UPSC Prelims 2024 — GS Paper 1 Question Paper with Solutions
Complete 2024 UPSC CSE Prelims GS1 paper with 100 questions, answers, and detailed explanations. Attempt all questions with show/hide answers, or take the timed quiz.
100
Questions
35
Easy
59
Moderate
6
Difficult
Paper Analysis — 2024
The 2024 UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (GS Paper-I) exemplified the Commission’s trademark blend of depth and breadth. From a statistical lens, Geography and Indian Polity jointly led the tally with 18 questions apiece, underscoring the continued centrality of core static areas. Environment & Ecology (14) and Science & Technology (14) also retained their now-routine prominence, fuelled by climate diplomacy, biodiversity governance and emerging tech topics such as quantum computing and space start-ups.
Difficulty skewed slightly higher than last year: only 35 questions were clearly “easy,” 59 sat in the “moderate” bracket and a mere 6 qualified as “difficult.” The moderate segment, however, contained several multi-statement items that punished guesswork and rewarded conceptual clarity—particularly in Economy (15 questions) where questions on inflation measurement, green bonds and PLI schemes required integrated static-dynamic understanding. Current Affairs (11) showed a discernible 12-to-18-month window, with touches of 2022 events fading out.
Notable patterns included UPSC’s renewed interest in lesser-asked eras: single yet nuanced questions on Ancient and Medieval History, and a sparse two on Modern History. Art & Culture’s six questions leaned on UNESCO-listed sites and dance-music linkages rather than factual temple architecture lists. Surprises were mild: no questions on cryptocurrency regulation despite heavy news coverage, and the absence of typical tiger census or COP-28 trivia in Environment. Overall, a well-balanced paper where elimination techniques and an interdisciplinary mindset were decisive.
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II :
Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long-wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement-II :
At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following:
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
Q: Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
कथन-I : वर्षा के अवशिष्ट के कारणों में से एक अम्ल वर्षा है।
कथन-II : वर्षा जल में घुले रूप में कार्बन डाइ-ऑक्साइड विद्यमान होती है।
कथन-III : वर्षा जल में वायुमंडलीय ऑक्सीजन विद्यमान होती है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है ?
(a)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की व्याख्या करता है
(b)कथन-II और कथन-III दोनों सही हैं, किंतु वे कथन-I की व्याख्या नहीं करते हैं
(c)कथन-I और कथन-III में से केवल एक सही है तथा वह कथन-I की व्याख्या करता है
Q: निम्नलिखित सूचना पर विचार कीजिए :
जलप्रपात क्षेत्र नदी
1. धुआँधार मालवा नर्मदा
2. हुंड्र छोटा नागपुर सुवर्णरेखा
3. मेहेंपा पश्चिमी घाट नेत्रवती
उपर्युक्त सूची में से कितनी प्रविष्टियाँ सही सुसंगत हैं ?
Q: निम्नलिखित सूची पर विचार कीजिए :
क्षेत्र पर्वत शृंखला का नाम पर्वत का प्रकार
1. मध्य एशिया पामीर वलित पर्वत
2. यूरोप आल्प्स प्राचीन (ब्लॉक) पर्वत
3. उत्तरी अमेरिका एपलैशियन वलित पर्वत
4. दक्षिण अमेरिका एंडीज वलित पर्वत
उपर्युक्त सूची में से कितनी प्रविष्टियाँ सही सुसंगत हैं ?
Q: Consider the following airports:
1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
Q: With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following description:
1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.
What is this type of climate?
Q: With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
Q: कई उपभोक्ता उत्पादों के निर्माण के लिए प्रमुख होने वाले परफ्लुओरोकिल और पॉलीफ्लुओरोएल्किल पदार्थ (PFAS) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. PFAS पेयजल, खाद्य और खाद्य पैकेजिंग सामग्री में व्यापक रूप से पाए जाते हैं।
2. PFAS पर्यावरण में आसानी से निम्नीभूत (डिग्रेड) नहीं होते हैं।
3. PFAS के लगातार संपर्क के परिणामस्वरूप जन्तुओं के शरीर में जैव संचय हो सकता है।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
कथन-I: इंडियन फ्लाइंग फॉक्स को वन्य जीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1972 के अधीन “पीड़क जंतु” की श्रेणी में रखा गया है।
कथन-II: इंडियन फ्लाइंग फॉक्स अन्य जन्तुओं का रक्त पीता है।
उपरोक्त कथनों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही है?
(a)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की व्याख्या करता है
(b)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं, किंतु कथन-II, कथन-I की व्याख्या नहीं करता है
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-II:
Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Country — Animal found in its natural habitat
1. Brazil — Indri
2. Indonesia — Elk
3. Madagascar — Bonobo
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:
1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which of the following correctly describes "100 Million Farmers"?
(a) It is a bankable, nature-positive driver and a platform to accelerate the transition of food systems that aims to increase farmers' resilience.
(b) It is a network and an international organization of individuals and agricultural organizations to assist and cooperate in the development of global animal husbandry.
(c) It is a digital platform built entirely on agri-food and agri-blockchain with service providers worldwide, which enables buyers, sellers and packagers to trade fertilizers efficiently and securely.
(d) It is a platform that aims to facilitate farmers to access open global markets to sell their agricultural products.
Q: Consider the following:
1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generator
3. Fuel cell
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic unit
How many of the above are considered “distributed energy resources”?
Q: Which one of the following trees exhibits an obligate relationship with an insect that has co-evolved with it and is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
Q: With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II:
Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following activities:
1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
Q: निम्नलिखित में से किनमें हाइड्रोजन का प्रयोग होता है ?
1. रोगियों में मिश्रित ऑक्सीजन डिलिवरी
2. चल वातायुक्त प्रणालियाँ
3. औद्योगिक रासायनिक प्रक्रियाएँ
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत में, नॉन-बैंकिंग वित्तीय कंपनियाँ (NBFCs) द्वारा प्रायोजित परिसंपत्ति पुनर्संरचना कंपनियाँ लाभ कमा सकती हैं।
2. भारत में, विदेशी संस्थागत निवेशक सरकारी प्रतिभूतियों (G-Secs) के धारक बन सकते हैं।
3. भारत में, शेयर बाज़ार (स्टॉक एक्सचेंज) ऋणों के लिए एकीकृत व्यापारिक मंच (ट्रेडिंग प्लेटफॉर्म) प्रदान कर सकते हैं।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/हैं ?
Q: In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following:
1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
Q: With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Economic activity — Sector
1. Storage of agricultural produce — Secondary
2. Dairy farm — Primary
3. Mineral exploration — Tertiary
4. Weaving cloth — Secondary
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following materials:
1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
Q: भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था में भौतिक पूंजी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए:
वस्तु — श्रेणी
1. किसान का हल — कार्यशील पूंजी
2. कंप्यूटर — स्थिर पूंजी
3. कुछ वर्षों प्रयोग किया जाने वाला सूट — स्थिर पूंजी
4. पेट्रोल — कार्यशील पूंजी
उपरोक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द/वाक्यांश का उपयोग “3D आभासी (वर्चुअल) दुनिया के एक इंटरऑपरेबल नेटवर्क, जिसे ऐसे लाखों प्रयोगकर्ताओं द्वारा एक साथ एक्सेस किया जा सकता है, जो आभासी (वर्चुअल) वस्तुओं अथवा संपत्ति के अधिकारों का प्रयोग कर सकते हैं” को सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त रूप से व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है?
Q: विदेशी बैंकों के साथ व्यवहार करते समय भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक द्वारा अधिरोपित नियमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. भारत में पूर्ण स्वामित्व वाले सहायक बैंकें (बैंकिंग सहबद्धियाँ) के लिए कोई न्यूनतम पूंजी की आवश्यकता नहीं है।
2. भारत में पूर्ण स्वामित्व वाले सहायक बैंकों (बैंकिंग सहबद्धियाँ) के लिए, बोर्ड सदस्यों के कम-से-कम 50% भारतीय नागरिक होने चाहिए।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: भारत में निगमित सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व (CSR) नियमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. CSR नियम विनिर्दिष्ट करते हैं कि यदि कंपनी अथवा इसके कर्मचारियों को लाभ पहुँचाने वाले व्यय को CSR गतिविधियों के रूप में नहीं माना जाएगा।
2. CSR नियम CSR कार्यक्रमों पर होने वाले न्यूनतम व्यय को विनिर्दिष्ट नहीं करते हैं।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II:
The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II:
The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Q: निम्नलिखित सूची पर विचार कीजिए :
प्रागैतिहासिक स्थल राज्य विवरण
1. चंद्रकेतुगढ़ ओड़िशा व्यापार बंदरगाह शहर
2. इनामगाँव महाराष्ट्र तात्पाषाण स्थल
3. मुंडु केरल महापाषाण स्थल
4. सालीहुण्ड आंध्र प्रदेश शैलचित्र गुफा मंदिर
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सी युग्मों में दी गई सूचना सही सुमेलित है ?
Q: कॉर्नवालिस द्वारा राजस्व संग्रहण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. राजस्व संग्रहण के देयताबंधी बंदोबस्त के अधीन, किसानों को फसल खराब होने या प्राकृतिक आपदाओं की स्थिति में राज्य भुगतान से छूट दी गई थी।
2. बंगाल स्थायी बंदोबस्त के अधीन, यदि ज़मींदार नियमित रूप से या उसने राज्य को राजस्व का भुगतान करने का प्रबंध रखा, तो उसे उसकी ज़मींदारी दे दी जाती थी।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं ?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. उपनिषदों में कोई नीति-कथा (दन्तकथा) नहीं है।
2. उपनिषदों की रचना पुराणों से भी पहले हुई।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: यूनेस्को (UNESCO) द्वारा जारी विश्व धरोहर सूची में शामिल की गई निम्नलिखित संपदाओं पर विचार कीजिए :
1. शांतिनिकेतन
2. रामी-की-नाव
3. होयसला के पवित्र मंदिर समूह
4. बोधगया स्थित महाबोधि मंदिर परिसर
उपयुक्त में से कितनी संपदाओं को वर्ष 2023 में शामिल किया गया ?
Q: भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 368 के अनुसार, संसद निम्नलिखित में से किनके द्वारा संविधान के किसी उपबंध में संशोधन कर सकती है ?
1. परिवर्तन
2. प्रतिस्थापन
3. विलोपन
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. इटली
2. जापान
3. नाइजीरिया
4. दक्षिण कोरिया
5. दक्षिण अफ्रीका
उपयुक्त में से किन देशों का उल्लेख प्रायः मीडिया में उनकी निम्न जन दर, अथवा वृद्धिंगत जनसंख्या अथवा घटमान जनसंख्या के लिए किया जाता है ?
Q: संसद में धन विधेयक के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं ?
1. अनुच्छेद 109 में धन विधेयक के संबंध में विशेष प्रक्रिया का उल्लेख है।
2. धन विधेयक राज्य सभा में प्रस्तुत/स्थापित नहीं किया जाएगा।
3. राज्य सभा या तो विधेयक को अनुमोदन दे सकती है या परिवर्तन के लिए सुझाव दे सकती है किंतु इसे अस्वीकार नहीं कर सकती।
4. राज्य सभा द्वारा धन विधेयक में सुझाए गए संशोधनों को लोक सभा स्वीकार करना होगा।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?
Army Airforce Navy
1. Brigadier Air Commodore Commander
2. Major General Air Vice Marshal Vice Admiral
3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant Commander
4. Lieutenant Colonel Group Captain Captain
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Party Its Leader
1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev
How many of the above are correctly matched?
Q: भारत के संविधान के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं ?
1. नगरपालिकाओं की शक्तियाँ संविधान के भाग 9-क में दी गई हैं ।
2. आपात उपबंध संविधान के भाग 18 में दिए गए हैं ।
3. संविधान के संशोधनों से संबंधित उपबंध संविधान के भाग 20 में दिए गए हैं ।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: सैन्य कार्य विभाग के प्रमुख के रूप में चीफ ऑफ डिफेंस स्टाफ (CDS) के कर्तव्य कौन-से हैं ?
1. चीफ ऑफ स्टाफ कमेटी के स्थायी अध्यक्ष
2. तीनों सेवा प्रमुखों (सर्विस चीफ) पर सैन्य कमान का प्रयोग करना
3. सभी तीनों सेवाओं (ट्राई-सेविस) के विषयों पर रक्षा मंत्री के प्रमुख सैन्य सलाहकार
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: मूलभूत आवश्यकताओं को पूरा करने सहित दूरस्थ क्षेत्रों में स्थानीय जन-समुदाय के उद्धार के लिए सेना द्वारा संचालित अभियान (ऑपरेशन) को क्या कहा जाता है ?
Q: Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct?
1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. वह राज्य का राज्यपाल है जो उस राज्य के किसी समुदाय को अनुसूचित जनजाति के रूप में मान्यता देता है और घोषित करता है।
2. किसी राज्य में अनुसूचित जनजाति के रूप में घोषित किसी समुदाय के लिए यह आवश्यक नहीं है कि दूसरे राज्य में भी ऐसा हो।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं ?
Q: केंद्रिय बजट (यूनियन बजट) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. प्रधान मंत्री की ओर से केंद्रिय वित्त मंत्री संसद के दोनों सदनों के समक्ष वार्षिक वित्तीय विवरण रखते हैं।
2. केंद्रिय (यूनियन) स्तर पर, भारत के राष्ट्रपति की अनुमति के बिना अनुदानों की माँग नहीं की जा सकती।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा सही है/हैं ?
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :
देश — समाचार में रहने का कारण
1. अर्जेंटीना — सबसे खराब आर्थिक संकट
2. सूडान — देश की विभिन्न जातीय और औद्योगिक वर्गों के मध्य युद्ध
3. तुर्की — NATO की अपनी सदस्यता निरस्त कर दी
उपर्यप्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II:
Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II:
There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II:
In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration,
1. He/she shall not preside.
2. He/she shall have no right to speak.
3. He/she shall have no right to vote on the resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A Bill for which the President has convened a joint sitting of both Houses lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. The President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers to send a message to either House.
2. Prorogation of a House is normally done after it is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar on the President proroguing the House while it is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, except in extraordinary circumstances, on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Recently, the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act.
Statement-II:
The European Union aims to achieve carbon neutrality by the year 2040 and therefore intends to develop its clean technologies by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II:
Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How did the difficulty level of the 2024 Prelims compare with 2023?▼
The 2024 paper was marginally tougher: 35% easy questions versus roughly 40% in 2023, with more multi-statement ‘moderate’ items demanding precise conceptual clarity and current affairs integration.
Which subject contributed the highest number of questions in 2024?▼
Geography and Indian Polity were tied at the top with 18 questions each, reaffirming their status as high-return areas for aspirants.
What is the expected General Studies cut-off for 2024?▼
Given the difficulty mix and past trends, most coaching analysts project a cut-off in the 82–86 range for the general category, though the official figure will depend on the final score distribution.
