Syria
2. Kirkuk — Yemen
3. Mosul — Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif — Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following countries:
1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?
Q: Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?
(a)It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
(b)Its location between the Asian powers of China and India
(c)It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period
(d)Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE.
2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UAE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Assam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.
3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following states border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab
2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I (Sea)
(A) Black Sea
(B) Red Sea
(C) Yellow Sea
(D) Caspian Sea
List II (Country)
1. Bulgaria
2. China
3. Eritrea
4. Kazakhstan
Q: Match List I (State/Province/Overseas Territory) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
(A) British Columbia
(B) Bavaria
(C) Gibraltar
(D) Rhode Island
List II
1. USA
2. UK
3. Canada
4. Germany
5. Denmark
Codes:
Q: Match List I (New Names of the Countries) with List II (Old Names of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
(A) Benin
(B) Belize
(C) Botswana
(D) Malawi
List II
1. Nyasaland
2. Basutoland
3. Bechuanaland
4. British Honduras
5. Dohomey
Codes:
Q: Consider the following countries:
1. Albania
2. Bosnia Herzegovina
3. Croatia
4. Macedonia
Which of these countries has/have Adriatic Sea as a boundary?
Q: The given map shows four towns of the Central Asian region marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Identify these from the following list and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Towns:
A. Bishkek B. Ashkhabad C. Tashkent D. Dushanbe
Codes:
Q: Consider the following provinces of former Yugoslavia:
I. Bosnia
II. Croatia
III. Slovenia
IV. Yugoslavia
The correct sequence of these provinces from the east to the west is
Q: Match the cities labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with the names of cities and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of cities:
Names of Cities:
1. Darwin 2. Kuala Lumpur 3. Lagos 4. Nairobi 5. Singapore
Codes:
Q: Given below is a map of some countries which were parts of the erstwhile Soviet Union, with water bodies shown by shaded areas:
The countries marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are respectively
Q: निम्नलिखित सूचना पर विचार कीजिए :
जलप्रपात क्षेत्र नदी
1. धुआँधार मालवा नर्मदा
2. हुंड्र छोटा नागपुर सुवर्णरेखा
3. मेहेंपा पश्चिमी घाट नेत्रवती
उपर्युक्त सूची में से कितनी प्रविष्टियाँ सही सुसंगत हैं ?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. झेलम नदी, वुलर झील से होकर जाती है।
2. कृष्णा नदी सीधे कोलारु झील का जल भरती है।
3. गंडक नदी के मेन्डरों से कान्वर झील निर्मित हुई है।
उपर्युक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Reservoirs — States
1. Ghataprabha — Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
Q: सिंधु नदी प्रणाली के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित चार नदियों में से तीन नदियाँ उन नदियों में मिलती हैं जो सीधे सिंधु नदी से मिलती हैं। निम्नलिखित में से वह नदी कौन-सी है, जो सीधे सिंधु नदी से मिलती है?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Famous place — River
1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3. Hampi : Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important river flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Baglihar Power Project had been constructed within the parameters of the Indus Water Treaty.
2. The project was completely built by the Union Government with loans from Japan and the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Tributary River – Main River
1. Chambal : Narmada
2. Sone : Yamuna
3. Manas : Brahmaputra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Waterfalls — River
1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
2. Jog Falls : Sharavati
3. Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Irrigation Project — State
1. Damanganga : Gujarat
2. Girna : Maharashtra
3. Pamba : Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Assertion (A): River Kalinadi is an east-flowing river in the southern part of India.
Reason (R): The Deccan Plateau is higher along its western edge and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal in the east.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Town)
A. Betul
B. Jagdalpur
C. Jabalpur
D. Ujjain
List-II (River)
1. Indravati
2. Narmada
3. Shipra
4. Tapti
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India.
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased during the last couple of decades.
Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Rivers)
I. Cauvery
II. Krishna
III. Narmada
IV. Chambal
List II (Dams)
A) Alamatti
B) Mettur
C) Gandhi Sagar
D) Sardar Sarovar
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the states (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of India shown on the map in descending order in terms of their available ground-water resources for irrigation?
Q: Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into two streams and reunites a few miles farther on, thus forming the islands of Srirangapattnam, Sivasamudram and Srirangam?
Q: Consider the following rivers:
I. Kishenganga
II. Ganga
III. Wainganga
IV. Penganga
The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged in the north-south direction is —
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित राज्यों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. आंध्र प्रदेश
2. केरल
3. हिमाचल प्रदेश
4. त्रिपुरा
उपरोक्त में से कितने आम तौर पर चाय-उत्पादक राज्य के रूप में जाने जाते हैं ?
Q: With reference to the production of pulses in India, consider the following statements:
1. Black gram (urad) can be cultivated both as Kharif and Rabi crop.
2. Green-gram (moong) alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
3. In the last three decades, while the production of Kharif pulses has increased, the production of Rabi pulses has decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: “This crop is of tropical origin. For its development it requires about 210 frost-free days and 50–100 centimetres of rainfall annually. Its adaptability to moist, deep, well-drained soils makes it ideally suited for plantation agriculture.” Which one of the following crops is described in the above passage?
Q: With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:
1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?
1. Reduction in weed
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Reduction in soil erosion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)None of the above is an advantage of practising drip irrigation
Q: Consider the following pairs :
Region : Well-known for the production of
1. Kinnaur : Areca nut
2. Mewat : Mango
3. Coromandel : Soya bean
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Q: Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export-oriented industry in this field?
Q: The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?
Q: A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
Q: Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements :
1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Following are the characteristics of an area in India:
1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 15 °C to 30 °C
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee-producing region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): The percentage of net sown area in the total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as compared to that of West Bengal.
Reason (R): The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is laterite.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. Maharashtra has the highest acreage under jawar in India.
II. Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India.
III. Rajasthan has the largest area of cultivable wastelands in India.
IV. Andhra Pradesh has the highest per hectare yield of maize in India.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
I. Cotton
II. Flax
III. Sugar beet
IV. Jute
List II
A. Rainfall 1000-1500 mm; Temperature 40°-60 °C
B. Rainfall 1500-2000 mm; Temperature 25°-35 °C
C. Rainfall 600-800 mm; Temperature 5°-18 °C
D. Rainfall 500-1000 mm; Temperature 18°-22 °C
E. Rainfall 500-600 mm; Temperature 18°-22 °C
Codes:
Q: The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new chapter to the history of Indian sericulture. Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Oak tasar silk?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Agricultural products)
I. Cotton
II. Gram
III. Black pepper
IV. Pineapple
List II (Foremost producer)
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. West Bengal
D. Kerala
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Crops)
I. Barley
II. Rice
III. Millets
IV. Tea
List II (Geographical conditions)
A) Hot and dry climate with poor soil
B) Cool climate with poorer soil
C) Warm and moist climate with high altitude
D) Hot and moist climate with rich soil
Codes:
Q: The following are the major oilseeds produced in India:
I. Sesamum
II. Mustard
III. Groundnut
IV. Soyabean
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the descending order of the quantity of their production?
Q: Which of the following pairs of states and their important crops are correctly matched?
I. Kerala: Tapioca
II. Maharashtra: Cotton
III. W. Bengal: Jute
IV. Gujarat: Groundnut
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
Q: In the map given below four areas are differently shaded, three of which indicate cereal-crops production areas and one indicates non-cereal crop production area. As per the index given, the non-cereal crop production area is
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. अमरकंटक पहाड़ियाँ विंध्य और सतपुड़ा श्रेणियों के संगम पर हैं।
2. बिलिगिरीरंगन पहाड़ियाँ सतपुड़ा श्रेणी का सबसे पूर्वी भाग हैं।
3. शेषाचलम पहाड़ियाँ पूर्वी घाट का सबसे दक्षिणी भाग हैं।
उपर्युक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए:
शिखर — पर्वत
1. नामचा बरवा — गढ़वाल हिमालय
2. नंदा देवी — कुमाऊँ हिमालय
3. नोकरेक — सिक्किम हिमालय
उपयुक्त युग्मों में कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: Consider the following pairs :
Wetland/Lake — Location
1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :
हिमनद — नदी
1. बंदरपुच : यमुना
2. बारा शिगरी : चेनाब
3. मिलम : मांडाकिनी
4. पिंडारी : गंगा
5. जेमु : मनस
उपयुक्त में से कौन-से युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. बैरन द्वीप ज्वालामुखी एक सक्रिय ज्वालामुखी है जो भारतीय राज्य-क्षेत्र में स्थित है।
2. बैरन द्वीप, ग्रेट निकोबार के लगभग 140 किमी पूर्व में स्थित है।
3. पिछली बार बैरन द्वीप ज्वालामुखी में 1991 में उद्गार हुआ था और तब से यह निष्क्रिय बना हुआ है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत में, हिमालय केवल पाँच राज्यों में फैला हुआ है।
2. पश्चिमी घाट केवल पाँच राज्यों में फैला हुआ है।
3. पुलिकट झील केवल दो राज्यों में फैली हुई है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Famous place : Region
1. Bodhgaya : Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho : Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi : Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) : Malwa
5. Tirupati : Rayalaseema
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Place of Pilgrimage : Location
1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Hills : Region
1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India
4. Mikir Hills : North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q: When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :
1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing landsliding
Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
Q: The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a "U" turn in its course to flow into India. This "U" turn is due to
(a)uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b)syntaxis bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c)geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
Q: If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List – I (Valley)
A. Markha Valley
B. Dzukou Valley
C. Sangla Valley
D. Yumthang Valley
List – II (State)
1. Sikkim
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Nagaland
Codes :
A B C D
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range
What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?
Q: Match List I (Beaches in India) with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
(A) Gopnath Beach
(B) Lawsons Bay Beach
(C) Devbagh Beach
(D) Sinquerium Beach
List II
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Gujarat
4. Goa
5. Karnataka
Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Longitude of Jabalpur’s location is between those of Indore and Bhopal.
2. Latitude of Aurangabad’s location is between those of Vadodara and Pune.
3. Bangalore is situated more southward than Chennai.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Match the cities labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map with the names of the institutes located in these cities and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the institutes.
Names of Institutes
A) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
B) Central Sheep Breeding Farm
C) National Dairy Research Institute
D) National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Resorts)
I. Chakrata
II. Haflong
III. Kalimpong
IV. Kufri
List II (States)
A) Assam
B) West Bengal
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Himachal Pradesh
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Deccan Traps
II. Western Ghats
III. Aravalli
IV. Narmada-Tapi
List II
A) Late Cenozoic
B) Pre-Cambrian
C) Cretaceous-Eocene
D) Cambrian Alluvial deposits
E) Pleistocene
Codes:
Q: “You might see a few curious Danes around, but that is because …… used to be Danish outpost. This quaint town with its fort and a beautiful church, the New Jerusalem, empty streets and deserted beach front is a quaint gem.” The place referred to in this quotation lies on the
Q: Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
River —— Empties into
1. Mekong —— Andaman Sea
2. Thames —— Adriatic Sea
3. Volga —— Caspian Sea
4. Zambezi —— Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी मानव क्रियाकलापों के कारण हाल ही में बहुत अधिक संकुचित हो गया है / सूख गया है ?
1. अरल सागर
2. काला सागर
3. बैकाल झील
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
City — River
(a) Berlin : Rhine
(b) London : Thames
(c) New York : Hudson
(d) Vienna : Danube
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I (Geographic feature)
A. Great Victoria Desert
B. Grand Canyon
C. Lake Winnipeg
D. Southern Alps
List II (Country)
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. New Zealand
4. USA
Code :
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (City)
A. Bangkok
B. Phnom-Penh
C. Hanoi
D. Yangon
List-II (River)
1. Irrawaddy
2. Mekong
3. Menam (Chao Phraya)
4. Red River
Q: Itaipu Dam built on the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (City)
A. Washington D.C.
B. Berlin
C. Paris
D. Madrid
List-II (River)
1. River Manzanares
2. River Seine
3. River Spree
4. River Potomac
Q: In the map given below, four islands of Indian Ocean region, i.e. A) Seychelles, B) Chagos, C) Mauritius and D) Socatra are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match them and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
Q: Match the drainage basins labelled as A, B, C and D with the names listed below and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the drainage basins.
Names of drainage basins:
1. Ganga Brahmaputra
2. Indus
3. Parana
4. Zambezi
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Volcanic Mountain)
I. Mt. Rainier
II. Etna
III. Paricutin
IV. Taal
List II (Country)
A. Italy B. Mexico C. Philippines D. USA
Q: Match rivers labelled A, B, C and D on the given map with their names given in the list and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
1. St. Lawrence
2. Orinoco
3. Mackenzie
4. Amazon
5. Yukon
Codes:
Q: “From Aceh in the far north-west to Torres Strait in the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The Archipelago has 14,000 islands, some mere equatorial rocks, others some of the largest in the world.” This description best fits
Q: भारत, अंतर्राष्ट्रीय उत्तर-दक्षिण परिवहन कॉरिडोर (INSTC), जो एक बहु-राष्ट्रीय परिवहन गलियारा है, के सदस्य राज्यों में से एक है। यह कॉरिडोर किन्हें जोड़ता है?
(a)भारत से मध्य एशिया को, ईरान होते हुए
(b)भारत से मध्य एशिया को, चीन होते हुए
(c)भारत से दक्षिण-पूर्व एशिया को, बांग्लादेश और म्याँमार होते हुए
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II:
Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :
बंदरगाह (पोर्ट) : जिस रूप में सुविख्यात है
1. कामराजर पोर्ट : भारत में एक कम्पनी के रूप में पंजीकृत सबसे पहला प्रमुख पत्तन
2. मुंद्रा पोर्ट : भारत में निजी स्वामित्व वाला सबसे बड़ा पत्तन
3. विशाखापत्तनम पोर्ट : भारत में सबसे बड़ा कंटेनर पत्तन (कंटेनर पोर्ट)
उपर्युक्त में से कितने युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Port — Well known as
1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam Port : Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q: भारत की कनेक्टिविटी परियोजनाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. पूर्व-पश्चिम कॉरिडोर डिब्रूगढ़ और सूरत को जोड़ता है।
2. स्वर्णिम चतुर्भुज गलियारा अहमदाबाद तथा विशाखापत्तनम से होकर गुजरता है।
3. ईस्ट कोस्ट इकोनॉमिक कॉरिडोर भारत का पहला तटीय आर्थिक कॉरिडोर होगा।
उपर्युक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
Q: Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to sea by a long navigational channel?
Q: Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements among the Indian States:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to Indian transport systems, consider the following statements:
1. Indian railways system is the largest in the world.
2. National Highways cater to 45 per cent of the total road transport demand.
3. Among the states, Kerala has the highest density of surface road.
4. National Highway No. 7 is the longest in the country.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with the names of those ports and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the ports:
Names of Ports:
1. Kakinada
2. Karwar
3. Mangalore
4. Tuticorin
5. Veraval
Codes:
Q: Match the different ports of Union Territory of Pondicherry labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with their respective names and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list of ports:
List (Ports of Pondicherry):
1. Karaikal
2. Mahe
3. Pondicherry
4. Yanam
Codes:
Q: What is the correct sequence of the following Indian states in descending order of their length of surface roads per 100 km² of their area?
I. Haryana
II. Maharashtra
III. Punjab
IV. Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match the following research institutes A, B, C and D with their respective locations labelled as 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map:
A. Central Drug Research Institute
B. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
C. National Institute of Ocean Technology
D. Temperate Forest Research Centre
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
I. European transcontinental railway A) Paris to Istanbul
II. Trans Andean railway B) Leningrad to Vladivostok
III. Trans-Siberian railway C) Leningrad to Volgograd
IV. Orient Express D) Buenos Aires to Valparaiso
E) Paris to Warsaw
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.
Statement II:
Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III:
As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Q: निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए :
I. यूनाइटेड किंगडम
II. डेनमार्क
III. न्यूज़ीलैंड
IV. ऑस्ट्रेलिया
V. ब्राज़ील
उपरोक्त में से कितने देशों में चार से अधिक काल-क्षेत्र (Time Zones) हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometres from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: जून की 21वीं तारीख को सूर्य
(a) उत्तरी ध्रुवीय वृत्त पर क्षितिज के नीचे नहीं डूबता है
(b) दक्षिणी ध्रुवीय वृत्त पर क्षितिज के नीचे नहीं डूबता है
(c) मध्याह्न में भूमध्यरेखा पर ऊर्ध्वाधर रूप से सर्वाधिक चमकता है
(d) मकर-रेखा पर ऊर्ध्वाधर रूप से सर्वाधिक चमकता है
(a)उत्तरी ध्रुवीय वृत्त पर क्षितिज के नीचे नहीं डूबता है
(b)दक्षिणी ध्रुवीय वृत्त पर क्षितिज के नीचे नहीं डूबता है
(c)मध्याह्न में भूमध्यरेखा पर ऊर्ध्वाधर रूप से सर्वाधिक चमकता है
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. पृथ्वी का चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र हर कुछ सौ हज़ार सालों में उलटता हुआ है।
2. पृथ्वी जब 4000 मिलियन वर्षों से भी अधिक पहले बनी, तो ऑक्सीजन 54% थी और कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड नहीं थी।
3. जब जीवित जीव पैदा हुए, उन्होंने पृथ्वी के आदिम वायुमण्डल को बदल दिया।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the pole star. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than the albedo of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The axis of the earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 23 ½° to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth’s magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): The same face of the Moon is always presented to the Earth.
Reason (R): The Moon rotates about its own axis in 23½ days which is about the same time that it takes to orbit the Earth.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: A ship sailing from the eastern extremity of the Aleutian Islands to Dutch Harbour crosses the 180° meridian at 23.30 hrs on January 1, 1999. What time and date will be recorded by the captain of the ship in his diary after one hour journey from the point of crossing of the meridian?
Q: When there is noon at the G.M.T. meridian, people at another place of the Earth are taking their 6 o’clock morning tea. The longitude of the place is
Q: Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II:
Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III:
Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Q: Consider the following:
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
कथन-I : वर्षा के अवशिष्ट के कारणों में से एक अम्ल वर्षा है।
कथन-II : वर्षा जल में घुले रूप में कार्बन डाइ-ऑक्साइड विद्यमान होती है।
कथन-III : वर्षा जल में वायुमंडलीय ऑक्सीजन विद्यमान होती है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है ?
(a)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की व्याख्या करता है
(b)कथन-II और कथन-III दोनों सही हैं, किंतु वे कथन-I की व्याख्या नहीं करते हैं
(c)कथन-I और कथन-III में से केवल एक सही है तथा वह कथन-I की व्याख्या करता है
Q: निम्नलिखित सूची पर विचार कीजिए :
क्षेत्र पर्वत शृंखला का नाम पर्वत का प्रकार
1. मध्य एशिया पामीर वलित पर्वत
2. यूरोप आल्प्स प्राचीन (ब्लॉक) पर्वत
3. उत्तरी अमेरिका एपलैशियन वलित पर्वत
4. दक्षिण अमेरिका एंडीज वलित पर्वत
उपर्युक्त सूची में से कितनी प्रविष्टियाँ सही सुसंगत हैं ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following:
1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
Q: Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?
Q: With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices:
1. Crop rotation
2. Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Richter scale is a logarithmic scale and so an increase of 1 magnitude unit represents a factor of 10 times in amplitude.
2. Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that of the previous integer reading.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometers
2. Ratio of land area to water area on Earth is approximately 1 : 4
3. Maximum percentage of Earth's water is in the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following geological phenomena:
1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. Most magmas are a combination of liquid, solid and gas.
II. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the principal gases dissolved in a magma.
III. Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding earthquakes:
I. The intensity of an earthquake is measured on the Mercalli scale.
II. The magnitude of an earthquake is a measure of energy released.
III. Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct measurements of the amplitude of seismic waves.
IV. In the Richter scale, each whole number demonstrates a hundred-fold increase in the amount of energy released.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements made about the sedimentary rocks:
I. Sedimentary rocks are formed at Earth’s surface by the hydrological system.
II. The formation of sedimentary rocks involves the weathering of pre-existing rocks.
III. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.
IV. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: समुद्री कानून पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र अभिसमय (यूएनसीएलओएस) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. किसी तटीय राज्य को, अपने प्रत्याश समुद्र (Territorial Sea) की चौड़ाई को, आधार-रेखा से गिनते हुए, 12 समुद्री मील से अधिक सीमा तक विस्तारित करने का अधिकार है।
2. सभी राज्यों को, चाहे वे तटीय हों या भू-भाग से घिरे हों, जहाजों को प्रादेशिक समुद्र से होकर बिना रोक-टोक यात्रा का अधिकार होता है।
3. अनन्य आर्थिक क्षेत्र (Exclusive Economic Zone) का विस्तार उस आधार-रेखा से 200 समुद्री मील से अधिक नहीं होगा, जहाँ से प्रादेशिक समुद्र की चौड़ाई मापी जाती है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं?
Q: महासागर औसत तापमान (Ocean Mean Temperature/OMT) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
1. OMT को 26°C तापमान रेखा की गहराई तक मापा जाता है, जो जनवरी-मार्च में हिन्द महासागर के दक्षिण-पश्चिम में 129 मीटर पर होती है।
2. OMT, जो जनवरी-मार्च में एकत्रित किया जाता है, उसे यह निर्धारित करने के लिए प्रयोग किया जा सकता है कि मानसून में वर्षा की मात्रा एक निश्चित दीर्घकालीन औसत वर्षा से कम होगी या अधिक।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Q: महासागरों और समुद्रों में ज्वार-भाटा किसके/किनके कारण होता/होते हैं?
1. सूर्य का गुरुत्त्वीय बल
2. चन्द्रमा का गुरुत्त्वीय बल
3. पृथ्वी का अपकेन्द्रीय बल
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
Q: Consider the following factors :
1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found.
2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Bermuda triangle extends up to which of the following places?
1. Southern Florida
2. Puerto Rico
3. Hawaii Islands
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Ocean currents are the slow surface movement of water in the ocean.
2. Ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth’s heat balance.
3. Ocean currents are set in motion primarily by prevailing winds.
4. Ocean currents are affected by the configuration of the ocean floor.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): During the Neap Tides, the high tide is lower and the low tide is higher than usual. Reason (R): The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring Tide, occurs on the New Moon instead of on the Full Moon.
(a)Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing.
II. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely.
III. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours.
IV. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Oceanic Trench)
I. Aleutian
II. Kermadec
III. Sunda
IV. S. Sandwich
List II (Location)
A) Indian Ocean
B) North Pacific Ocean
C) South Pacific Ocean
D) South Atlantic Ocean
Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II:
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
Q: Consider the following States:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?
Q: If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following pairs :
Wetlands — Confluence of rivers
1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park : Confluence of Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi and Krishna
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Q: A particular State in India has the following characteristics :
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
Q: A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics:
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
Average maximum temp. °C 31 31 31 31 30 30 29 28 29 30 31
Average minimum temp. °C 21 21 21 21 21 20 20 20 20 20 20
Rainfall (mm) 51 85 188 158 139 121 134 168 185 221 198 86
If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be?
Q: Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List – I (National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary)
A. Chandra Prabha
B. Karera
C. Jaisamand
D. Nahargarh
List – II (Nearby Town)
1. Jaipur
2. Jhansi
3. Agra
4. Varanasi
5. Udaipur
Code: A B C D
Q: Match List I (Mangrove) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Mangrove)
A. Achra Ratnagiri
B. Coondapur
C. Pichavaram
D. Vembanad
List II (State)
1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Maharashtra
5. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
Q: The Alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is found only up to a height of 3000 metres, while in the eastern Himalayas it is found up to a height of 4000 metres. The reason for this variation in the same mountain range is that
(a)eastern Himalayas are higher than western Himalayas
(b)eastern Himalayas are nearer to the Equator and sea coast than western Himalayas
(c)eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall than the western Himalayas
(d)eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile than the western Himalayan rocks
Q: What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the following are the landing airports:
I. Hong Kong
II. Hanoi
III. Taipei
IV. Bangkok
The correct sequence of the landing at these airports during an onward journey is
Q: The standard time of the following countries is ahead or behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are east or west of the longitude passing through Greenwich:
I. Cuba
II. Greece
III. Iraq
IV. Costa Rica
V. Japan
Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind GMT?
Q: पृथ्वी पर जल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. नदियों और झीलों में जल की मात्रा, भू-जल की मात्रा से अधिक है।
2. ध्रुवीय हिमचट्टानों और हिमनदों में जल की मात्रा, भू-जल की मात्रा से अधिक है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a)The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam
(b)The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland
(c)The largest river island in the world is in Assam
(d)Sikkim is the least-populated State of the Indian Union
Frequently Asked Questions
How many Geography questions are asked in UPSC Prelims?▼
On average, 15–20 questions out of 100 in GS Paper I come from Geography and its allied topics such as Environment and Disaster Management.
Which sub-topics in Geography are most important for UPSC Prelims?▼
PYQ analysis shows Atmosphere & Climatology, Population & Demography, Indian Rivers & Water Resources, Economic & Mineral Geography and World Political Geography as top areas. Master these before moving to niche segments.
Are NCERT books enough for Geography in UPSC Prelims?▼
NCERTs from Class 6-12 form the conceptual backbone, but you should supplement them with an atlas, current affairs (PIB, IMD, UN reports), and targeted practice of previous year questions to meet the UPSC standard.
How do I prepare map-based questions for UPSC?▼
Use a physical atlas daily, practise marking rivers, straits, mineral belts and biosphere reserves on blank India & world maps, and revise regularly. Complement this with current news maps (cyclone paths, new ports, etc.)
What is the role of current affairs in Geography questions?▼
UPSC often links static Geography to contemporary issues—e.g., a question on Westerlies may stem from a recent cyclone. Therefore, correlate news events, government schemes and international reports with their underlying geographic concepts.
