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355 questions across 12 sub-topics. Practice all Environment & Ecology PYQs with detailed explanations, or explore specific sub-topics below.
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Environment & Ecology has emerged as a high-return segment in the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. From climate change debates to local biodiversity management, questions test not only factual recall but also the candidate’s ability to connect current affairs with static ecological principles. Between 1995 and 2025, the UPSC has asked 368 Environment & Ecology questions, accounting for nearly 20 % of the GS Paper I. A granular analysis of these previous year questions (PYQs) reveals clear patterns that every aspirant must exploit.
The most asked sub-topic is Protected Areas & Wildlife (49 questions). UPSC frequently checks familiarity with national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves, tiger reserves, and their IUCN categories. Equally weighty is Ecosystems & Ecology Concepts (48) where terms such as ecological succession, edge effect, Ramsar criteria, and trophic levels dominate. Biodiversity & Conservation (45) intertwines with both these areas, demanding knowledge of endemic species, hotspot criteria, and community-based conservation models.
Pollution & Waste Management (41) and International Environmental Treaties & Summits (40) illustrate UPSC’s dual focus on domestic regulation and global environmental diplomacy. New-age topics—plastic pollution, e-waste rules, Kigali Amendment, and Paris Agreement—appear almost every alternate year. Complementing them are questions on Environmental Governance & Legislation (35) involving the Wildlife Protection Act, Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), and National Green Tribunal (NGT).
Climate-centric themes are consolidated under Climate Change & Greenhouse Gases (32) and the rapidly growing Renewable Energy & Green Technologies (18). Expect numerical data on India’s solar capacity, hydrogen mission, or nationally determined contributions (NDCs). Sustainable Agriculture & Forestry (31) and Water & Wetland Conservation (21) round off the list, reflecting India’s policy push for organic farming, agro-forestry, and Ramsar site expansion.
Strategically, preparation must rest on three pillars: (1) PYQ-centric revision—solve all 368 questions to identify recurring frameworks; (2) dynamic-static integration—map current affairs articles onto static sub-topics, e.g., link a recent cheetah translocation story with IUCN reintroduction guidelines; and (3) visual memory aids—use India maps for protected areas, flowcharts for ecological cycles, and tabulated treaty summaries.
Smart study hacks include: learning geographical north-to-south or east-to-west sequences of sanctuaries (UPSC’s favorite); tracking MoEF&CC annual reports for updated statistics; and committing to short daily revisions of Glossary of Environment & Ecology terms. Aspirants should also align preparation with flagship schemes like NAMAMI Gange, National Clean Air Programme, and LiFE Mission because UPSC tends to pick fresh policy initiatives.
In essence, Environment & Ecology offers a scoring edge if tackled methodically. Drill the high-frequency areas, stay alert to environmental news, and keep cross-referencing PYQs to ensure that every hour spent converts into prelims marks.
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree ?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
Q: With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: "Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?
Q: Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
Q: In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? 1. Fern 2. Lichen 3. Moss 4. Mushroom Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following kinds of organisms: 1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria 3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
Q: Consider the following animals: 1. Hedgehog 2. Marmot 3. Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organism/organisms rolls up and protects its/their vulnerable parts?
Q: Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
Q: Which of the following are detritivores? 1. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish 3. Millipedes 4. Seahorses 5. Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: "Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees." This is the most likely description of
Q: The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions? 1. Burrowing animals and termites 2. Fire 3. Grazing herbivores 4. Seasonal rainfall 5. Soil properties Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
Q: In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
Q: Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?
Q: If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds? 1. Painted Stork 2. Common Myna 3. Black-necked Crane Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following have coral reefs? 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Gulf of Kachchh 3. Gulf of Mannar 4. Sunderbans Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
Q: In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
Q: With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements: 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. 2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species. 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
Q: With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms? 1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests? 1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy 2. Coexistence of a large number of species 3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves or no leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Consider the following kinds of organisms: 1. Bat 2. Bee 3. Bird Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
Q: The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is a supporting service?
Q: What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason? 1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected. 2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected. 3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the 1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface, 2. Nutrients to the surface, 3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
Q: Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways: 1. Soil formation 2. Prevention of soil erosion 3. Recycling of waste 4. Pollination of crops Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean. 2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why ?
Q: In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
Q: King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?
Q: Consider the following names : 1. Ike 2. Kate 3. Gustav Which of the above are the names of hurricanes that had occurred very recently ?
Q: For which one of the following snakes is the diet mainly composed of other snakes?
Q: The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which one of the following countries?
Q: Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farm-land that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers. Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.
Q: Which one of the following animals is monogamous?
Q: A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of
Q: Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called
Q: Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the roots of higher plants?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
Q: Consider the following plants : 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family ?
Q: The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:
Q: Consider the following: 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
Q: Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
Q: With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following is not a bird ?
Q: With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are
Q: Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
Q: The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
Q: Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC) : 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Q: What is/are unique about 'Kharai camel', a breed found in India? 1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater. 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves. 3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?
Q: With reference to 'Red Sanders', sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India. 2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’?
Q: With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal. 2. It is found along the entire coast of India. 3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Q: Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
Q: Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins? 1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally 4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following animals: 1. Sea cow 2. Sea horse 3. Sea lion Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
Q: In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat? 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala 3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Consider the following fauna of India: 1. Gharial 2. Leatherback turtle 3. Swamp deer Which of the above is/are endangered?
Q: Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant? 1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification. 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel. 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes. 4. Its timber is of great commercial value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
Q: What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
Q: Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area? 1. Global warming 2. Fragmentation of habitat 3. Invasion of alien species 4. Promotion of vegetarianism Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: Consider the following agricultural practices :
Q: Vultures, which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago, are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
Q: Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: 1. Species richness 2. Vegetation density 3. Endemism 4. Ethno-botanical importance 5. Threat perception 6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
Q: The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?
Q: Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?
Q: The "Red Data Books" published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of 1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots. 2. Threatened plant and animal species. 3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. 2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions. 2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas. 2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book. 3. A drug called “taxol” is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an
Q: Consider the following regions: 1. Eastern Himalayas 2. Eastern Mediterranean region 3. North-western Australia Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?
Q: The Panda belongs to the same family as that of
Q: Among the following, which one is not an ape?
Q: Consider the following animals of India: 1. Crocodile 2. Elephant Which of these is/are endangered species?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans. 2. The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating bird. Which one of the following was that bird?
Q: Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an 'ecological hot spot'?
Q: Ecologists have so far found and certified a large number of species in the plant and animal kingdoms. In terms of members, the largest group identified so far is among the
Q: Consider the following pairs: Country — Animal found in its natural habitat 1. Brazil — Indri 2. Indonesia — Elk 3. Madagascar — Bonobo How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following statements : Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements : 1. The leader of an elephant group is a female. 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. 3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only. 4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin ? 1. Nagarhole National Park 2. Papikonda National Park 3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve 4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q: Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous 2
Q: Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? 1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Gangotri National Park 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to India's Desert National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
Q: Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following are in Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve?
Q: Consider the following pairs: Wildlife — Naturally found in 1. Blue-finned Mahseer — Cauvery River 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin — Chambal River 3. Rusty-spotted Cat — Eastern Ghats Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
Q: From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
Q: The term 'M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Q: Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
Q: In which of the following regions of India are you “most likely” to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
Q: 'Gadgil Committee Report' and 'Kasturirangan Committee Report', sometimes seen in the news, are related to
Q: Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
Q: Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
Q: Consider the following pairs : 1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram 2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim 3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Q: The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
Q: Consider the following: 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey Which of the above are naturally found in India?
Q: Consider the following pairs: 1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills 2. Loktak Lake : Barail Range 3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following pairs: National Park : River flowing through the Park 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga 2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas 3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following protected areas: 1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika 3. Manas 4. Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
Q: Consider the following : 1. Black-necked crane 2. Cheetah 3. Flying squirrel 4. Snow leopard Which of the above are naturally found in India?
Q: Two important rivers – one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha – merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?
Q: A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal ?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna. 3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following pairs: Protected area — Well-known for 1. Bhitarkanika, Orissa — Salt Water Crocodile 2. Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard 3. Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolak Gibbon Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have been recognized on the World Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them?
Q: Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
Q: Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?
Q: Which of the following is located in the Bastar region?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. In India, Red Panda is naturally found in the western Himalaya only. 2. In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense forests of the North-East. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Where is Bundala Biosphere Reserve which has been recently added to the UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) network, located?
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (National Park/Wild-life Sanctuary) (A) Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary (B) Kangerghat National Park (C) Orang Sanctuary (D) Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary List II (State) 1. Orissa 2. Assam 3. Chhattisgarh 4. Goa 5. Tripura
Q: Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range. 2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park. 3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India. 2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India. Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Match List I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (A) Kanger Ghati National Park (B) Nagerhole National Park (C) Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary (D) Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary List II 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Haryana 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Karnataka Codes: A B C D
Q: Match List I (Biosphere Reserve) with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (A) Simlipal (B) Dehong Deband (C) Nokrek (D) Kanchenjunga List II 1. Sikkim 2. Uttaranchal 3. Arunachal Pradesh 4. Orissa 5. Meghalaya Codes:
Q: "India has the largest population of the Asian X. Today, there are just about 20,000 to 25,000 X in their natural habitat spreading across the evergreen forests, dry thorn forests, swamps and grasslands. Their prime habitats are, however, the moist deciduous forests. The X population in India ranges from Northwest India where they are found in the forest divisions of Dehradun, Bijnor and Nainital districts of UP to the Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka and Kerala and in Tamil Nadu. In Central India, their population is distributed in southern Bihar and Orissa. In the East, they are seen in North Bengal, Assam and a few other states." The animal 'X' referred to in this quotation is
Q: The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, Mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in
Q: Which one of the following does not belong to biosphere reserves set up so far?
Q: Consider the following statements : Statement-I : According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA). 2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act. 3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds? 1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution of groundwater 3. Lowering of the water-table Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q: Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’? 1. River basin is the unit of planning and management. 2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level. 3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to a conservation organization called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? 1. Prevention of soil runoff 2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 5. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements : 1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States. 2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon? 1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries. 2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon. 3. Upwelling in the seas. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?
Q: In India, which one of the following States has the largest inland saline wetland?
Q: Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
Q: Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan) has become famous because of
Q: Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a pigmented dinoflagellate. These blooms are called
Q: Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands of weeds and decaying vegetation held together by suspended silt. These islands are called
Q: The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of
Q: Assertion (A): Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts. Reason (R): They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark against encroachments by sea. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Q: Physico-chemical characteristics of water in water sources undergo changes due to
Q: “Monoculture of commercially viable trees is destroying the unique natural profile of ……… Thoughtless exploitation of timber, deforesting vast tracts for palm cultivation, destruction of mangroves, illegal logging by tribals and poaching only compound the problem. Fresh water pockets are fast drying up due to deforestation and destruction of mangroves.” The place referred to in this quotation is
Q: One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
Q: Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: Consider the following activities : 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
Q: Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
Q: What is blue carbon?
Q: The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for
Q: Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the
Q: In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
Q: Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?
Q: In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following pairs: Terms sometimes seen in the news — Their origin 1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena Protocol 2. Certified Emissions Reductions : Nagoya Protocol 3. Clean Development Mechanism : Kyoto Protocol Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Q: Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of 'Green India Mission' of the Government of India? 1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the 'green accounting' 2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future 3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: What is 'Greenhouse Gas Protocol'?
Q: The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above the pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world? 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source. 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements regarding 'Earth Hour': 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. 2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year. 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country? 1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water. 2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water. 3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India. 4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw ground-water will be completely reimbursed by the Government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? 1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected. 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected. 3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected. 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
Q: Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Q: Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable? 1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane. 2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future ? 1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available. 2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and development. 3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere : 1. Soot 2. Sulphur hexafluoride 3. Water vapour Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere ?
Q: In the context of CO₂ emission and Global Warming, what is the name of a market-driven device under the UNFCCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ?
Q: The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following ?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Rice fields 2. Coal mining 3. Domestic animals 4. Wetlands Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms. 2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming?
Q: With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements: 1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II : Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
Q: According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions ?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution : 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements : 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district. 3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
Q: ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
Q: Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? 1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment. 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment. 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements: 1. It is a product of oil refineries. 2. Some industries use it to generate power. 3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? 1. Brakes of motor vehicles 2. Engines of motor vehicles 3. Microwave stoves within homes 4. Power plants 5. Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
Q: In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide 3. Nitrogen dioxide 4. Sulfur dioxide 5. Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction. 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete. 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.
Q: Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use? 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India? 1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? 1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonium Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
Q: Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
Q: Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning? 1. Smelting units 2. Pens and pencils 3. Paints 4. Hair oils and cosmetics Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used 1. In the production of plastic foams 2. In the production of tubeless tyres 3. In cleaning certain electronic components 4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
Q: The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?
Q: A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop – Rat – Snake – Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
Q: Consider the following: 1. Oxides of Hydrogen 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?
Q: Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid rain. Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when the coal burns.
Q: Which one of following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?
Q: Which one of the following organisms is likely to show the highest concentration of DDT once it has been introduced into the ecosystem?
Q: “The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970…. areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war’s end, it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human beings, something it never intended to do. The apparent toxic fall-out from those clouds ... is a crop of human miseries including cancers, miscarriages and birth defects — that may persist for decades.” The offensive substance referred to in the above quotation is
Q: Consider the table given below providing details of traffic volume per hour for four locations (showing total traffic volume, % of heavy vehicles, average noise level in dB(A) and noise-pollution level in dB(A)). When the total traffic volume is the same, the factor(s) which affect(s) the noise-pollution level is/are
Q: Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
Q: Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
Q: With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’, which of the following statements are correct? 1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014. 2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests. 3. It is a legally binding international declaration. 4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
Q: If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
Q: Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to 1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought 2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. 2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. 2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights. 3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
Q: With reference to an initiative called 'The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum. 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity. 3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
Q: With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: 1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body. 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture? 1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources. 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants. 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? 1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) 3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people NOT allowed to collect and use the biomass?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts: 1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957 3. Customs Act, 1962 4. Indian Forest Act, 1927 Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
Q: Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts ?
Q: As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm GlobeScan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is this score?
Q: Where is the headquarters of Animal Welfare Board of India located ?
Q: Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kenya, is known for her contribution to which one of the following?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20 % of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40 %. 2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/forest cover. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest cover?
Q: The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Minister of
Q: Consider the following statements regarding environment issues of India: I. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves. II. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan. III. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts nonformal education in environment and conservation. IV. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralised information network for environmental information. Which of these statements are correct?
Q: The minimum land area recommended for forest cover to maintain proper ecological balance in India is
Q: Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the protection of environment?
Q: ‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are
Q: Consider the following programmes: I. Afforestation and development of wastelands. II. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests. III. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying other types of fuel. IV. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides to restrict the loss of forest area from degradation caused by pests and insects. The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes
Q: Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition". Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. 3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries' transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
Q: "Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by
Q: With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. 3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: The term 'Intended Nationally Determined Contributions' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Q: What is/are the importance/importances of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification? 1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships. 2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions. 3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct? Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to 1. Protection of biodiversity 2. Resilience of forest ecosystems 3. Poverty reduction Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to 'Agenda 21', sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development. 2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015. 2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017. 2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the 'Club of Rome'. 2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
Q: What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
Q: Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct? 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
Q: With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations. 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization. 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: If a wetland of international importance is brought under the 'Montreux Record', what does it imply?
Q: With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following international agreements: 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 3. The World Heritage Convention Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?
Q: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at
Q: India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes how we should maintain these sites in the context of this Convention?
Q: Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety ?
Q: Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio + 10) held?
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005 2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer. 3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: A World Summit with representation from all the countries will be held in Johannesburg in September 2002 on the subject of
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Important Day) I. World Environment Day II. World Forestry Day III. World Habitat Day IV. World Ozone Day List II (Date) A) March 20 B) June 5 C) September 16 D) October 3 E) December 10
Q: According to Meadows (1972), if the present trends in world population, industrialisation, pollution, food production and resource depletion continue unchanged, the “Limits to Growth” on our planet will be reached in the next
Q: World Environment Conference to discuss global warming was held in 1997 in
Q: "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the :
Q: Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?
Q: How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming? 1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre- dominant. 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming. 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions. 4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements : 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. 2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes. 3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: 1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme. 2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. 3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. 2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. 3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. 4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. 5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World. Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: What is the use of biochar in farming? 1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming. 2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms. 3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture? 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop. 2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? 1. Crop diversification 2. Legume intensification 3. Tensiometer use 4. Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture? 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible. 2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible. 3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible. 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of 'Conservation Agriculture' assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture? 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices 2. Adopting minimum tillage 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following: 1. Birds 2. Dust blowing 3. Rain 4. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases?
Q: With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: 1. "The National Programme for Organic Production" (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. 2. "The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority" (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. 3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative? 1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity. 2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities. 3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique 'living root bridges' are found in
Q: What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative'? 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Every year, a month-long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?
Q: With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements: 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents. 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following organisms: 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. Spirogyra Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
Q: Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to 1. Resist drought and increase absorptive area 2. Tolerate extremes of pH 3. Resist disease infestation Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following kinds of organisms : 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Flowering plants Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
Q: The release of which one of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes?
Q: Dalbergia species is associated with which one of the following?
Q: Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly?
Q: Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by
Q: Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given. Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious epidemic include
Q: Consider the following heavy industries : 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Steel slag can be the material for which of the following ?
Q: In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint? 1. Copper slag 2. Cold mix asphalt technology 3. Geotextiles 4. Hot mix asphalt technology 5. Portland cement Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw material for the production of biofuels? 1. Cassava 2. Damaged wheat grains 3. Groundnut seeds 4. Horse gram 5. Rotten potatoes 6. Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis’ and ‘plasma gasification’ mentioned?
Q: 'Net metering' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the
Q: On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label? 1. Ceiling fans 2. Electric geysers 3. Tubular fluorescent lamps Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification. 2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon-dioxide only. 3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material? 1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels. 2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources. 3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials. 4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India? 1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India. 2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol ?
Q: In the context of alternative sources of energy, ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from
Q: Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?
Q: Match List I (Power generation plant) with List II (Feed material) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra Pradesh II. M/s KM. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh III. M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab IV. M/s Al Kabeer Exports Limited, Andhra Pradesh List II A) Rice husk B) Slaughter-house waste C) Distillery spent wash D) Black liquor Codes:
Q: Which one of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution?
Q: In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
Q: Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil? 1. Excretion of urea by animals 2. Burning of coal by man 3. Death of vegetation Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of 1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere, 2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans, 3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following : 1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration 3. Decay of organic matter 4. Volcanic action Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth ?
Q: Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to the other three?
Q: Consider the following ecosystems: 1. Taiga 2. Tropical evergreen 3. Tropical deciduous 4. Tundra The correct sequence in decreasing order of the albedo values of these ecosystems is
Q: The sea coast of which one of the following states has become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles from South America?
On average, 15–20 questions (about one-fifth of the paper) come from Environment & Ecology, though the exact number varies each year.
Protected Areas & Wildlife, Ecosystem concepts, Biodiversity conservation, Pollution rules, and International environmental treaties are the five most repeated clusters.
NCERT Biology (Class 12 – Ecology chapters), Shankar IAS Environment book, MoEF&CC annual reports, and the IPCC & UNEP summaries for climate change cover most requirements. Supplement them with daily newspaper notes.
Both are equally crucial. UPSC often frames current affairs in a static context—for example, asking about Ramsar criteria after a new wetland is notified. Integrating dynamic events with foundational theory is key.
Solving and revising PYQs highlights recurring patterns, clarifies UPSC’s question style, and pinpoints high-yield sub-topics, enabling focused study and faster elimination during the exam.
