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Complete 1999 UPSC CSE Prelims GS1 paper with 150 questions, answers, and detailed explanations. Attempt all questions with show/hide answers, or take the timed quiz.
150
Questions
63
Easy
80
Moderate
7
Difficult
The 1999 UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination continued the late-1990s trend of increasing emphasis on scientific literacy and geographic awareness. Out of 150 questions, a striking 44 (29%) came from Science & Technology, reaffirming the Commission’s preference for multidisciplinary aptitude over pure factual recall. Geography followed with 31 questions, maintaining its traditional weightage, while the Economy section (17 questions) hinted at growing relevance of post-reform macroeconomic issues such as fiscal consolidation and external sector management.
The paper’s difficulty profile was broadly balanced: 63 questions were easy, 80 moderate and only 7 genuinely difficult, making accuracy more important than guesswork. Notably, Indian Polity—usually a high-scoring area—had just 8 questions, and Art & Culture received a generous 10, signalling the beginning of a longer-term shift that would peak in the mid-2000s. Ancient and Medieval History together accounted for only 11 questions, whereas Modern History held steady at 16, focusing on socio-religious reform movements and constitutional developments rather than freedom-struggle minutiae.
Surprises included a clutch of Environment & Ecology questions (6), reflecting the growing global discourse after the 1997 Kyoto Protocol, and a modest 7 questions under Current Affairs, lower than contemporary expectations. Overall, the 1999 paper rewarded candidates who combined conceptual clarity with broad reading, especially in science and geography, while punishing over-specialisation in Polity or History.
| Subject | Questions | Percentage |
|---|---|---|
| Science & Technology | 44 | 29.3% |
| Geography | 31 | 20.7% |
| Indian Economy | 17 | 11.3% |
| Modern History | 16 | 10.7% |
| Art & Culture | 10 | 6.7% |
| Indian Polity | 8 | 5.3% |
| Ancient History | 7 | 4.7% |
| Current Affairs | 7 | 4.7% |
| Environment & Ecology | 6 | 4.0% |
| Medieval History | 4 | 2.7% |
| Total | 150 | 100% |
Q: One consistent feature found in the history of southern India was the growth of small regional kingdoms rather than large empires because of
Q: From the balance sheet of a company, it is possible to
Q: If it is 10.00 a.m. I.S.T., then what would be the local time at Shillong on 92°E longitude?
Q: The Constitution of India recognises
Q: “The king was freed from his people and they from their king”. On whose death did Badauni comment thus?
Q: In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provision?
Q: A ship sailing from the eastern extremity of the Aleutian Islands to Dutch Harbour crosses the 180° meridian at 23.30 hrs on January 1, 1999. What time and date will be recorded by the captain of the ship in his diary after one hour journey from the point of crossing of the meridian?
Q: Consider the following statements: An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the I. Lok Sabha. II. Rajya Sabha. III. State Legislatures. IV. President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: The first venture of Gandhi in all-India politics was the
Q: Persons below the poverty line in India are classified as such based on whether
Q: The term ‘Aryan’ denotes
Q: Consider the following statements: Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent years because 1. there is persistent investment over time only in select locales. 2. some areas are agro-climatically less conducive to development. 3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and economic opportunities. 4. some areas have faced continuous political instability. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Volcanic Mountain) I. Mt. Rainier II. Etna III. Paricutin IV. Taal List II (Country) A. Italy B. Mexico C. Philippines D. USA
Q: Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996: I. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction. II. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha. III. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency. IV. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: The striking feature of the Jama Masjid in Kashmir completed by Zain-ul-Abidin include(s) I. turret. II. similarity with Buddhist pagodas. III. Persian style. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: The Ravva offshore block, with great potential for oil, is located in
Q: In the given map, which one of the following pairs of ocean currents is shown?
Q: Which one of the following statements regarding the levying, collecting and distribution of Income Tax is correct?
Q: The Congress policy of pray and petition ultimately came to an end under the guidance of
Q: Consider the following statements: Industrial development in India, to an extent, is constrained by I. lack of adequate entrepreneurship and leadership in business. II. lack of savings to invest. III. lack of technology, skills and infrastructure. IV. limited purchasing power among the larger masses. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: At which one of the following positions shown in the diagram will the height of the ocean tide be maximum?
Q: Among which one of the following sets of social/religious groups is the extent of poverty the highest, as per Government statistics for the nineties?
Q: Which one of the following ports handled the north Indian trade during the Gupta period?
Q: Tourism industry in India is quite small compared to many other countries in terms of India’s potential and size. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
Q: Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C and D in the given figure of the cyclone, witnesses heavy torrential short-duration rainfall accompanied by thunderstorms?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Q: The Employment Assurance Scheme envisages financial assistance to rural areas for guaranteeing employment to at least
Q: Consider the following temperature and rainfall data: Month Temperature °C Rainfall cm January 6.7 14.0 February 6.7 13.2 March 7.2 11.4 April 8.9 9.4 May 11.1 8.1 June 13.9 8.1 July 15.0 9.6 August 15.0 12.2 September 13.9 10.4 October 11.1 14.4 November 8.9 14.0 December 7.8 16.8 The climate to which this data pertains is
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Persons) I. Shyamji Krishna Varma II. Madame Bhikaji Cama III. Annie Besant IV. Aurobindo Ghosh List II (Journals) A. Bande Mataram B. Indian Sociologist C. The Talwar D. Commonweal Codes:
Q: A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Timber) I. Cedar II. Douglas Fir III. Mahogany IV. Teak List II (Country) A. Myanmar B. Canada C. Mexico D. Honduras Codes:
Q: The first writer to use Urdu as the medium of poetic expression was
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India: I. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India. II. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission. III. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature. IV. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Cotton II. Flax III. Sugar beet IV. Jute List II A. Rainfall 1000-1500 mm; Temperature 40°-60 °C B. Rainfall 1500-2000 mm; Temperature 25°-35 °C C. Rainfall 600-800 mm; Temperature 5°-18 °C D. Rainfall 500-1000 mm; Temperature 18°-22 °C E. Rainfall 500-600 mm; Temperature 18°-22 °C Codes:
Q: The minimum land area recommended for forest cover to maintain proper ecological balance in India is
Q: The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified as
Q: From the third century AD when the Hun invasion ended the Roman Empire, the Indian merchants relied more and more on the
Q: The planning process in the industrial sector in India has assumed a relatively less important position in the nineties as compared to that in the earlier period. Which one of the following is true in this regard?
Q: Which one of the following port cities in Venezuela has been developed as an oil port?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Pandit Vishnu Digamber Paluskar II. Venkatamahi III. Shyama Shastri IV. Amir Khusru List II A. Introduced the scheme of Raga classification of Indian music B. Proponent of Carnatic music C. Proponent of the Khayal form of Hindustani music D. Wrote the music for the song ‘Vande Mataram’ Codes:
Q: There was no independent development of industries in India during British rule because of the
Q: Consider the following statements: Small-scale industries are, in most cases, not as efficient and competitive as the large-scale ones. Yet the Government provides preferential treatment and reservations in a range of products to the small firms because small-scale industries I. provide higher employment on a per unit capital deployment basis. II. promote a regional dispersion of industries and economic activities. III. have performed better in export of manufactured products than the large-scale ones. IV. provide jobs to low skill workers, who otherwise may not find employment avenues elsewhere. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Match the cities labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with the names of cities and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of cities: Names of Cities: 1. Darwin 2. Kuala Lumpur 3. Lagos 4. Nairobi 5. Singapore Codes:
Q: The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India was
Q: The economic crisis in the latter half of 1990s most seriously affected Indonesia, Thailand, Malaysia and South Korea. The cause of the crisis was
Q: A person of mixed European and Indian blood in Latin America is called a
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Libraries) I. Saraswati Mahal Library II. Library of Tibetan Work and Archives III. Raza Library IV. Khuda Baksh Oriental Public Library List II (Locations) A. Patna B. Dharamsala C. Thanjavur D. Rampur Codes:
Q: The following persons came to India at one time or another: I. Fa-Hien II. I-Tsing III. Megasthenes IV. Hieun-Tsang The correct chronological sequence of their visits is:
Q: The main sources of credit to the farmers include
Q: Which one of the countries labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the given map was grantee membership of G-15 in its VII Summit at Kuala Lumpur?
Q: Trans chart is the
Q: To which Lodi Sultan does the given map relate and what town does the site marked A on the map represent?
Q: "India has the largest population of the Asian X. Today, there are just about 20,000 to 25,000 X in their natural habitat spreading across the evergreen forests, dry thorn forests, swamps and grasslands. Their prime habitats are, however, the moist deciduous forests. The X population in India ranges from Northwest India where they are found in the forest divisions of Dehradun, Bijnor and Nainital districts of UP to the Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka and Kerala and in Tamil Nadu. In Central India, their population is distributed in southern Bihar and Orissa. In the East, they are seen in North Bengal, Assam and a few other states." The animal 'X' referred to in this quotation is
Q: Which one of the following statements is not true of the Konkan Railway?
Q: The product life cycle from inception to demise is shown in the graph. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Stage) I. Product Development II. Maturity III. Growth IV. Introduction List II (Zone) (1, 2, 3, 4 as marked in the graph)
Q: The physical regions marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the given map are respectively
Q: The given figure shows a portion of Southern India. The proposed site (Koodankulam) for the construction of two 1000 MW nuclear power plants has been labelled in the map as
Q: 'Abhinav Bharat' a secret society of revolutionaries was organised by
Q: Which one of the following is the objective of National Renewal Fund?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Resorts) I. Chakrata II. Haflong III. Kalimpong IV. Kufri List II (States) A) Assam B) West Bengal C) Uttar Pradesh D) Himachal Pradesh
Q: Consider the following statements about the European Union: I. The European Union was known earlier as the European Community. II. The Single European Act (1986) and the Maastricht Treaty were milestones in its formation. III. Citizens of European Union countries enjoy dual citizenship. IV. Switzerland is a member of the European Union. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Which one of the following was initially the most powerful city state of India in the 6th century B.C.?
Q: In the given figure, the site of the Tehri dam has been labelled as
Q: In which one of the following areas in the given map was there a recent discovery of copper deposits by the Atomic Minerals Division of Department of Atomic Energy?
Q: Which one of the following statements is not correct? Dinar/New dinar is the currency of
Q: Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Q: The most short-lived of all of Britain’s constitutional experiments in India was the
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Industries) I. Pearl fishing II. Automobiles III. Ship-building IV. Engineering goods List II (Industrial Centres) A) Pune B) Tuticorin C) Pinjore D) Marmagao
Q: The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world is
Q: 'Federal Union composed of British provinces.' The above quotation is related to
Q: The Governor General who followed a spirited "Forward" policy towards Afghanistan was
Q: The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, Mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in
Q: Which one of the following pairs of folk-dance forms and states is not correctly matched?
Q: The population growth rate in Kerala is the lowest among major Indian states. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted reason for this?
Q: In order to win the Grand Slam in Tennis, a player must win which one of the following groups of tournaments?
Q: Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the protection of environment?
Q: The Indo-Greek kingdom set up in north Afghanistan in the beginning of the second century BC was
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. WTO II. IDA III. IMF IV. IBRD List II A) Provides loans to address short-term balance of payment problems B) Multi-lateral trade negotiation body C) Sanction of soft loans D) Facilitating lending and borrowings for reconstruction and development
Q: At a time when empires in Europe were crumbling before the might of Napoleon which one of the following Governors-General kept the British flag flying high in India?
Q: Match the areas shown as A, B, C and D on the given map showing the largest religious minorities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list of minorities. Largest Religious Minorities 1. Buddhists 2. Christians 3. Jains 4. Muslims 5. Sikhs
Q: Which one of the following pairs of states and tribes is not correctly matched?
Q: Which Indian nationalist leader looked upon a war between Germany and Britain as a god-sent opportunity which would enable Indians to exploit the situation to their advantage?
Q: As per 1991 Census, which one of the following groups of Union Territories had the highest literacy rate?
Q: In the rough outline map of a part of Jammu and Kashmir shown in the figure, places marked A, B, C and D represent respectively
Q: Which one of the following leaders of the Congress was totally in favour of Cabinet Mission Plan?
Q: In the November 1998 Composite Dialogue Process between India and Pakistan, three contentious issues listed below as 1, 2 and 3 were discussed. Contentious Issues 1. Disengagement of troops 2. Settlement of boundary dispute 3. Sharing River water Match the issues with the areas marked in the map as A, B and C and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Which one of the following Indian leaders was dismissed by the British from the Indian Civil Service?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Writers) I. Sashi Tharoor II. Amitav Ghosh III. Anita Desai IV. Vikram Chandra List II (Books) A) Clear Light of Day B) Circle of Reason C) Love and Longing in Bombay D) Show Business
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Rivers) I. Cauvery II. Krishna III. Narmada IV. Chambal List II (Dams) A) Alamatti B) Mettur C) Gandhi Sagar D) Sardar Sarovar
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Books) I. The First Indian War of Independence II. Anand Math III. Life Divine IV. Sadhana List II (Authors) A) Rabindranath Tagore B) Sri Aurobindo C) Bankim Chandra Chatterji D) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Q: Consider the following events: I. Indigo Revolt II. Santhal Rebellion III. Deccan Riot IV. Mutiny of the Sepoys The correct chronological sequence of these events is:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Year) I. 1775 II. 1780 III. 1824 IV. 1838 List II (Event) A) First Anglo-Burmese War B) First Anglo-Afghan War C) First Anglo-Maratha War D) Second Anglo-Mysore War
Q: Since 1980, the share of the tertiary sector in the total GDP of India has
Q: The term "imperial preference" was applied to the
Q: Assertion (A): During the time of Akbar, for every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdars had to maintain twenty horses. Reason (R): Horses had to be rested while on march and replacements were necessary in times of war.
Q: Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious rebellion since Sepoy Mutiny. Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.
Q: Assertion (A): Devaluation of a currency may promote export. Reason (R): Price of the country's products in the international market may fall due to devaluation.
Q: Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit. Reason (R): Fiscal deficit is the borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India plus other liabilities of the Government to meet its expenditure.
Q: Assertion (A): According to statistics, more female children are born each year than male children in India. Reason (R): In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the female child.
Q: Assertion (A): Information technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in India. Reason (R): Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a very strong base in hardware.
Q: Assertion (A): Chile continues to be an important producer of copper in the world. Reason (R): Chile is endowed with the world’s largest deposit of porphyry copper.
Q: In eye donation, which one of the following parts of donor’s eye is utilised?
Q: Consider the following statement: An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the I. filament wire is not uniform. II. bulb cannot be evacuated completely. III. wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Match the hormones in List I with items in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Adrenaline II. Estrogen III. Insulin IV. Pheromones List II A) Anger, fear, danger B) Attracting partners through sense of smell C) Females D) Glucose Codes:
Q: Neem tree has acquired industrial importance as a source of
Q: Match List I (Drugs / Chemicals) with List II (Their uses) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Atropine II. Ether III. Nitro-glycerine IV. Pyrethrin List II A) Local anaesthesia B) Heart trouble C) Dilation of pupil D) Mosquito control Codes:
Q: Match List I (Naturally occurring substances) with List II (Elements) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Diamond II. Marble III. Sand IV. Ruby List II A) Calcium B) Silicon C) Aluminium D) Carbon Codes:
Q: Which one of the following scholars suggests the earth’s origin from gases and dust particles?
Q: Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of “Terminator Seed Technology” because the seeds produced by this technology are expected to
Q: Consider the following statements regarding a motor car battery: I. The voltage is usually 12 V. II. Electrolyte used is hydrochloric acid. III. Electrodes are lead and copper. IV. Capacity is expressed in ampere-hour. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Match List I (Quantity) with List II (Units) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. High speed II. Wavelength III. Pressure IV. Energy List II A) Mach B) Angstrom C) Pascal D) Joule Codes:
Q: Which one of the following genetic diseases is sex-linked?
Q: For which one of the following is capillarity not the only reason?
Q: Consider the following statements: I. If a person looks at a coin which is in a bucket of water, the coin will appear to be closer than it really is. II. If a person under water looks at a coin above the water surface, the coin will appear to be at a higher level than it really is. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of
Q: Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X-ray examination of the stomach, because
Q: Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other inner parts of the body is based on the phenomenon of
Q: Strips of two metals A and B are firmly joined together as shown in the figure. On heating, A expands more than B does. If this joined strip is heated, then it will appear as:
Q: Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly?
Q: When ants bite, they inject
Q: Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the roots of higher plants?
Q: Which one of the following types of coal contains a higher percentage of carbon than the rest?
Q: Cobalt-60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it emits
Q: Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find application in
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Glass can be etched or scratched by diamond. II. Glass can be etched or scratched by hydrofluoric acid. III. Glass can be etched or scratched by aqua regia. IV. Glass can be etched or scratched by concentrated sulphuric acid. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): To dilute sulphuric acid, acid is added to water and not water to acid. Reason (R): Specific heat of water is quite large.
Q: Assertion (A): Insect-resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene. Reason (R): The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
Q: Assertion (A): Dolly was the first cloned mammal. Reason (R): Dolly was produced by in-vitro fertilization.
Q: In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89, ……… the value of ‘X’ is
Q: On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky are ‘sky’, ‘light’, ‘air’, ‘water’ and ‘earth’ respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
Q: In a business concern, there are four functions, namely, Production (PR), Finance (FN), Personnel (PS) and Marketing (MK). The Customer (C) may also play a role in the prosperity of the concern. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I – Pie Diagram I. II. III. IV. List II – Statement A) Customer is the controlling factor B) Marketing is an integrating factor while customer is the controlling factor C) Marketing is the controlling factor D) Marketing is more important than others E) Marketing is as equal a function as the others Codes: a) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B b) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-E d) I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A
Q: The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25% more than that of the return journey. The train halts for one hour on reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to-and-fro journey is 17 hours covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey is
Q: In a town 25% families own a phone and 15% own a car. 65% families own neither a phone nor a car. 2000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the following statements in this regard: I. 10% families own both a car and a phone. II. 35% families own either a car or a phone. III. 40,000 families live in the town. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: The yield versus fertilizer input is shown in the graph. Consider the following statements based on this graph: I. Yield rate is zero at B and C. II. There is no yield with no fertilizer input. III. The yield is minimum at D. IV. The yield is neither minimum nor maximum at C. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: In a code language, ‘SOLID’ is written as “WPSLIMFHA’. What does the code word ‘ATEXXQIBVO’ refer to?
Q: A company manufacturing air-conditioners has set a monthly target. The target and realised values are shown in the bar chart. Consider the following statements based on the chart: I. The targeted sales on a monthly basis have been achieved. II. The overall target value has been exceeded by 7.5%. III. The Sales Department deserves a pat on the back. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: In a group of five people—K, L and M are ambitious; M, N and R are honest; L, M and N are intelligent and K, N and R are industrious. Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious person(s) would include
Q: A man is standing on the 8 m long shadow of a 6 m long pole. If the length of his shadow is 2.4 m, what is the height of the man?
Q: If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2, then the triangle
Q: The surface area of a spherical dome-shaped roof of a cylindrical water tank shown in the figure is
Q: If X + 2Y = 2X + Y, then X² / Y² is equal to
Q: A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with a beverage. The contents of the bowl are transferred into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is the same for both bowl and cylinder, then the volume of the beverage in the cylindrical vessel will be
Q: A hunter aims his gun at a point between the eyebrows of a monkey sitting on a branch of a tree. Just as he fires, the monkey jumps down. The bullet will
Q: In an office, the distribution of work hours is as shown in the following table: No. of Staff Members | No. of hours worked 5 | 0 – 19 12 | 20 – 24 25 | 25 – 29 40 | 30 – 34 15 | 35 – 39 8 | 40 – 45 Consider the following inferences drawn from the table: I. The average number of hours worked by a staff member is about 30. II. The percentage of those who worked 35 or more hours is less than 25. III. At least 5 staff members worked more than 44 hours. Which of these inferences is/are valid?
Q: In a factory, a quality-assurance test is conducted on various samples for a specific characteristic value of the product. The values and the number of samples are as given in the following table (table not reproduced here). Consider the following statements based on the table: I. The probability that X = 15 is 0.64. II. The probability that 13 < X = 17 is greater than 0.64. III. The probability that X = 15 is less than 0.22. Which of the above statements is/are NOT true?
Q: At a given time, two players are standing on a play-field. The cartesian coordinates of their locations are (20, 60) and (-40, -20) units. What is the distance between the players?
Q: The area of an ellipse is twice that of a circle. The major diameter of the ellipse is twice that of the minor diameter. The radius of the circle is
Q: Amar, Akbar and Anthony are friends, being looked after by a matron Farah. Amar weighs 50% more than Akbar and Anthony weigh 25% less than Amar. Farah weighs a third of the combined weight of the three boys. All four together weigh 232 kg. The correct arrangement of the persons in the ascending order of their weights is
The overall difficulty was moderate. While 42% of the questions were classified as easy, the large number of moderate-level questions (53%) meant that cut-off marks did not fall dramatically compared to 1998. Candidates with balanced preparation found it manageable.
The late 1990s saw rapid technological advances—from IT boom to nuclear and space milestones—which UPSC mirrored in its syllabus. The Commission tested conceptual understanding of everyday science, biotechnology and space programmes rather than deep theoretical physics.
Even with only 8 questions, Polity remained high-yield because of its usually high accuracy rate. Smart aspirants maintained their regular polity routine but allocated extra revision time to Geography and Science, the two dominant sections in 1999.
