Indian Polity — UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions (1995–2025)
410 questions across 20 sub-topics. Practice all Indian Polity PYQs with detailed explanations, or explore specific sub-topics below.
410
Total Questions
20
Sub-topics
31
Years
Indian Polity is the most predictable yet high-return segment of the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. From 1995 to 2025 the subject has accounted for 410 out of roughly 5,000 MCQs, translating to an average of 12–15 marks every single year. Whether the paper leans towards current events or static theory, conceptual clarity on the Constitution, Parliament, and governance structures remains non-negotiable. Aspirants who regularly solve previous year questions (PYQs) discover that almost one-third of the polity items each year are direct repeats, close variants, or logical extensions of earlier themes.
A granular look at the PYQ database reveals clear patterns. Parliament & State Legislatures top the chart with 66 questions, followed closely by Constitutional Framework & Development (57) and the Union & State Executive (50). Judiciary (46) and Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (29) complete the big five. Elections & Electoral Reforms, Federalism, Local Government, Social Justice provisions, and Fundamental Rights together contribute another 100+ questions. Mastering these ten sub-topics covers more than 90% of what UPSC has asked since the mid-1990s.
The Commission loves to test fine distinctions: ordinary versus constitutional amendment bills, discretionary versus non-discretionary powers of the Governor, original versus advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, money bill versus financial bill, and the subtle differences between bodies like the CAG, UPSC, Election Commission, NITI Aayog, and Finance Commission. Articles, schedules, and landmark judgments frequently appear, but only when they influence the larger framework of checks and balances or impact current affairs (for example, the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment on privacy or recent Finance Commission recommendations).
Parliamentary procedure is a perpetual favourite. Questions on quorum, zero hour, motions, committees, and the budget cycle surface almost every alternate year. Equally important is state legislature procedure—particularly where it diverges from the national template. In the executive domain, expect queries on President versus Governor powers, emergency provisions, ordinance-making, and the principle of collective responsibility. Judiciary-related PYQs often blend Article numbers with doctrines such as basic structure, judicial review, and public interest litigation.
Effective preparation follows a three-step loop: (1) Build a crisp conceptual base from the Indian Polity textbook by M. Laxmikanth, Second ARC reports, and recent constitutional amendments; (2) Integrate current affairs from the last 18–24 months, especially Supreme Court verdicts, new commissions, local government reforms, and election-related changes; (3) Practise topic-wise PYQs in timed sets, analysing both correct and incorrect options to recognise UPSC’s distractor patterns. Mind-mapping Articles, flow-charting legislative procedures, and revising fact-heavy tables (schedules, committees, bodies) weekly greatly improve recall under pressure.
Finally, remember that Polity questions are rarely isolated; they often dovetail with Economy (FRBM Act), Environment (73rd, 74th Amendments and biodiversity), or Social Issues (reservation verdicts). A holistic reading of governance helps you eliminate improbable options even when the exact fact is hazy. Consistent PYQ practice, aligned with news analysis, is the fastest route to securing those crucial 12+ marks that can decide your prelims cut-off.
Q: Consider the following statements :
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: संसद में धन विधेयक के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं ?
1. अनुच्छेद 109 में धन विधेयक के संबंध में विशेष प्रक्रिया का उल्लेख है।
2. धन विधेयक राज्य सभा में प्रस्तुत/स्थापित नहीं किया जाएगा।
3. राज्य सभा या तो विधेयक को अनुमोदन दे सकती है या परिवर्तन के लिए सुझाव दे सकती है किंतु इसे अस्वीकार नहीं कर सकती।
4. राज्य सभा द्वारा धन विधेयक में सुझाए गए संशोधनों को लोक सभा स्वीकार करना होगा।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration,
1. He/she shall not preside.
2. He/she shall have no right to speak.
3. He/she shall have no right to vote on the resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A Bill for which the President has convened a joint sitting of both Houses lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. The President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers to send a message to either House.
2. Prorogation of a House is normally done after it is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar on the President proroguing the House while it is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, except in extraordinary circumstances, on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित में कौन-सी लोक सभा की अन्य शक्ति(याँ) है/हैं?
1. आपात की उद्घोषणा का अनुमोदन करना
2. मंत्रिपरिषद के विरुद्ध अविश्वास प्रस्ताव पारित करना
3. भारत के राष्ट्रपति पर महाभियोग चलाना
नीचे दिए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत का राष्ट्रपति ऐसे स्थान पर जिसे वह ठीक समझे, संसद का सत्र आहूत (आह्वान) कर सकता है।
2. भारत का संविधान एक वर्ष में संसद के तीन सत्रों का प्रावधान करता है, किंतु सभी तीन सत्रों का चलाया जाना अनिवार्य नहीं है।
3. एक वर्ष में दिनों की कोई न्यूनतम संख्या निर्धारित नहीं है जब संसद का चलना आवश्यक हो।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/सही है/हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. संसद (अयोग्यता निवारण) अधिनियम, 1959 कुछ पदों को ‘लाभ का पद’ के आधार पर अयोग्यता से मुक्त करता है।
2. इस अधिनियम में अब तक नौ बार संशोधन किया गया है।
3. ‘लाभ का पद’ शब्द भारत के संविधान में परिभाषित है।
उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
Q: Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a)A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b)A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c)A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d)A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारत की संसद के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. गैर-सरकारी विधेयक ऐसा विधेयक है जो संसद के ऐसे सदस्य द्वारा प्रस्तुत किया जाता है जो निर्वाचित नहीं है किंतु भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा नामांकित है।
2. हाल ही में, भारत की संसद के इतिहास में पहली बार एक गैर-सरकारी विधेयक पारित किया गया है।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements :
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Q: Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India provides that
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises members of the Lok Sabha, members of the Rajya Sabha, and a few eminent persons of the industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in the national interest for Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House.
Which of these statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a)The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b)No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c)Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d)No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, Members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the table given below:
Parliament of India (extract shown)
Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?
(a)Ministers who are not Members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
(b)Not more than 20 nominated members
(c)Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories
(d)The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament
Q: Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए:
भारत के संविधान के उपबंध — विषय
I. राज्य की लोक सेवा में न्याय-पालिका का कार्यपालिका से पृथक्करण : राज्य की नीति के निर्देशक तत्त्व
II. हमारी सामाजिक संस्कृति की समग्र विरासत का महत्त्व समझना और उसका संरक्षण करना : मूल कर्तव्य
III. कारखानों में 14 वर्ष से कम आयु के बच्चों के नियोजन का निषेध : मूल अधिकार
उपयुक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I — Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the Bill to the President of India for assent?
Q: With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 368 के अनुसार, संसद निम्नलिखित में से किनके द्वारा संविधान के किसी उपबंध में संशोधन कर सकती है ?
1. परिवर्तन
2. प्रतिस्थापन
3. विलोपन
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: भारत के संविधान के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं ?
1. नगरपालिकाओं की शक्तियाँ संविधान के भाग 9-क में दी गई हैं ।
2. आपात उपबंध संविधान के भाग 18 में दिए गए हैं ।
3. संविधान के संशोधनों से संबंधित उपबंध संविधान के भाग 20 में दिए गए हैं ।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: संविधान दिवस के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
कथन-I: नागरिकों के बीच संवैधानिक मूल्यों को संवर्धित करने के लिए संविधान दिवस प्रतिवर्ष 26 नवम्बर को मनाया जाता है।
कथन-II: 26 नवम्बर, 1949 को, भारत की संविधान सभा ने भारत के संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने के लिए डॉ॰ बी. आर. अम्बेडकर की अध्यक्षता में एक प्रारूप समिति बनाई।
उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?
(a)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की सही व्याख्या है
(b)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. किसी संविधान संशोधन विधेयक को भारत के राष्ट्रपति की पूर्व स्वीकृति की अपेक्षा होती है।
2. जब कोई संविधान संशोधन विधेयक भारत के राष्ट्रपति के समक्ष प्रस्तुत किया जाता है, तो भारत के राष्ट्रपति के लिए यह बाध्यकारी है कि वे अपनी अनुमति दें।
3. संविधान संशोधन विधेयक लोक सभा और राज्य सभा दोनों द्वारा विशेष बहुमत से पारित होना ही चाहिए और इसके लिए संयुक्त बैठक का कोई उपाय नहीं है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारतरत्न और पद पुरस्कारों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. भारतरत्न और पद पुरस्कार, भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 18 (1) के अंतर्गत उपाधियाँ हैं।
2. वर्ष 1954 में प्रारंभ किए गए पद पुरस्कारों को केवल एक बार संशोधित किया गया था।
3. किसी वर्ष विशेष में भारतरत्न पुरस्कारों की अधिकतम संख्या तीन तक सीमित है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: मूल अधिकारों के अतिरिक्त, भारत के संविधान का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से भाग मानव अधिकारों की सार्वभौमिक घोषणा 1948 (Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948) के सिद्धांतों एवं प्रावधानों को प्रतिबिंबित करता/करते हैं?
1. उद्देशिका
2. राज्य की नीति के निदेशक तत्त्व
3. मूल कर्त्तव्य
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. भारत की संसद किसी कानून विशेष को भारत के संविधान की नौवीं अनुसूची में डाल सकती है।
2. नौवीं अनुसूची में डाले गए किसी कानून की वैधता का परीक्षण किसी न्यायालय द्वारा नहीं किया जा सकता एवं उसके ऊपर कोई निर्णय भी नहीं दिया जा सकता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislatures of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?
Q: Which of the Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 percent of the total number in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendments) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.
List I (Item in the Indian Constitution)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations
D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union
List II (Country from which it was derived)
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Ireland
4. United Kingdom
5. USA
Codes:
A B C D
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Amendments to the Constitution)
I. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991
II. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994
III. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000
IV. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000
List II (Contents)
A) Establishment of State-level Rent Tribunals Act, 1991
B) No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C) Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels
D) Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
E) According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi
Codes:
Q: Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
Q: Consider the following functionaries:
I. Cabinet Secretary
II. Chief Election Commissioner
III. Union Cabinet Ministers
IV. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
Q: Consider the following statements: An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
I. Lok Sabha.
II. Rajya Sabha.
III. State Legislatures.
IV. President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Functionaries)
I. President of India
II. Judges of the Supreme Court
III. Members of Parliament
IV. Ministers for the Union
List II (Oaths or affirmations)
A) Secrecy of Information
B) Faithful Discharge of Duties
C) Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
D) Upholding the Constitution and the Law
Q: In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ ………. do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
Q: Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India.
Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last Governor-General of free India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
I. Election of the President
II. Representation of States in Parliament
III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: भारतीय राज्य-व्यवस्था के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
I. अध्यादेश किसी केंद्रीय अधिनियम को संशोधित कर सकता है।
II. अध्यादेश किसी मूल अधिकार को न्यून कर सकता है।
III. अध्यादेश किसी पिछली तारीख से प्रभावी हो सकता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-कौन से सही हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
I. भारत के संविधान में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख है कि कुछ परिस्थितियों में किसी राज्य का राज्यपाल अपने विवेकाधीन कार्य करेगा।
II. भारत का राष्ट्रपति, अपने-आप, किसी राज्य विधान-मंडल द्वारा पारित विधेयक को रोकने की शक्ति रखता है यदि वह संबंधित राज्य के राज्यपाल द्वारा भेजा गया हो, अपने विचार के लिए आरक्षित कर सकता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: भारत के राष्ट्रपति की क्षमा प्रदान करने की शक्ति के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
I. राष्ट्रपति द्वारा इस शक्ति का प्रयोग किसी निश्चित न्यायिक सुनवाई के अंतर्गत किया जा सकता है।
II. राष्ट्रपति इस शक्ति का प्रयोग केंद्र सरकार की सलाह के बगैर कर सकता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: भारत के राष्ट्रपति के निर्वाचन के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. संसद के दोनों सदनों में से किसी भी सदन या राज्यों की विधानसभाओं में नामित किए गए सदस्य निर्वाचकमंडल में शामिल किए जाने के लिए भी अर्ह हैं।
2. निर्वाचक विधानसभा जितनी बड़ी होती है, उस राज्य के प्रत्येक विधायक (MLA) के वोट का मान उतना ही अधिक होता है।
3. मध्य प्रदेश के प्रत्येक विधायक (MLA) के वोट का मान, उत्तर प्रदेश के प्रत्येक विधायक (MLA) के वोट के मान से अधिक है।
4. पुडुचेरी के प्रत्येक विधायक (MLA) के वोट का मान, अरुणाचल प्रदेश के प्रत्येक विधायक (MLA) के वोट के मान से अधिक है, क्योंकि अरुणाचल प्रदेश की तुलना में पुडुचेरी में निर्वाचन क्षेत्रों की कुल संख्या का अनुपात अधिक है।
उपर्युक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत का संविधान मंत्रियों को चार श्रेणियों, अर्थात् कैबिनेट मंत्री, स्वतंत्र प्रभार वाले राज्यमंत्री, राज्यमंत्री और उपमंत्री, में वर्गीकृत करता है।
2. संघ सरकार में मंत्रियों की कुल संख्या, प्रधान मंत्री को मिला कर, लोक सभा के कुल सदस्यों के 15% से अधिक नहीं होनी चाहिए।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत के संविधान के अनुसार, कोई भी ऐसा व्यक्ति जो संसद का सदस्य बनने के लिए योग्य है, किसी राज्य में छह माह के लिए मंत्री बनाया जा सकता है तब भी जब कि वह उस राज्य के विधान-मंडल का सदस्य नहीं है।
2. लोक प्रतिनिधित्व अधिनियम, 1951 के अनुसार, कोई भी ऐसा व्यक्ति जो दंडनीय अपराध के अंतर्गत दोषी पाया गया है और जिसे पाँच वर्ष के लिए कारावास का दंड दिया गया है, चुनाव लड़ने के लिए अयोग्य तो कर दिया जाता है, परंतु वह रिहा होने से पूर्व ही मुक्त हो जाता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/सही है/हैं?
Q: Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a)First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b)Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c)Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d)National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Q: With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a)An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b)A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c)A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d)A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
Q: Consider the following statements. The Attorney-General of India can:
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.
2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Q: With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People ?
Q: With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Who among the following have been the Union Finance Minister of India?
1. V. P. Singh
2. R. Venkataraman
3. Y. B. Chavan
4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Departments : Ministry of the Government of India
1. Department of Women and Child Development : Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Department of Official Languages : Ministry of Human Resource Development
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply : Ministry of Water Resources
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
Q: Consider the following statements: In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India.
1. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
2. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest election
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Article of the Constitution)
I. Article 54
II. Article 75
III. Article 155
IV. Article 164
List II (Content)
A) Election of the President of India
B) Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
C) Appointment of the Governor of a State
D) Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State
E) Composition of Legislative Assemblies
Q: Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
I. He is appointed by the President of India.
II. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
III. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
IV. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression "population" here means the population as ascertained by the
Q: Which one of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
I. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
Q: Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?
I. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.
II. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
(a)The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House
(b)The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
(c)All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(d)In the event of both the President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously before the end of their tenure, the Speaker of the Lower House of Parliament will officiate as the President
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H. N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a company even though it may be a Government company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: भारत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. न्यायिक हिरासत का अर्थ है कि अभियुक्त संबंधित मजिस्ट्रेट की हिरासत में है और ऐसे अभियुक्त को पुलिस स्टेशन के हवालात में रखा जाता है न कि जेल में।
2. न्यायिक हिरासत के दौरान, मामले के प्रभारी पुलिस अधिकारी, न्यायालय की अनुमति के बिना संदिग्ध व्यक्ति से पूछताछ नहीं कर सकता।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: भारत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. जब एक कैदी पैरोल आधार पर रिहा प्रस्ताव करता है, तो ऐसे कैदी को पैरोल मना नहीं किया जा सकता, क्योंकि यह उसके अधिकार का मामला बन जाता है।
2. कैदी को पैरोल पर छोड़ने के लिए राज्य सरकारों के अपने नियम हैं।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारत में, विधिक सेवा प्रदान करने वाले प्राधिकरण (Legal Services Authorities), निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रकार के नागरिकों को निःशुल्क विधिक सेवाएँ प्रदान करते हैं ?
1. ₹ 1,00,000 से कम वार्षिक आय वाले व्यक्ति को
2. ₹ 2,00,000 से कम वार्षिक आय वाले ट्रांसजेंडर को
3. ₹ 3,00,000 से कम वार्षिक आय वाले अन्य पिछड़े वर्ग (OBC) के सदस्य को
4. सभी वरिष्ठ नागरिकों को
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. न्यायाधीश (जाँच) अधिनियम, 1968 के अनुसार, भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय के किसी न्यायाधीश पर महाभियोग चलाने के प्रस्ताव को लोकसभा के अध्यक्ष द्वारा अस्वीकार नहीं किया जा सकता।
2. भारत का संविधान यह प्रावधान करता है कि राज्य सभा, भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों की ‘अवकाश और सेवा-शर्तें’ को निर्धारित कर सकती है।
3. भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों के महाभियोग की प्रक्रिया न्यायाधीश (जाँच) अधिनियम, 1968 में दी गई है।
4. जब किसी न्यायाधीश के महाभियोग के प्रस्ताव को संसद में प्रस्तुत किया जाता है, तो प्रस्ताव तब ही पारित होता है जब प्रत्येक सदन में उपस्थित और मतदान करने वाले सदस्यों के कुल संख्याबल के साधारण बहुमत तथा उसी संख्याबल के दो-तिहाई बहुमत से इसे स्वीकृति मिलती है।
उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a)The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b)The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c)In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d)State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Q: With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any Central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called in question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the 'Gram Nyayalaya Act', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements :
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill, 2006 contemplates establishing a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is the same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): In India, every State has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each State.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. District Judge are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years' standing or more, or a member of a judicial service of the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
Which of these statements given above are correct?
Q: The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with
(a)The President of India
(b)The Chief Justice of India
(c)The Parliament
(d)The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Q: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
I. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
II. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one State.
III. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
IV. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Willful disobedience or non-compliance of Court Orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
Organization Some of its functions It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
Data Management policy formulation and nabbing tax evaders
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
Q: With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action — The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms — The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties — The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others — The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q: With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister's charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
(b)One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
(c)The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
(d)A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Nagender Singh
B. A. N. Ray
C. R. K. Trivedi
D. Ashok Desai
List-II (Position)
1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
2. President, International Court of Justice
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Attorney General of India
Code:
Q: Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) T. S. Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b) K. C. Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A. M. Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R. C. Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
(a)T. S. Krishnamurthy – Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b)K. C. Pant – Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c)A. M. Khusro – Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
Q: Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
Q: Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?
1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai
2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali
3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram
4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match List I (Commission) with List II (Matter of Enquiry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Commission)
A. Wadhwa Commission
B. Liberhan Commission
C. Sri Krishan Commission
D. Jain Commission
List II (Matter of enquiry)
1. The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi
2. Killing of Graham Staines
3. Demolition of a religious structure at Ayodhya
4. Riots in Mumbai in 1993
Q: Consider the following statements about the minorities in India:
I. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities.
II. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993.
III. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians.
IV. The Constitution of India recognises and protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:
I. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
II. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
III. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
IV. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए:
राज्य — वर्णन
I. अरुणाचल प्रदेश : एक जिले का राजधानी का नाम तथा राज्य में दो राष्ट्रीय उद्यान (नेशनल पार्क) हैं।
II. नागालैंड : यह राज्य एक संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम के आधार पर अस्तित्व में आया।
III. त्रिपुरा : राज्य पुनर्गठन के बाद यह केंद्र-शासित प्रदेश बना और बाद में इसे पूर्ण राज्य का दर्जा प्राप्त हुआ।
उपयुक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: भारत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए:
I. अंतर-राज्य परिषद
II. राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा परिषद
III. क्षेत्रीय परिषदें
उपरोक्त में से कितनी भारत के संविधान के उपबंधों के अनुसार स्थापित हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: भारत में 'अनुसूचित क्षेत्र' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. किसी राज्य के भीतर, किसी क्षेत्र की अनुसूचित क्षेत्र के रूप में अधिसूचना राज्यपाल के एक आदेश से होती है।
2. अनुसूचित क्षेत्र के रूप में चिन्हित सबसे बड़ी प्रशासित इकाई जिला होती है और सबसे छोटी इकाई ब्लॉक में गाँवों का समूह होता है।
3. संबंधित राज्यों के मुख्यमंत्रियों से परामर्श के बाद अनुसूचित क्षेत्रों के प्रशासन के विषय में केन्द्र सरकार वार्षिक प्रतिवेदन प्रस्तुत करती है।
उपर्युक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: यदि किसी विशिष्ट क्षेत्र को भारत के संविधान की पाँचवीं अनुसूची के अन्तर्गत लाया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा एक, इसके परिणाम के रूप में स्वतः ही परिलक्षित होता है?
(a)इससे जनजातीय लोगों की जमीनें गैर-जनजातीय लोगों को अन्तरण करने पर रोक लगेगी।
(b)इससे उस क्षेत्र में एक स्वायत्त स्व-शासी विकास प्राधिकरण का सृजन होगा।
(c)इससे वह क्षेत्र संघ राज्य क्षेत्र में बदल जाएगा।
(d)यदि उस क्षेत्र के लोग ऐसा चाहेंगे, उसे विशेष कोर्ट का राज्य घोषित किया जाएगा।
Q: The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
(a)Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b)Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c)Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d)Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Articles 371A to 371I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual policy (the Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
Q: Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
Q: Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
I. The National Development Council
II. The Governors’ Conference
III. Zonal Councils
IV. The Interstate Council
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements :
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारत में दलबदल विरोधी कानून के सन्दर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. यह कानून निर्दिष्ट करता है कि कोई नामनिर्दिष्ट विधायिका सदस्य पद ग्रहण होने के छह मास के अन्दर किसी राजनीतिक दल में शामिल नहीं हो सकता।
2. यह कानून कोई समयसीमा नहीं देता जिसके अन्दर पीठासीन अधिकारी को दलबदल मामला निपटिरस्त करना होता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of an Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes office or till he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
I. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
II. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
III. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more States.
IV. During the 1999 general elections, there were six National and 48 State level parties recognised by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996:
I. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction.
II. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha.
III. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
IV. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: In which one of the following countries are 75 per cent of seats in both Houses of Parliament filled on the basis of first-past-the-post system and 25 per cent on the basis of Proportional Representation system of elections?
Q: Consider the table given below providing some details of the results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislative Assembly held in December, 1994.
In terms of electoral analysis, the voter-seat distortion is to be explained as the result of the adoption of the
Q: Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
(a)The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b)The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States
(c)The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
(d)Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
Q: 92. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?
I. Muslim League
II. Revolutionary Socialist Party
III. All India Forward Block
IV. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
I. मध्यवर्ती स्तर पर पंचायतें सभी राज्यों में विद्यमान हैं।
II. मध्यवर्ती स्तर पर पंचायत का सदस्य बनने हेतु पात्र होने के लिए किसी व्यक्ति की तीन वर्ष की आयु प्राप्त होनी चाहिए।
III. संबंधित राज्य का मुख्यमंत्री मध्यवर्ती स्तर पर पंचायतों की किसी सभा में उपस्थित रहने के लिए और सभा द्वारा प्रस्तावित कर और शुल्कों के निपटान के लिए मध्यवर्ती स्तर पर किसी अधिकारी को नामित कर सकता है।
उपयुक्त में कौन-सा/से कथन सही नहीं है/हैं ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of a Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is NOT identified as its objective?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Q: The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government-sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and Article 243Q envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation – for every state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
(a)he obtains permission from the principal of his college
(b)he is a member of a political party
(c)his name figures in the Voters’ List
(d)he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Local bodies) (States as in 1999)
I. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level
II. Mandal Praja Parishad
III. Tribal Councils
IV. Absence of Village Panchayats
List II
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Assam
C) Mizoram
D) Meghalaya
Codes:
Q: In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provision?
(a)A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among others.
(b)Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due.
(c)A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, up to a third of the strength.
(d)Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability.
Q: Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. वह राज्य का राज्यपाल है जो उस राज्य के किसी समुदाय को अनुसूचित जनजाति के रूप में मान्यता देता है और घोषित करता है।
2. किसी राज्य में अनुसूचित जनजाति के रूप में घोषित किसी समुदाय के लिए यह आवश्यक नहीं है कि दूसरे राज्य में भी ऐसा हो।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं ?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
कथन-I : भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय ने अपने कतिपय निर्णयों में यह विचार व्यक्त किया है कि भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 16(4) के अधीन बनाई गई आरक्षण नीतियाँ, प्रसार के दायरे को न्यायत रखने के लिए अनुच्छेद 335 द्वारा सीमित होंगी।
कथन-II : भारत के संविधान का अनुच्छेद 335 'प्रशासन की दक्षता' को परिभाषित करता है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?
(a)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की सही व्याख्या है
(b)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
Q: Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)State Forest Department
(b)District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
Q: Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages is it entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements:
1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged women etc., whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self Help Groups.
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be
Q: Assertion (A): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: कानून को लागू करने के मामले में कोई विभाग, जो किसी कर्मचारी अथवा प्रशासकीय अधिकारी को अधिकारिता एवं अभियोजन विवेकाधिकार देता है, भारत के संविधान के निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेदों में से किसका उल्लंघन करता है?
Q: Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a)Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b)Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c)Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d)Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Q: Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
List II
1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India
3. “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State
Codes:
A B C D
Q: Which Article of the Constitution of India says, “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment”?
Q: Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Article)
A. Article 16(2)
B. Article 29(2)
C. Article 30(1)
D. Article 31(1)
List II (Provisions)
1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religion or caste
3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the fundamental right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them
Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements: No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression.
II. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practise and propagation of religion.
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements
Q: भारत के संविधान के भाग IV में अंतर्निहित प्रावधानों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/सही है/हैं?
1. वे न्यायालयों द्वारा प्रवर्तनीय होंगे।
2. वे किसी भी न्यायालय द्वारा प्रवर्तनीय नहीं होंगे।
3. इस भाग में अभिरक्षित सिद्धांत राज्य के द्वारा कानून बनाने को प्रेरित करेंगे।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: संविधान के 42वें संशोधन द्वारा, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा प्रावधान राज्य की नीति के निदेशक तत्वों (Directive Principles of State Policy) में जोड़ा गया था ?
(a)पुरुष और स्त्री दोनों के लिए समान कार्य का समान वेतन
(b)उद्योगों के प्रबन्धन में कामगारों की सहभागिता का अधिकार
(c)काम, शिक्षा और सार्वजनिक सहायता पाने का अधिकार
(d)श्रमिकों के लिए विश्राम-गृह तथा कार्य की मानवीय दशाएँ सुनिश्चित करना
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Q: With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
Q: The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
Q: Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: केंद्रिय बजट (यूनियन बजट) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. प्रधान मंत्री की ओर से केंद्रिय वित्त मंत्री संसद के दोनों सदनों के समक्ष वार्षिक वित्तीय विवरण रखते हैं।
2. केंद्रिय (यूनियन) स्तर पर, भारत के राष्ट्रपति की अनुमति के बिना अनुदानों की माँग नहीं की जा सकती।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा सही है/हैं ?
Q: With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are
1. levied and collected by the State Government
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
Q: Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
(a)A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
(b)A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
(c)A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
(d)A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary
Q: निम्नलिखित में से किनको "विधि के शासन" के प्रमुख लक्षणों के रूप में माना जाएगा ?
1. शक्तियों का परिसीमन
2. विधि के समक्ष समानता
3. सरकार के प्रति जन-उत्तरदायित्व
4. स्वतंत्रता और नागरिक अधिकार
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Consider the following:
1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W. Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In which of the following countries will the no-confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the legislature be valid only when the legislature is able to find simultaneously a majority to elect a successor government?
Q: Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
1. A proclamation of Financial Emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of Financial Emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से भारतीय नागरिक के मूल कर्तव्यों के विषय में सही है/हैं?
1. इन कर्तव्यों को प्रवर्तित करने के लिए कोई विधिक प्रावधान की गई है।
2. ये विधिक कर्तव्य के साथ परस्पर संबंधित हैं।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match List I (Organisation) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List I (Organisation)
A. National Sugar Institute
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
C. Institute of Military Law
D. Institute of National Integration
List II (Location)
1. Dehradun
2. Kamptee
3. Pune
4. Hyderabad
Codes: A B C D
Q: The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries is chosen by the ruling prince from a slate of three candidates put up to him by the President of France?
(a)San Marius
(b)Liechtenstein
(c)Malta
(d)Monaco
Frequently Asked Questions
How many Indian Polity questions appear in UPSC Prelims each year?▼
On average 12–15 questions come from Indian Polity annually, though the range can fluctuate between 8 and 20 depending on the year’s current-affairs weightage.
Which book is best for Indian Polity preparation?▼
The most popular one-stop source is Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, but topping it up with NCERT Class XI Constitution at Work, Second ARC reports, and recent Supreme Court judgments gives a decisive edge.
What are the high-yield sub-topics within Polity PYQs?▼
Parliament & State Legislatures, Constitutional Framework, Union & State Executive, Judiciary, and Constitutional Bodies together account for more than 70% of all polity questions asked since 1995.
How can I integrate current affairs with Polity studies?▼
Track government press releases, PIB summaries, and major Supreme Court or High Court rulings; then map them to relevant Articles, schedules, and committees to reinforce static concepts with dynamic examples.
Is rote memorisation of Article numbers necessary?▼
Memorising every Article is not required, but knowing the frequently asked ones—especially for Fundamental Rights, Parliament procedure, emergency provisions, and key institutions—helps in quick option elimination.
