Loading...
Complete 2000 UPSC CSE Prelims GS1 paper with 149 questions, answers, and detailed explanations. Attempt all questions with show/hide answers, or take the timed quiz.
149
Questions
64
Easy
80
Moderate
5
Difficult
The 2000 UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination presented an eclectic mix of questions, yet retained the classic GS-I texture that characterised the pre-CSAT era. With 149 questions spread across ten broad subject areas, the paper rewarded both width and depth of preparation. Science & Technology dominated the landscape (54 questions, c. 36%), reaffirming the then-prevailing UPSC trend of testing factual scientific literacy—ranging from basic physics numericals to contemporary biotechnology. Geography (22) and Indian Economy (22) jointly formed the second pillar, reflecting the Commission’s emphasis on physical geography and the post-1991 reform discourse.
The difficulty profile skewed towards the approachable: 64 items could be cracked through foundational textbooks and routine newspaper reading, while 80 landed in the moderate bracket, usually demanding conceptual clarity plus one additional layer of fact. Only 5 items qualified as genuinely difficult—typically obscure medieval history references or tricky environment questions with near-similar options. A striking feature was the relatively lean share of Current Affairs (6), a contrast to later years where CA often crosses double digits; aspirants in 2000 therefore faced fewer surprises from the year’s headline events.
Notable patterns included: (i) a surprise revival of Ancient & Medieval History (a combined 10 questions) after their relative neglect in the late 1990s, (ii) minimal Environment & Ecology weightage despite global focus on sustainability post-Rio+10, and (iii) a policy-heavy Polity section that omitted any question on Fundamental Duties, a staple in adjacent years. Overall, the 2000 paper rewarded steady NCERT-based preparation, judicious newspaper notes, and a sound grasp of basic science—making it a balanced yet slightly science-tilted examination.
| Subject | Questions | Percentage |
|---|---|---|
| Science & Technology | 54 | 36.2% |
| Indian Economy | 22 | 14.8% |
| Geography | 22 | 14.8% |
| Modern History | 16 | 10.7% |
| Indian Polity | 11 | 7.4% |
| Current Affairs | 6 | 4.0% |
| Art & Culture | 6 | 4.0% |
| Ancient History | 5 | 3.4% |
| Medieval History | 5 | 3.4% |
| Environment & Ecology | 2 | 1.3% |
| Total | 149 | 100% |
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Development Programme II. National Council of Applied Economic Research III. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research IV. World Bank List II A) UN India Human Development Report B) India Development Report C) World Development Report D) Human Development Report Codes:
Q: “...instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative performance....” The above passage relates to
Q: The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
Q: While delivering the presidential address, the Congress President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi language was
Q: Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India: I. He is appointed by the President of India. II. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court. III. He must be a member of either House of Parliament. IV. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Along which one of the following meridians did India experience the first light of the sunrise of the new millennium?
Q: The Standing Committee of State Finance Ministers recommended in January 2000 uniform rates across the States in respect of
Q: At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of the British India came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence?
Q: Consider the following functionaries: I. Cabinet Secretary II. Chief Election Commissioner III. Union Cabinet Ministers IV. Chief Justice of India Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
Q: The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
Q: The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing. II. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely. III. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours. IV. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Indian Human Development Report does not give for each sample village
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Oceanic Trench) I. Aleutian II. Kermadec III. Sunda IV. S. Sandwich List II (Location) A) Indian Ocean B) North Pacific Ocean C) South Pacific Ocean D) South Atlantic Ocean Codes:
Q: The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain-child of
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Institute) I. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies II. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research III. National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences IV. Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages List II (Location) A) Hyderabad B) Mumbai C) Bangalore D) Dharamshala E) Varanasi Codes:
Q: Economic liberalisation in India started with
Q: The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by the
Q: Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress: I. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the Congress. II. C. R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the Congress. III. The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was Alan Octavian Hume. IV. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match the drainage basins labelled as A, B, C and D with the names listed below and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the drainage basins. Names of drainage basins: 1. Ganga Brahmaputra 2. Indus 3. Parana 4. Zambezi Codes:
Q: The Raga which is sung early in the morning is
Q: Gilt-edged market means
Q: Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander's invasion?
Q: Match the international events listed below with their respective places labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list: International Events: A. Venue of Commonwealth Conference held in 1999. B. Venue of World Trade Organisation meeting held in 1999. C. Place of Israel–Syria Peace talks held in January 2000. D. Place of military action by Russian troops in January 2000. Codes:
Q: To reach the final of first Grand Slam of the year 2000, Martina Hingis defeated
Q: The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana which came into operation from 1 December 1997 aims to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed or underemployed poor but does not include
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the Chakiarkoothu form of dance: I. It is performed by Chakiar caste. II. It cannot be traditionally witnessed by the higher caste Hindus. III. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument. IV. Its theatre form is called koothambalam. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Minerals) I. Mineral oil II. Copper III. Manganese IV. Bauxite List II (Major producer) A) Zambia B) Guyana C) Venezuela D) Gabon Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements: The Indian rupee is fully convertible I. in respect of Current Account of Balance of Payment. II. in respect of Capital Account of Balance of Payment. III. into gold. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Who among the following streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji?
Q: Match List I (Books) with List II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. My Music, My Life II. Adha Gaon III. Radha IV. The Pilferer List II A) Laxman Gaikwad B) Rahi Masoom Raza C) Ramakanta Rath D) Ravi Shankar Codes:
Q: Which one of the following is known as the “Coffee port” of the world?
Q: Resurgent India Bonds were issued in US Dollar, Pound Sterling and
Q: At which one of the cities labelled as A, B, C and D on the given map of Europe was the historic treaty between NATO and Warsaw Pact countries signed in 1998?
Q: Match List I (Power generation plant) with List II (Feed material) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra Pradesh II. M/s KM. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh III. M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab IV. M/s Al Kabeer Exports Limited, Andhra Pradesh List II A) Rice husk B) Slaughter-house waste C) Distillery spent wash D) Black liquor Codes:
Q: The given map refers to the kingdom of
Q: Consider the following events: I. Reign of Krishna Deva Raya of Vijayanagara. II. Construction of Qutab Minar. III. Arrival of Portuguese in India. IV. Death of Firoz Tughlaq. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
Q: The given map shows locations of airports labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. What is the correct sequence of the airports in which the hijacked Indian Airlines plane IC-814 landed after its initial take-off from Kathmandu in December 1999?
Q: Consider the following statements: The Ministerial Meeting of the WTO held in December 1999 was unsuccessful because it attempted to link trade with 1. labour related issues. 2. environment related issues. 3. terrorism related issues. 4. debt related issues. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Artist) I. Balamurali Krishna II. Mita Pandit III. Kanyakumari IV. Nikhil Bannerjee List II (Medium of music delivery) A) Hindustani vocal B) Ghatam C) Sitar D) Violin E) Carnatic vocal Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Iqta II. Jagir III. Amaram IV. Mokasa List II A) Marathas B) Delhi Sultans C) Mughals D) Vijayanagara Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements about the “Roaring Forties”: I. They blow uninterrupted in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. II. They blow with great strength and constancy. III. Their direction is generally from North-West to East in the Southern Hemisphere. IV. Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are generally associated with them. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
Q: Consider the following provinces of former Yugoslavia: I. Bosnia II. Croatia III. Slovenia IV. Yugoslavia The correct sequence of these provinces from the east to the west is
Q: Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the ‘Jagadguru’ by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in secularism?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Local bodies) (States as in 1999) I. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level II. Mandal Praja Parishad III. Tribal Councils IV. Absence of Village Panchayats List II A) Andhra Pradesh B) Assam C) Mizoram D) Meghalaya Codes:
Q: Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Q: Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda?
Q: The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher than that of per capita income at constant prices, because the latter takes into account the rate of
Q: “In this instance we could not play off the Mohammedans against the Hindus”. To which one of the following events did this remark of Aitchison relate?
Q: The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1-12-1999: “...Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30. The National Assembly was split between liberal, pro-government and Shiite Muslim deputies who were in favour of women’s rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs. A total of 64 MPs and Ministers were present, of whom two abstained.” The Parliament referred to in this quotation is that of
Q: Which one of the following statements is not true?
Q: The upper part of the graph is a hypothetical movement in the BSE Sensex over a few months and the lower part is the fluctuation in the average value of automobile shares in the same period (actual values not given). Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the graphs?
Q: The first Indian State to have its Human Development Report prepared and released by Amartya Kumar Sen in Delhi is
Q: Consider the following statements about the megacities of India: I. Population of each megacity is more than 5 million. II. All the megacities are important sea ports. III. Megacities are either national or State capitals. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
Q: Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935?
Q: The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane producing States in India is
Q: Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
Q: The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in
Q: Match the cities labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map with the names of the institutes located in these cities and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the institutes. Names of Institutes A) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute B) Central Sheep Breeding Farm C) National Dairy Research Institute D) National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management Codes:
Q: A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means
Q: The new Gross Domestic Product (GDP) series released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in February 1999 is with reference to base price of
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Maharashtra has the highest acreage under jawar in India. II. Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India. III. Rajasthan has the largest area of cultivable wastelands in India. IV. Andhra Pradesh has the highest per hectare yield of maize in India. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: The last major extension of British Indian territory took place during the time of
Q: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Industrial Unit) I. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd. II. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. III. Indian Farmers Fertilisers Cooperative Ltd. IV. National Aluminium Company Ltd. List II (Centre) A) Bangalore B) Bhubaneswar C) Kalol D) Sonepat Codes:
Q: The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the
Q: Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with the names of those ports and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the ports: Names of Ports: 1. Kakinada 2. Karwar 3. Mangalore 4. Tuticorin 5. Veraval Codes:
Q: As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he
Q: Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest tonnage of import cargo?
Q: The native State of Tripura became involved in the Freedom Movement early in the 20th century because
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Boom II. Recession III. Depression IV. Recovery List II A) Business activity at high level with increasing income, output and employment at macro level B) Gradual fall of income, output and employment with business activity in a low gear C) Unprecedented level of under employment and unemployment, drastic fall in income, output and employment D) Steady rise in the general level of prices, income, output and employment Codes:
Q: Match the different ports of Union Territory of Pondicherry labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with their respective names and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list of ports: List (Ports of Pondicherry): 1. Karaikal 2. Mahe 3. Pondicherry 4. Yanam Codes:
Q: That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20 in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first time by
Q: Which one of the following pairs of primitive tribes and places of their inhabitation is not correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following statements about the megacities of India: I. Population of each megacity is more than 5 million. II. All the megacities are important sea ports. III. Megacities are either national or State capitals. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is false?
Q: The best performance in terms of Human Development among the Asian countries is by
Q: After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Chittagong Armoury Raid II. Abhinav Bharat III. Anushilan Samiti IV. Kuka Movement List II A) Kalpana Dutt B) Guru Ram Singh C) Vikram Damodar Savarkar D) Aurobindo Ghosh Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I – Land system I. Land allotted to big feudal landlords II. Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors III. Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage, transfer, gift or sell IV. Revenue settlements made at village level List II A) Jagirdari System B) Ryotwari System C) Mahalwari System D) Zamindari System Codes:
Q: Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in the “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum?
Q: Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious revolt after the Sepoy mutiny. Reason (R): Peasants joined the movement in large number in some places.
Q: Assertion (A): The Aham and Puram poems of the Padinen Kilukanakku group formed a continuation of the Sangam composition. Reason (R): They were included under the Post-Sangam works as against the Sangam works proper.
Q: Assertion (A): In Australia, cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk. Reason (R): Australians are traditionally non-vegetarians.
Q: Assertion (A): The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased during the last couple of decades. Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.
Q: Assertion (A): The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable increase after 1991. Reason (R): The Government of India has resorted to devaluation.
Q: Assertion (A): Ganga Plain is the most densely populated part of India. Reason (R): Ganga is the most harnessed river of India.
Q: Assertion (A): The emphasis of Jainism on non-violence (ahimsa) prevented agriculturalists from embracing Jainism. Reason (R): Cultivation involved killing of insects and pests.
Q: Assertion (A): The origin of feudal system in ancient India can be traced to military campaigns. Reason (R): There was considerable expansion of the feudal system during the Gupta period.
Q: Assertion (A): Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan Empire. Reason (R): Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes to South India.
Q: Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its narrow social base. Reason (R): It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups which joined it.
Q: In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is: (C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Government Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively.)
Q: Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set?
Q: A noise level of 100 decibels would correspond to
Q: A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out. This property is due to its
Q: The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of
Q: Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars: I. Radial tyres II. Streamlined body III. Multipoint fuel injection IV. Catalytic converter with exhaust Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fuel-efficient?
Q: Fluorescent tubes are fitted with a choke. The choke coils
Q: For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a
Q: When a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and video systems) is seen in sunlight, rainbow-like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of the phenomenon of
Q: Assertion (A): A man standing on a completely frictionless surface can propel himself by whistling. Reason (R): If no external force acts on a system, its momentum cannot change.
Q: Assertion (A): In a motion picture, usually 24 frames are projected every second over the whole length of the film. Reason (R): An image formed on the retina of eye persists for about 0.1 s after the removal of stimulus.
Q: Assertion (A): Small glass beads fixed on traffic signals glow brightly when light falls upon them. Reason (R): Light is totally reflected when the angle of incidence exceeds a certain critical value and light travelling in a denser medium is reflected back into a rarer medium.
Q: The stones formed in human kidney consist mostly of
Q: Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. German Silver II. Solder III. Bleaching Powder IV. Hypo List II A) Tin B) Nickel C) Sodium D) Chlorine Codes:
Q: Which one of the following materials is very hard and very ductile?
Q: Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantities of
Q: Aluminium surfaces are often “anodized”. This means the deposition of a layer of
Q: A small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel
Q: Match List I (Industrial processes) with List II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Cracking II. Smelting III. Hydrogenation IV. Vulcanization List II A) Rubber B) Petroleum C) Copper D) Edible fats Codes:
Q: Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons. Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquified at ambient temperatures at low pressures.
Q: Which one of the following organisms can serve as a biofertilizer for rice crop?
Q: At which stage in its life-cycle does the silkworm yield the fibre of commerce?
Q: Match List I (Diseases) with List II (Types of disease) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Haemophilia II. Diabetes III. Diabetes IV. Ringworm List II A) Deficiency disease B) Genetic disease C) Hormonal disorder D) Fungal infection Codes:
Q: The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as
Q: Phytotron is a facility to
Q: Match List I (Endocrine glands) with List II (Hormones secreted) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Gonads II. Pituitary III. Pancreas IV. Adrenal List II A) Insulin B) Progesterone C) Growth hormones D) Cortisone Codes:
Q: Insect resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an
Q: Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of
Q: The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is caused by
Q: Consider the following statements: Hard water is not suitable for I. drinking. II. washing clothes with soap. III. use in boilers. IV. irrigating crops. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the
Q: Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called
Q: Assertion (A): In human beings, the females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring. Reason (R): Women have two ‘X’ chromosomes.
Q: Assertion (A): “DNA Finger-printing” has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. Reason (R): Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.
Q: A rectangular water tank measures 15 m × 6 m at top and is 10 m deep. It is full of water. If water is drawn out lowering the level by 1 metre, how much of water has been drawn out?
Q: An accurate clock shows 8 o’clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o’clock in the afternoon?
Q: The monthly income of Komal and Asha are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, both save Rs. 600 per month. What is their total monthly income?
Q: If X = –2, then X³ – X² – X – 1 is equal to
Q: In the given figure, all line segments of the shaded portion are of the same length and at right angles to each other. The same can be cut out of a board of side 10 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion?
Q: Consider the following pictures of a dice: What is the number opposite of 3?
Q: Examine the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. I. The number of males equals that of females. II. A and E are sons of F. III. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. IV. B is the son of A. V. There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?
Q: The given diagram shows the number of students who failed in an examination comprising papers in English, Hindi and Mathematics. The total number of students who took the test is 500. What is the percentage of students who failed in at least two subjects?
Q: In a certain code, MARCH is written as OCTEJ. How is RETURN written in that code?
Q: A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting in six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F. C is opposite D. D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following must be true?
Q: In a class there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these boys constitute three fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two third of the number of students in the class, then what is the number of girls in the class?
Q: A rectangular piece of iron sheet measuring 50 cm by 100 cm is rolled into a cylinder of height 50 cm. If the cost of painting the cylinder is Rs. 50 per square metre, then what will be the cost of painting the outer surface of the cylinder?
Q: A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blind-folded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?
Q: Which one of the following has a greater perimeter than the rest?
Q: In the given figure, angle QOP = 30° and angle ORP = 20°, angle QOR is equal to
Q: A club has 108 members. Two-thirds of them are men and the rest are women. All members are married except for 9 women members. How many married women are there in the club?
Q: The following figure represents time vs. learning curves of two students, Q and R, for learning a Mathematics lesson. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the graph?
Q: A goat is tied to two poles P and Q with ropes that are 15-metre long. P and Q are 20 metres apart as shown in the given diagram. Which one of the following shaded portions indicates the total area over which the goat can graze?
Q: A person starts from a point A and travels 3 km eastwards to B and then turns left and travels thrice that distance to reach C. He again turns left and travels five times the distance he covered between A and B and reaches his destination D. The shortest distance between the starting point and destination is
Q: The distribution of 1,00,000 tourists who visited India during a particular year is shown in the given charts. Based on this, the number of Japanese tourists below the age of 39 who visited India in the year concerned is
Q: What is the maximum number of pieces of 5 cm × 5 cm × 10 cm cake that can be cut from a big cake of 5 cm × 30 cm × 30 cm size?
Not significantly. With only 5 out of 149 questions rated ‘difficult’ and a majority falling in the easy-to-moderate range, most serious aspirants found the 2000 paper comparable—or marginally easier—than the 1998 and 1999 editions.
Before the CSAT restructuring, UPSC often used Science & Technology to differentiate candidates. In 2000, advances like the Human Genome Project and burgeoning IT sector prompted the Commission to frame many applied science questions, causing the section to balloon to 54 questions.
While only 6 questions came from Current Affairs in 2000, the weightage has risen sharply in subsequent years. Aspirants should not benchmark their CA preparation solely on this paper; instead, current trends (15–20% weight) should guide study plans.
