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Complete 1998 UPSC CSE Prelims GS1 paper with 148 questions, answers, and detailed explanations. Attempt all questions with show/hide answers, or take the timed quiz.
148
Questions
65
Easy
79
Moderate
4
Difficult
The 1998 UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination presented a markedly science-centric paper. Out of 148 questions, Science & Technology alone contributed 47 items—almost one-third of the paper—while the three pillars of Polity, Economy and History jointly accounted for fewer than half. This tilt reflected the late-1990s policy discourse on information technology, Pokhran-II nuclear tests and the emerging telecom sector, signalling to aspirants that current scientific advancements were now mainstream GS territory.
Difficulty distribution was benign: 65 questions were objectively easy, 79 moderate and only 4 genuinely difficult, yielding a candidate-friendly score curve. Conceptual clarity rather than deep analytical rigour was rewarded. For instance, many geography questions leaned on straightforward map-based recognition, while economy items focused on post-liberalisation facts such as FDI caps and rupee convertibility rather than tricky numerical problems. Polity was a surprise under-performer with just three direct questions, all of which were simple constitutional provisions.
History showed a balanced internal spread—19 modern, 10 medieval, 5 ancient—echoing the syllabus weightage, yet none of the expected ‘Quit India’ or ‘Delhi Sultanate’ chestnuts appeared. Instead, art & culture gained six slots, hinting at UPSC’s gradual move toward heritage literacy. Overall, the 1998 paper rewarded broad reading, an eye on contemporary science and steady practice of factual recall. Aspirants who followed newspapers, NCERT texts and government reports would have found the exam accessible and scoring.
| Subject | Questions | Percentage |
|---|---|---|
| Science & Technology | 47 | 31.8% |
| Geography | 22 | 14.9% |
| Modern History | 19 | 12.8% |
| Indian Economy | 18 | 12.2% |
| Medieval History | 10 | 6.8% |
| Current Affairs | 9 | 6.1% |
| Environment & Ecology | 9 | 6.1% |
| Art & Culture | 6 | 4.1% |
| Ancient History | 5 | 3.4% |
| Indian Polity | 3 | 2.0% |
| Total | 148 | 100% |
Q: Some time back, the Government of India decided to delicense the ‘white-goods’ industry. ‘White goods’ include
Q: Examine the following three statements: I. Processed meat is a perishable food. II. All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins. III. Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
Q: What is the correct sequence of the following Indian states in descending order of their length of surface roads per 100 km² of their area? I. Haryana II. Maharashtra III. Punjab IV. Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: The four railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the rough outline map of Gujarat are respectively
Q: The damage to the Spektr Module of the Russian Space Station Mir was due to
Q: The meeting of G-15 countries held in Malaysia in 1997 was attended by
Q: Olympics 2000 is to be held in
Q: The educated middle class in India
Q: Which one of the following regions of the world supplies the maximum of our imported commodities (in terms of rupee value)?
Q: The currency of the proposed European Monetary Union will be
Q: Which one of the following was the venue for the preliminary talks between the Sri Lankan Government and representatives of Tamil United Liberation Front and other militant groups?
Q: ‘MERCOSUR’ consists of a group of countries of
Q: Which one of the following countries has replaced Italy as the major importer of bauxite from India?
Q: Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy with specific instructions to
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the states (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of India shown on the map in descending order in terms of their available ground-water resources for irrigation?
Q: Consider the following statements: The price of any currency in the international market is decided by the I. World Bank II. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned III. stability of the government of the concerned country IV. economic potential of the country in question Of these statements:
Q: A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if
Q: Among the Indian states shown labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given, the correct sequence in descending order of percentage of scheduled-tribe population to their total population is
Q: Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan Railway?
Q: The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on the point of view of the
Q: Which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric group?
Q: Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by
Q: Match the following research institutes A, B, C and D with their respective locations labelled as 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map: A. Central Drug Research Institute B. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation C. National Institute of Ocean Technology D. Temperate Forest Research Centre Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Bharat Ratna was awarded in 1997 to
Q: Which of the following statements are true about the Indian-born woman astronaut Kalpana Chawla? I. She was born in Karnal. II. She flew on board the shuttle flight STS-87. III. She was trained at the Kennedy Space Centre. IV. She did a space-walk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Assertion (A): The Gandhara School of art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence. Reason (R): Hinayana form was influenced by that art.
Q: Assertion (A): At first the Turkish administration in India was essentially military. Reason (R): The country was parcelled out as ‘Iqta’s among leading military leaders.
Q: Assertion (A): According to Asoka’s edicts, social harmony among the people was more important than religious devotion. Reason (R): He spread ideas of equity instead of promotion of religion.
Q: Assertion (A): The Khilafat movement did bring the urban Muslims into the fold of the National Movement. Reason (R): There was a predominant element of anti-imperialism in both the National and Khilafat Movements.
Q: Assertion (A): Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an end the Moderates’ role in the Indian freedom movement. Reason (R): The Surat session of Indian National Congress separated the Extremists from the Moderates.
Q: Assertion (A): The first ever Bill to make primary education compulsory in India was rejected in 1911. Reason (R): Discontent would have increased if every cultivator could read.
Q: Assertion (A): The Congress rejected the Cripps proposals. Reason (R): The Cripps Mission consisted solely of whites.
Q: Assertion (A): The United States of America has threatened to ask the World Trade Organisation (WTO) to apply sanctions against the developing countries for the no observance of ILO conventions. Reason (R): The United States of America itself has adopted and implemented those ILO conventions.
Q: Assertion (A): During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara Sikoh was sent on expedition to Balkha, Badakh-shan and Qandahar. Reason (R): The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the Middle East was a marvellous success.
Q: Assertion (A): Gandhi stopped the Non-cooperation Movement in 1922. Reason (R): Violence at Chauri-Chaura led him to stop the movement.
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Lothal: Ancient dockyard II. Sarnath: First Sermon of Buddha III. Rajgir: Lion capital of Asoka IV. Nalanda: Great seat of Buddhist learning Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:
Q: Which one of the following pairs of cities has recently been connected through a 6-lane express way?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Ringgit II. Baht III. Rupiah IV. Won List II A) Indonesia B) South Korea C) Thailand D) Malaysia Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements: Ahadis were those troopers who I. offered their services singly. II. did not attach themselves to any chief. III. had the emperor as their immediate colonel. IV. attached themselves to Mirzas. Of these statements:
Q: When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim government in 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of
Q: Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the earliest royal order to preserve food grains to be utilised during the crises in the country?
Q: According to Meadows (1972), if the present trends in world population, industrialisation, pollution, food production and resource depletion continue unchanged, the “Limits to Growth” on our planet will be reached in the next
Q: Human Poverty Index was introduced in the Human Development Report of the year
Q: Consider the following: I. Tughluqabad Fort. II. Lodi Garden. III. Qutub Minar. IV. Fatehpur Sikri. The correct chronological order in which they were built is:
Q: The concept of Eight-fold path forms the theme of
Q: The recent Land Mines Conference to sign the historic treaty was held in the Capital city of
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Dow Jones : New York II. Hang Seng : Seoul III. FTSE-100 : London Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of the country mainly because
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. 1556 II. 1600 III. 1686 IV. 1739 List II A) Battle of Haldighati B) Nadir Shah’s capture of Delhi C) Death of Shivaji D) Grant of Charter to East India Company E) Accession of Akbar Codes:
Q: Match rivers labelled A, B, C and D on the given map with their names given in the list and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list: 1. St. Lawrence 2. Orinoco 3. Mackenzie 4. Amazon 5. Yukon Codes:
Q: At the time of India’s Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was
Q: The economist who was associated with the WTO draft document is
Q: In the given map, the shaded part represents Akbar’s empire at a certain juncture: ‘A’ stands for an independent country and ‘B’ marks the site of a city. Which one of the following alternatives gives all correct information?
Q: Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a pigmented dinoflagellate. These blooms are called
Q: July 27.8 14.5 August 27.8 14.0 September 22.3 12.7 October 18.3 7.0 November 12.2 5.0 December 6.7 3.5 These data are most likely to be found in the natural regions of
Q: The number of economically active women (excluding students and those doing domestic duties in their homes) as a percentage of all women of working age (generally those aged 15-64 years) was the highest in 1996 in
Q: When there is noon at the G.M.T. meridian, people at another place of the Earth are taking their 6 o’clock morning tea. The longitude of the place is
Q: The given map relates to
Q: Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the Anti-Defection Act?
Q: Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism because
Q: The satellites of which one of the following countries have helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of Antarctica?
Q: The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
Q: The member of Shivaji’s Astha Pradhana who looked after foreign affairs was
Q: Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October 1959 in
Q: Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands of weeds and decaying vegetation held together by suspended silt. These islands are called
Q: The Asokan major rock edicts which tell us about the Sangam Kingdom include rock edicts
Q: Which one of the following east-flowing rivers of India has a rift valley due to down-warping?
Q: According to the World Development Report, low-income economies are those for which the per capita GNP in 1994 was
Q: What is the correct sequence of the following events? I. Tilak’s Home Rule League II. Kamagatamaru Incident III. Mahatma Gandhi’s arrival in India Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: The loss of Qandahar was a big blow to the Mughal empire from the viewpoint of
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Mrichchhakatikam — Shudraka II. Buddhacharita — Vasuvandhu III. Mudrarakshasha — Vishakhadatta IV. Harshacharita — Banabhatta Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given. Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious epidemic include
Q: Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because
Q: The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to the Extremist movement because of the
Q: Commercial production of mineral oil has started recently in which one of the areas of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough map given below:
Q: The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called
Q: What is the correct chronological order in which the following appeared in India? I. Gold coins II. Punch-marked silver coins III. Iron plough IV. Urban culture Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Minerals) I. Graphite II. Lead III. Salt IV. Silver List II (Mining area) A. Bellary B. Didwana C. Rampa D. Zawar
Q: Which one of the following events was characterised by Montague as ‘Preventive Murder’?
Q: Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant
Q: The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new chapter to the history of Indian sericulture. Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Oak tasar silk?
Q: What is the correct sequence of the following events? I. The August Offer II. The I.N.A. trial III. The Quit India Movement IV. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings’ Revolt Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Nobel Prize in Economics for the year 1997 was awarded for contribution in the area of
Q: Which one of the following defines extremist ideology during the early phase of Indian freedom movement?
Q: In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised towns have been developed. Match the lists of specialisation with towns and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Towns) I. Alibag II. Balapur III. Nhava Sheva IV. Ratnagiri List II (Specialisation) A. Fishing Centre B. Holiday resort C. Petro-chemical complex D. Port Codes:
Q: The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is
Q: The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Theodore Beck : Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College, Aligarh II. Ilbert Bill : Ripon III. Pherozesha : Indian National Congress IV. Badruddin Tyabji : Muslim League Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Agricultural products) I. Cotton II. Gram III. Black pepper IV. Pineapple List II (Foremost producer) A. Madhya Pradesh B. Gujarat C. West Bengal D. Kerala Codes:
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of decreasing order of the given currencies in terms of their value in Indian Rupees?
Q: ‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are
Q: Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies
Q: What are the official languages of the U.N.O.?
Q: The rough outline map given shows centres of cement industry labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these centres with the following sets of names: Names A. Katni B. Tirunelveli C. Sikka D. Churk Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:
Q: “The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” This statement is attributed to
Q: Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the
Q: Which one of the following ports shown on the rough outline map of India is a riverine port?
Q: Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party?
Q: World Environment Conference to discuss global warming was held in 1997 in
Q: The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Potassium bromide II. Potassium nitrate III. Potassium sulphate IV. Mono-potassium tartrate List II A. Fertiliser B. Photography C. Bakery D. Gunpowder Codes:
Q: Which one of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding asteroids: I. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun. II. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km. III. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn. Of these statements:
Q: Consider the following statements: Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for the production of steel/iron. Its function is to I. act as a reducing agent. II. remove silica associated with the iron ore. III. function as fuel, to supply heat. IV. act as an oxidizing agent. Of these statements:
Q: Which one of the following metals does not form amalgams?
Q: A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?
Q: The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is
Q: Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Disease) I. Malaria II. Poliomyelitis III. Tuberculosis IV. Ringworm List II (Organism) A. Fungi B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Protozoan Codes:
Q: Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to
Q: Consider the following statements about acetylene: I. It is used in welding industry. II. It is raw material for preparing plastics. III. It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water. Of these statements:
Q: A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s². What will be its velocity after 3 seconds?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Special Characteristic) I. Farthest planet from the Sun II. Largest planet of the solar system III. Planet second from the Sun in the solar system IV. Planet nearest to the Sun List II (Name of Planet) A) Mercury B) Venus C) Jupiter D) Pluto E) Saturn
Q: Which one of the following types of micro-organisms is most widely used in industries?
Q: Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List I with the area of their specialised work given in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Dr. Raja Ramanna II. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan III. Prof. U. R. Rao IV. Prof. Meghnad Saha List II A) Plant Chemistry B) Nuclear Physics C) Thermodynamics and astrophysics D) Space research E) Agricultural sciences
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Fruit II. Seed III. Wood IV. Starch List II A) Ovule B) Leaf C) Stem D) Ovary
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Theory of Mutation II. Theory of Evolution III. One-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis IV. Operon concept List II A) Beadle and Tatum B) Jacob and Monod C) Darwin D) De Vries
Q: A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating bird. Which one of the following was that bird?
Q: Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is NOT correct?
Q: Ergotism is due to consumption of
Q: The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called
Q: The major chemical compound found in human kidney stones is
Q: One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Blue vitriol II. Epsom salt III. Baking soda IV. Caustic soda List II A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Sodium hydroxide C) Magnesium sulphate D) Copper sulphate
Q: Assertion (A): Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. Reason (R): Formic acid is an organic acid.
Q: Assertion (A): The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed through it. Reason (R): Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.
Q: Assertion (A): Phenyl is used as a household germicide. Reason (R): Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
Q: Assertion (A): Sodium metal is stored under kerosene. Reason (R): Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.
Q: The misery index is the sum of a country’s unemployment and inflation rate. The higher the index, the more miserable is the country to live in. In the figure given below is the Misery Index for various countries in Europe: Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the misery index given above? I. Britain is the most miserable country to live in. II. The inflation rate in Spain is less than that in Belgium and Britain. III. Italy and France seem to have almost identical unemployment rate. IV. The higher the misery index, the higher the inflation rate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: The table below indicates the performance of India in rice and wheat production from 1950-51 to 1995-96. Which of the following conclusions arrived at from the above table would be valid? I. Record production of rice as well as wheat has been in 1994-95. II. The ratio of wheat to rice production seems to have steadily increased over 16 years. III. Wheat has not been popular among the Indian population before 1980. IV. India became self-sufficient in rice and wheat only after 1990. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: LMNOP is a semi-circle with centre at R and diameter LP; LSR and RQP are also semi-circles with centres at T and U and diameters LR = RP = 1⁄2 LP. The ratio of perimeters of LMNOP and LSRQP is
Q: A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of Rs 650. He sells A with 20% profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the same selling price for both the clocks. What are the purchasing prices of A and B respectively?
Q: If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 7 days, then how many extra pumps will be required to fill the tank in 5 days?
Q: Out of the three annual examinations, each with a total of 500 marks, a student secured average marks of 45 % and 55 % in the first and second annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60 %, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third annual examination?
Q: Which one of the following satisfies the relationship D d a : a D D :: R r b : ?
Q: A square pond has 2 m sides and is 1 m deep. If it is to be enlarged, the depth remaining the same, into a circular pond with the diagonal of the square as diameter as shown in the figure, then what would be the volume of earth to be removed?
Q: One local and another express train were proceeding in the same direction on parallel tracks at 29 km/hour and 65 km/hour respectively. The driver of the former noticed that it took exactly 16 seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the faster train?
Q: A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting on six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F, C is opposite D, and D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring chairs?
Q: If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE?
Q: In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother?
Q: The missing fraction in the series given below is:
Q: There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
Q: An accurate clock shows the time as 3 : 00. After the hour hand has moved 135°, the time would be
Q: The current price index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This means that
Q: In the set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage?
Q: Examine the following statements: I. All members of Mohan’s family are honest. II. Some members of Mohan’s family are not employed. III. Some employed persons are not honest. IV. Some honest persons are not employed. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
Q: In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat. Which one of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects the above situation?
Q: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G, are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
1998 was a watershed year for India’s scientific profile—Pokhran-II nuclear tests, the IT industry’s rapid expansion and new satellite launches kept science in the headlines. UPSC mirrored this national discourse, hence the unusually high 47 questions from Science & Technology.
No. With only 4 difficult questions and a majority classified as easy or moderate, the 1998 paper was regarded as candidate-friendly. A well-prepared aspirant could comfortably clear the cutoff with disciplined coverage of basics and current affairs.
UPSC periodically rotates focus areas to discourage rote preparation. In 1998 they compensated for a heavier science, geography and modern history load by trimming Polity to just three straightforward questions, ensuring overall balance without inflating total difficulty.
