Indian Economy — UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions (1995–2025)
601 questions across 16 sub-topics. Practice all Indian Economy PYQs with detailed explanations, or explore specific sub-topics below.
601
Total Questions
16
Sub-topics
31
Years
The Indian Economy segment of the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination is a high-yield, high-scoring area that routinely contributes 15-20% of the General Studies Paper-I. An analysis of 601 Indian Economy previous year questions (PYQs) from 1995-2025 reveals clear trends: questions mix static concepts drawn from NCERTs and standard texts with dynamic issues lifted straight from the latest Economic Survey, Union Budget and RBI reports. Mastering this blend is therefore essential for every aspirant searching for ‘UPSC Prelims Indian Economy PYQs’ or ‘most expected economy questions for UPSC prelims’.
Key Patterns Observed: Over the last decade the Commission has moved from definition-based trivia to application-oriented, statement-based MCQs. About 60% of questions are now multi-statement types asking you to identify correct pairs, causes or implications. The stress on current policy measures is unmistakable: almost every alternate year sees direct questions on monetary policy tools, inflation targeting, fiscal deficit numbers, GST framework, agriculture-related reforms or flagship welfare schemes.
High-Weight Sub-topics: A drill-down of the data uncovers ten sub-topics that together account for 80% of Economy PYQs. Infrastructure & Industry (75 questions) tops the chart with queries on Public-Private Partnerships, logistics, energy corridors and industrial policy. Human Development, Poverty & Employment Schemes (63) follows close behind, requiring command over MGNREGA, PM-JDY, PM-GatiShakti and the multidimensional poverty index. Agriculture & Rural Development (61) remains evergreen—MSP, PM-KISAN, FPOs and soil-health initiatives are frequent picks. Banking & Financial Sector (50) covers RBI tools, NBFC regulation, BASEL norms and payment systems like UPI or CBDC. The External Sector & Balance of Payments (49) often links India’s trade numbers, exchange-rate mechanisms and current-account deficit trends to global events. Other must-cover buckets include Fiscal Policy & Budget (45), Financial & Capital Markets (40), International Institutions & Reports (39), International Trade & WTO (39) and National Income & Economic Growth (38).
Smart Preparation Strategy: 1) Build conceptual foundations through Class XI-XII NCERT Macroeconomics and standard books by Ramesh Singh or Sanjeev Verma. 2) Integrate current affairs—read the latest Economic Survey, Budget highlights, RBI Monetary Policy statements and PIB press releases; maintain a dynamic notes repository. 3) Practise topic-wise PYQs—solving questions chronologically reveals UPSC’s phrasing style and reduces surprise on exam day. 4) Revise government schemes & indices systematically; note launch year, ministry, target group and unique features. 5) Use economic data sparingly—memorise directional trends (rising, falling, stable) rather than exact numbers unless they are milestone figures explicitly mentioned in the Survey or Budget. 6) Attempt mock tests under timed conditions to sharpen elimination skills, especially for statement-based questions. 7) Cross-link economy with environment, science & tech and polity to handle interdisciplinary questions (e.g., carbon markets, digital currency legislation, cooperative federalism in GST Council).
Leveraging this topic-wise PYQ resource will help you recognise UPSC’s recurring themes, plug knowledge gaps and allocate revision time efficiently. Remember: consistent PYQ practice plus real-time updates from authentic government sources is the unbeatable formula for scoring 15+ marks in the Indian Economy segment of UPSC Prelims.
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following activities:
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
Q: Consider the following statements :
Statement I :
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II :
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Q: भारत में निगमित सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व (CSR) नियमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. CSR नियम विनिर्दिष्ट करते हैं कि यदि कंपनी अथवा इसके कर्मचारियों को लाभ पहुँचाने वाले व्यय को CSR गतिविधियों के रूप में नहीं माना जाएगा।
2. CSR नियम CSR कार्यक्रमों पर होने वाले न्यूनतम व्यय को विनिर्दिष्ट नहीं करते हैं।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारत में, कोल कंट्रोलर संगठन (Coal Controller's Organization-CCO) की क्या भूमिका है?
1. CCO भारत सरकार में कोयला सांख्यिकी का प्रमुख स्रोत है।
2. यह कोयला/लिग्नाइट खन के विकास की प्रवृत्ति का मॉनिटर करता है।
3. यह कोयला खदान क्षेत्रों के अधिग्रहण के सम्बन्ध में सरकार की अधिसूचना के प्रति किसी आपत्ति का अनुशमन करता है।
4. यह सुनिश्चित करता है कि कोयला खनन कम्पनियाँ निश्चित समय में अन्तिम उपभोक्ताओं को कोयला वितरित करें।
नीचे दिए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत सरकार द्वारा कोयला क्षेत्र का राष्ट्रीयकरण इंदिरा गांधी के कार्यकाल में किया गया था।
2. वर्तमान में, कोयला खदानों का आवंटन नीलामी के आधार पर किया जाता है।
3. भारत में पहले कच्चे तेल की कमी को पूरा करने के लिए कोयला आयात किया जाता था, किंतु अब भारत कोयला उत्पादन में आत्मनिर्भर है।
उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Q: भारत में 'न्यून खनिज' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. इस देश में विधानम् विधि के अनुसार रेत एक 'न्यून खनिज' है।
2. 'न्यून खनिजों' के तहत रहे पदार्थ निकालने की शक्ति राज्य सरकारों के पास है, किंतु न्यून खनिजों को निकालने से संबंधित नियमों को बनाने के बारे में शक्तियाँ केन्द्र सरकार के पास हैं।
3. न्यून खनिजों के अवैध खनन को रोकने के लिए नियम बनाने की शक्ति राज्य सरकारों के पास है।
उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. पेट्रोलियम और प्राकृतिक गैस नियामक बोर्ड (Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board–PNGRB) भारत सरकार द्वारा स्थापित प्रथम विधायिका निकाय है।
2. PNGRB का एक कार्य गैस के लिए प्रतिस्पर्धी बाज़ारों को सुविधाजनक बनाना है।
3. PNGRB के निर्णयों के विरुद्ध अपील, विद्युत अपीलीय अधिकरण के समक्ष की जाती है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?
Q: With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of ₹ 4,00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: What is/are the purpose/purposes of 'District Mineral Foundations' in India?
1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations
3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements :
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37·90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of global oil prices, "Brent crude oil" is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of "Mega Food Parks"?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Person)
A. Anil Agarwal
B. Gautam H. Singhania
C. Sanjay Dalmia
D. Venugopal Dhoot
List II (Organization)
1. Gujarat Heavy Chemicals Ltd.
2. Raymond Ltd.
3. Vedanta Resources
4. Videocon Group
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. MMTC Limited is India's largest international trading organisation.
2. Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set up by MMTC jointly with the Government of Orissa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.
2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following pairs :
1. Ashok Leyland : Hinduja Group
2. Hindalco Industries : A.V. Birla Group
3. Suzlon Energy : Punj Lloyd Group
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
Q: In August 2006, the Government of India notified the Rural Electrification Policy. This policy aims at provision of access to all households by which year?
Q: Which of the following pairs in respect of current power generation in India is/are correctly matched? (Rounded Figure)
1. Installed electricity generation capacity : 100000 MW
2. Electricity generation : 660 billion kWh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which of the following are the public sector undertakings of the Government of India?
1. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.
2. Dredging Corporation of India
3. Educational Consultants of India Ltd.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi
B. Tulsi R. Tanti
C. Shashi Ruia
D. S. Bikachandani
List-II (Company)
1. Essar Group
2. Info Edge India (which runs naukri.com)
3. Indian Airlines
4. Suzlon Energy
Codes:
Q: With reference to the steel industry in India in recent times, consider the following statements:
1. Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared a Mini-Ratna.
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Aluminium Company)
A. BALCO
B. HINDALCO
C. Indian Aluminium Company
D. NALCO
List-II (Location)
1. Hirakud
2. Korba
3. Koraput
4. Renukoot
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Appellate Tribunal for Electricity has been established by each State Government in India.
2. One of the components of the Accelerated Power Development and Reforms Programme (APDRP) is upgradation of sub-transmission and distribution system for electricity in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Projects and Development India Limited is mainly engaged in design engineering, procurement and supervision of construction/commissioning in which area?
Q: Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Person)
(A) V.R.S. Natrajan
(B) A.K. Puri
(C) V. Thulasidas
(D) Jogdish Khattar
List II (Organization)
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2. Air India
3. Maruti Udyog Limited
4. Bharat Earth Movers Limited
5. Indian Space Research Organization
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.
2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The number of post offices in India is in excess of 1.5 lakhs.
2. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 1997.
3. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 2000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with effect from 1-4-2002.
2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of India.
3. An expert committee headed by Dr. R.A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel policy recommended that Bharat Stage-II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by 1 April, 2004.
Which of these statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector.
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom sector.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%.
2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the year 2001-2002.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: The Draft Electricity Bill, 2001 seeks to replace
1. Indian Electricity Act, 1910
2. Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948
3. Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998
4. State Electricity Boards
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Fund set up in February 1992 were
1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or VRS.
2. redeployment of workers
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the public Sector Undertaking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation of India Limited is the largest non-oil importer of the country.
2. Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the Ministry of Industry.
3. One of the objectives of Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited is to enforce quality control and compulsory pre-shipment inspection of various exportable commodities
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. NTPC is the largest power utility in India.
2. ONGC accounts for half of the LPG production in India.
3. Indian Oil Corporation operates all the oil refineries in India.
4. The Indian Ordinance Factory is the largest departmentally run industrial undertaking in the country.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: With reference to power sector in India consider the following statements:
1. Rural electrification has been treated as a Basic Minimum Service under the Prime Minister’s Gramodaya Yojana.
2. 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment in power is allowed without upper limit
3. The Union Ministry of Power has signed a Memoranda of Understanding with 14 states.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): There was an increase in industrial production during 1999-2000.
Reason (R): The period witnessed a stable exchange rate and improved business sentiments.
(a)Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements regarding power sector in India:
I. The installed capacity of power generation is around 95000 MW.
II. Nuclear plants contribute nearly 15% of total power generation.
III. Hydroelectricity plants contribute nearly 40% of total power generation.
IV. Thermal plants at present account for nearly 80% of total power generation.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following factors regarding an industry:
I. Capital investments
II. Business turnover
III. Labour force
IV. Power consumption
Which of these determine the nature and size of the industry?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Industrial Unit)
I. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd.
II. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
III. Indian Farmers Fertilisers Cooperative Ltd.
IV. National Aluminium Company Ltd.
List II (Centre)
A) Bangalore
B) Bhubaneswar
C) Kalol
D) Sonepat
Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements: Industrial development in India, to an extent, is constrained by
I. lack of adequate entrepreneurship and leadership in business.
II. lack of savings to invest.
III. lack of technology, skills and infrastructure.
IV. limited purchasing power among the larger masses.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Tourism industry in India is quite small compared to many other countries in terms of India’s potential and size. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
(a)Distances in India are too far apart and its luxury hotels are too expensive for western tourists
(b)For most of the months India is too hot for western tourists to feel comfortable
(c)Most of the picturesque resorts in India such as in the Northeast and Kashmir are, for all practical purposes, out of bounds
(d)In India, the infrastructure required for attracting tourists is inadequate
Q: Consider the following statements: Small-scale industries are, in most cases, not as efficient and competitive as the large-scale ones. Yet the Government provides preferential treatment and reservations in a range of products to the small firms because small-scale industries
I. provide higher employment on a per unit capital deployment basis.
II. promote a regional dispersion of industries and economic activities.
III. have performed better in export of manufactured products than the large-scale ones.
IV. provide jobs to low skill workers, who otherwise may not find employment avenues elsewhere.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: The product life cycle from inception to demise is shown in the graph. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Stage)
I. Product Development
II. Maturity
III. Growth
IV. Introduction
List II (Zone)
(1, 2, 3, 4 as marked in the graph)
Q: With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: जननी सुरक्षा योजना के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. यह राज्यों के स्वास्थ्य विभागों की एक सशर्त मातृत्व लाभ योजना है।
2. इसका उद्देश्य ग्रामीण गर्भवती महिलाओं में मातृ तथा नवजात शिशु मृत्यु दर में कमी लाना है।
3. इसका लक्ष्य गर्भवती महिलाओं के लिए स्वास्थ्य केन्द्रों में प्रसव को बढ़ावा देना है।
4. इसके उद्देश्य में एक वर्ष की आयु तक के बीमार बच्चों को त्वरित स्वास्थ्य सुविधाएं प्रदान करना शामिल है।
उपयुक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: ‘पोषण मुक्त भारत अभियान’ के अंतर्गत की जा रही व्यवस्थाओं के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. इसमें स्कूल जाने से पूर्व के (प्री-स्कूल) बच्चों, किशोरियों और गर्भवती महिलाओं के लिए गुणवत्तापूर्ण भोजन प्रदान किया जाता है।
2. इसमें शिशु जन्म के समय से ही स्तनपान कराने के लिए अभियान चलाया जाता है।
3. इसमें बच्चों और किशोरों की नियमित वृद्धि की निगरानी की जाती है।
4. इसमें मोटापा, हीमोग्लोबिनोपैथी और एनीमिया सहित पोषणजनित रोगों के लिए स्थानिक स्तर पर दिशा-निर्देश भी शामिल हैं।
उपयुक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II : Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: भारत में नियमित अस्थायी मज़दूरों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. सभी अस्थायी मज़दूर, कर्मचारी भविष्य निधि सुरक्षा के हकदार हैं।
2. सभी अस्थायी मज़दूर नियमित कार्य-समय एवं समयोपरि भुगतान के हकदार हैं।
3. सरकार अधिसूचना के द्वारा यह विनिर्दिष्ट कर सकती है कि कोई भी प्रतिष्ठान या उद्योग केवल अपने बैंक खातों के माध्यम से मज़दूरों का भुगतान करेगा।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?
Q: With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements :
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers.
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: राष्ट्रीय खाद्य सुरक्षा अधिनियम, 2013 के अधीन बनाए गए नियमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. केवल वे ही परिवार सहायता प्राप्त खाद्यान्न लेने की पात्रता रखते हैं जो 'गरीबी रेखा से नीचे' (बी.पी.एल.) श्रेणी में आते हैं ।
2. परिवार में 18 वर्ष या उससे अधिक उम्र की सबसे अधिक उम्र वाली महिला ही राशन कार्ड निर्गत किए जाने के प्रयोजन से परिवार का मुखिया होगी ।
3. गर्भवती महिलाएं एवं दुग्ध पिलाने वाली माताएं गर्भावस्था के दौरान और उसके छह महीने बाद तक प्रतिदिन 1600 कैलोरी वाला राशन घर ले जाने की हकदार हैं ।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables
1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: 'राष्ट्रीय कौशल योग्यता ढाँचा (NSQF)' के सन्दर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
1. NSQF के अंतर्गत, शिक्षार्थी सहायता का प्रमाणपत्र केवल औपचारिक शिक्षा के माध्यम से ही प्राप्त कर सकता है।
2. NSQF के क्रियान्वयन का एक प्रस्तावित परिणाम व्यावसायिक और सामान्य शिक्षा के मध्य संचरण है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.
2. Only one member of a family can join the scheme.
3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after subscriber’s death.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
Q: The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:
1. Low birthrate with low death rate
2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low death rate
Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:
Q: The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is
1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following:
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under Employees' State Insurance Scheme?
Q: With reference to "Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements:
1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the schemes launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana.
2. Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth.
2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year, per 100 live births during that year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Q: As per India's National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?
Q: Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS):
1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of Rs 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 :
1. Under the provisions of the Act, 100 days of employment in a year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work has become a fundamental right.
2. Under the provisions of the Act, women are to get priority to the extent that one-half of persons who are given employment are women who have asked for work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. India is the second country in the world to adopt a National Family Planning Programme.
2. The National Population Policy of India, 2000 seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility by 2010 with a population of 111 crores.
3. Kerala is the first State in India to achieve replacement level of fertility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a)Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidized price.
(b)Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible for National Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grains per person per month at BPL rates.
(c)Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has a scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month at BPL rates.
(d)Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-Day Meal Scheme for the benefit of class I to V students in Government or Government-aided Schools.
Q: Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R): Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
Q: Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Fund set up in February 1992 were
1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or VRS.
2. redeployment of workers
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Which reference to the government’s welfare schemes, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food grains are available to the poorest of the poor families at Rs 2 per kg for wheat and Rs 3 per kg for rice.
2. Under the National Old Age Pension Scheme, the old and destitute are provided Rs 75 per month as Central pension, in addition to the amount provided by most State Governments.
3. Government of India has allocated 25 kg food grains per Below Poverty Line family per month, at less than half the economic cost.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following schemes launched by the Union Government:
I. Antyodaya Anna
II. Gram Sadak Yojana
III. Sarvapriya
IV. Jawahar Gram Samriddhi Yojana.
Which of these were announced in the year 2000?
Q: The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana which came into operation from 1 December 1997 aims to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed or underemployed poor but does not include
Q: Among which one of the following sets of social/religious groups is the extent of poverty the highest, as per Government statistics for the nineties?
(a)Muslims in Kerala, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh
(b)Tribals in Bihar, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
(c)Scheduled Castes in Punjab, Western Uttar Pradesh, northern Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu
Q: The number of economically active women (excluding students and those doing domestic duties in their homes) as a percentage of all women of working age (generally those aged 15-64 years) was the highest in 1996 in
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
II. Mahila Samriddhi Yojana
III. Indira Mahila Yojana
IV. Mahila Samakhya Programme
List II
A) Empowerment of women
B) Education for Women’s Equality
C) Promotion of savings among rural women
D) Meeting credit needs of the poor women
Codes:
Q: Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric-producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. चीन की तुलना में भारत के पास अधिक कृषि योग्य भूमि है।
2. चीन की तुलना में भारत में सिंचित क्षेत्र का अनुपात अधिक है।
3. चीन की तुलना में भारत की कृषि में प्रति हेक्टेयर औसत उत्पादकता अधिक है।
उपर्युक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?
Q: Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
(a)Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
(b)Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
(c)Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
(d)A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: 1991 के आर्थिक उदारीकरण के बाद की भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. शहरी क्षेत्रों में श्रमिक की उत्पादकता (2004-05 की कीमतों पर प्रति श्रमिक रु) में वृद्धि हुई जबकि ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में इसमें कमी हुई।
2. कृषि और ग्रामीण क्षेत्र की प्रतिफल हस्तांतरण में सतत वृद्धि हुई।
3. ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में, गैर-कृषि अर्थव्यवस्था में वृद्धि हुई।
4. ग्रामीण रोजगार की वृद्धि दर में कमी आई।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?
1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
3. Social Capital development
4. Free electricity supply to farmers
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?
1. Minimum Support Price
2. Government’s trading
3. Government’s stockpiling
4. Consumer subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Under the ‘Kisan Credit Card’ scheme, for which of the following purposes can farmers avail of short-term credit support?
1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
2. Purchase of farm machinery, tractors and mini-tools
3. Consumption requirements of farm households
4. Post-harvest expenses
5. Construction of a house for the family and setting up of cold storage facilities in the village
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: भारत में रासायनिक उर्वरकों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. वर्तमान में रासायनिक उर्वरकों का खुदरा मूल्य बाज़ार-संचालित है और यह सरकार द्वारा नियंत्रित नहीं है।
2. अमोनिया जो यूरिया बनाने में काम आता है, वह प्राकृतिक गैस से उत्पन्न होता है।
3. सल्फर, जो फॉस्फोरिक अम्ल उर्वरक के लिए कच्चा माल है, वह तेल शोधन कारख़ानों का उपोत्पाद है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए :
1. सुपारी
2. जौ
3. कॉफी
4. रागी
5. मूँगफली
6. तिल
7. हल्दी
उपरोक्त में से किनके न्यूनतम समर्थन मूल्य की घोषणा आर्थिक मामलों की कैबिनेट समिति ने की है ?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. मोटर वाहनों के टायर्स और टयूब्स के लिए भारतीय मानक ब्यूरो (BIS) का मानक चिह्न अनिवार्य है।
2. AGMARK, खाद्य एवं कृषि संगठन (FAO) द्वारा जारी एक गुणवत्ता प्रमाणन चिह्न है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: ‘राष्ट्रीय कृषि बाजार (National Agricultural Market)’ योजना को क्रियान्वित करने का क्या लाभ है ?
1. यह कृषि वस्तुओं के लिए सर्व-भारतीय इलेक्ट्रॉनिक व्यापार पोर्टल है।
2. यह किसानों के लिए राष्ट्रीयकृत बाजार उपलब्ध कराता है जिससे उनके उत्पाद की गुणवत्ता के अनुसार उचित मूल्य मिलता है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Consider the following statements:
The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements:
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to 'Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following best describes the main objective of 'Seed Village Concept'?
(a)Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others
(b)Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
(c)Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
(d)Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies
Q: Consider the following pairs: Programme/Project — Ministry 1. Drought-Prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture 2. Desert Development Programme : Ministry of Environment and Forests 3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas : Ministry of Rural Development Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Q: In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/constraints in its wider/greater implementation?
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private-sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand–supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low-value and high-volume crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3. Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops.
2. The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which of the following pairs about India's economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched?
1. GDP per capita (current prices) : Rs 37,000
2. Rice : 180 million tons
3. Wheat : 75 million tons
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Board)
A. Coffee Board
B. Rubber Board
C. Tea Board
D. Tobacco Board
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Bengaluru
2. Guntur
3. Kottayam
4. Kolkata
Code:
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of welfare schemes launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India:
1. Drinking water for rural areas is one of the components of the Bharat Nirman Plan.
2. In the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 there is a provision that the statutory minimum wage applicable to agriculture workers in the State has to be paid to the workers under the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India.
2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs 50,000 for accidental death and Rs 25,000 for permanent disability.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy.
2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the States/Union Territories.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the country because
1. Farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices.
2. Most of the cultivation of oil-seed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall.
3. Oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited.
4. It is far cheaper to import oil seeds than to cultivate the oil-seed crops.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. India is the original home of the cotton plant.
2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process.
2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.
3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production.
2. India ranks second in the world in the export of tobacco.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: In terms of value, which one of the following commodities accounted for the largest agricultural exports by India during the three-year period from 1997-1998 to 1999-2000?
Q: The prices at which the Government purchases food grains for maintaining the public distribution system and for building up buffer stocks is known as
Q: The annual agricultural production of a product for the period 1991-92 to 1998-99 is shown in the figure given above. Which one of the following is the product in Q?
Q: “...instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative performance....”
The above passage relates to
Q: The table below indicates the performance of India in rice and wheat production from 1950-51 to 1995-96. Which of the following conclusions arrived at from the above table would be valid?
I. Record production of rice as well as wheat has been in 1994-95.
II. The ratio of wheat to rice production seems to have steadily increased over 16 years.
III. Wheat has not been popular among the Indian population before 1980.
IV. India became self-sufficient in rice and wheat only after 1990.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes. Which of the following reasons account for this?
I. A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture.
II. Prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products.
III. Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry.
Q: Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?
I. To stabilise agricultural prices.
II. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.
III. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system.
IV. To ensure maximum price for the farmer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत में, नॉन-बैंकिंग वित्तीय कंपनियाँ (NBFCs) द्वारा प्रायोजित परिसंपत्ति पुनर्संरचना कंपनियाँ लाभ कमा सकती हैं।
2. भारत में, विदेशी संस्थागत निवेशक सरकारी प्रतिभूतियों (G-Secs) के धारक बन सकते हैं।
3. भारत में, शेयर बाज़ार (स्टॉक एक्सचेंज) ऋणों के लिए एकीकृत व्यापारिक मंच (ट्रेडिंग प्लेटफॉर्म) प्रदान कर सकते हैं।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/हैं ?
Q: विदेशी बैंकों के साथ व्यवहार करते समय भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक द्वारा अधिरोपित नियमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. भारत में पूर्ण स्वामित्व वाले सहायक बैंकें (बैंकिंग सहबद्धियाँ) के लिए कोई न्यूनतम पूंजी की आवश्यकता नहीं है।
2. भारत में पूर्ण स्वामित्व वाले सहायक बैंकों (बैंकिंग सहबद्धियाँ) के लिए, बोर्ड सदस्यों के कम-से-कम 50% भारतीय नागरिक होने चाहिए।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II:
The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: ‘बैंक बोर्ड ब्यूरो (BBB)’ के सन्दर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में कौन-कौन कथन सही हैं ?
1. RBI का गर्वनर BBB का चेयरमैन होता है।
2. BBB, सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र बैंकों के अध्यक्षों के चयन के लिए सिफारिश करता है।
3. BBB, सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र बैंकों को कार्यनीतियों और पूंजी-वर्धन योजनाओं के विकास करने में मदद करता है।
नीचे दिए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. केंद्र सरकार द्वारा भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक (आरबीआई) के गवर्नर की नियुक्ति की जाती है।
2. भारतीय संविधान के कतिपय प्रावधान केंद्र सरकार को जनहित में आरबीआई को निर्देश देने का अधिकार देते हैं।
3. आरबीआई के गवर्नर का निहित अपना अधिकार (पावर) आरबीआई अधिनियम से प्राप्त करता है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है?
Q: भारत में ‘शहरी सहकारी बैंकों’ के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. राज्य सरकारों द्वारा स्थापित स्वायत्त मंडलों द्वारा उनका पर्यवेक्षण एवं विनियमन किया जाता है।
2. वे सीमित शेयर और असीमित शेयर जारी कर सकते हैं।
3. उन्हें वर्ष 1966 में एक संशोधन के द्वारा बैंककारी विनियमन अधिनियम, 1949 के दायरे में लाया गया था।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. कृषि क्षेत्र को अल्पकालीन साख प्रदान करने के संदर्भ में, जिला केंद्रीय सहकारी बैंक (DCCBs) अनुसूचित वाणिज्यिक बैंकों एवं क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंकों की तुलना में अधिक ऋण देते हैं।
2. DCCBs का एक प्रमुख कार्य प्राथमिक कृषि साख समितियों को निधि उपलब्ध कराना है।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India?
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. पूँजी पर्याप्तता अनुपात (सी.आर.ए.) वह राशि है जिसे बैंकों को अपनी निक्षेपों के रूप में रखा जाता है जिससे वे, यदि खाता-धारकों द्वारा देयताओं का भुगतान नहीं करने से कोई हानि होती है, तो उसका प्रतिकार कर सकें।
2. सी.आर.ए. का निर्धारण प्रत्येक बैंक द्वारा अलग-अलग किया जाता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: भारत में सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंकों के संचालन के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. पिछले दशक में भारत सरकार द्वारा सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंकों के पूँजी के अंतराकरण में लगातार वृद्धि हुई है।
2. सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंकों को पुनर्गठित करने के लिए पूर्व भारतीय स्टेट बैंक के साथ उसके सहायक बैंकों का विलय किया गया है।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: What is/are the purpose/purposes of the 'Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)' announced by RBI?
1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.
2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to 'Financial Stability and Development Council', consider the following statements:
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Why is the offering of "teaser loans" by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
The functions of commercial banks in India include
1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following pairs :
Large Bank Country of origin
1. ABN Amro Bank : USA
2. Barclays Bank : UK
3. Kookmin Bank : Japan
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Life Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest insurance company in India.
2. National Insurance Company Limited was nationalized in the year 1972 and made a subsidiary of General Insurance Corporation of India.
3. Headquarters of United India Insurance Company Limited are located at Chennai.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Global Trust Bank has been amalgamated with the Punjab National Bank.
2. The second report of the Kelkar Committee dealing with direct and indirect taxes has maintained its original recommendations, including the abolition of exemptions relating to housing loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January 1950.
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in India is 49 per cent of the paid-up capital.
2. Foreign Direct Investment up to 49 per cent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in India under the automatic route.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following financial institutions of India:
1. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
2. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
3. Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
The correct chronological sequence of the establishment of these institutions is
Q: Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India:
I. It is a banker to the Central Government.
II. It formulates and administers monetary policy.
III. It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India’s membership of IMF.
IV. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Committees)
I. Disinvestment of shares in Public Sector Enterprises
II. Industrial Sickness
III. Tax Reforms
IV. Reforms in Insurance Sector
List II (Chaired by)
A) Rajah Chelliah
B) Onkar Goswami
C) R. N. Malhotra
D) C. Rangarajan
Codes:
Q: As part of the liberalisation programme and with a view to attracting foreign exchange, the Government and the RBI have devised two schemes known as FCNR-‘A’ and FCNR-‘B’. Which of the following is/are true regarding these two schemes?
I. Under scheme ‘A’ RBI bears exchange rate fluctuations.
II. Under scheme ‘B’, other banks are to meet out the difference in exchange rate fluctuations.
III. Both the schemes stand withdrawn now.
IV. Only scheme ‘A’ has been withdrawn.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: 97. Consider the following:
I. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
II. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
III. Industrial Development Bank of India
IV. Unit Trust of India
The correct sequence in which the above was established is
Q: With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: भारत में कार्य कर रही विदेशी-स्वामित्व की e-व्यापारिक फर्मों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में कौन-सा/से सही हैं?
1. अपने प्लेटफ़ॉर्मों को बाज़ार-स्थान के रूप में प्रस्तुत करने के अतिरिक्त वे स्वयं अपने माल का विक्रय भी कर सकते हैं।
2. वे अपने प्लेटफ़ॉर्मों पर किस अंश तक बड़े विक्रेताओं को स्वीकार कर सकते हैं, यह सीमित है।
नीचे दिए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. US फेडरल रिजर्व की सख्त मुद्रा नीति पूंजी पलायन की ओर ले जा सकती है।
2. पूंजी पलायन वर्तमान विदेशी वाणिज्यिक ऋणप्रतिग्रहण (External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)) वाली फर्मों की ब्याज लागत को बढ़ा सकता है।
3. घरेलू मुद्रा का अवमूल्यन, ECBs से सम्बद्ध मुद्रा जोखिम को बढ़ाता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए :
1. विदेशी मुद्रा परिवर्तनीय बांड (Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds)
2. कुछ शर्तों के साथ विदेशी संस्थागत निवेश (Foreign Institutional Investment)
3. अमेरिकी डिपॉज़िटरी रसीद (Depository Receipts)
4. अनिवासी विदेशी जमा (Foreign Currency Non-Resident Deposits)
उपर्युक्त में से किसे/किन्हें विदेशी प्रत्यक्ष निवेश (FDI) में सम्मिलित किया जा सकता है/किया जा सकता है?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
किसी मुद्रा के अवमूल्यन (Devaluation) का प्रभाव यह है कि वह अनिवार्य रूप से
1. विदेशी बाज़ारों में घरेलू निर्यातों की प्रतिस्पर्धात्मकता को बढ़ाता है।
2. घरेलू मुद्रा के विदेशी मूल्य को बढ़ाता है।
3. व्यापार संतुलन में सुधार लाता है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: यदि निकट भविष्य में दूसरा वैश्विक वित्तीय संकट होता है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी कार्यवाही/नीति, भारत को, सबसे अधिक संभावना के साथ, कुछ सुरक्षा प्रदान कर सकती है?
1. अवश्यम्भावी विदेशी ऋणों पर निर्भर न रहना
2. कुछ और विदेशी बैंकों का प्रवेश करना
3. पूंजी खाते में पूर्ण परिवर्तनीयता बनाए रखना
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. भारत का अधिकांश विदेशी ऋण सरकारी ऋण के रूप में होता है।
2. भारत का सारा विदेशी ऋण US डॉलर के मूल्यवर्ग में है।
उपरोक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Q: भारत के संदर्भ में, मुद्रा संकट के जोखिम को कम करने में निम्नलिखित में से किस/किन कारण/कारकों का योगदान है?
1. भारत के IT सेक्टर के विदेशी मुद्रा अर्जन का
2. सरकारी व्यय के बढ़ने का
3. विदेशों द्वारा भारत भेजे गए धन का
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
Q: With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?
1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: Consider the following statements :
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
1. World Bank
2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. stability of the government of the concerned country
4. economic potential of the country in question
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following actions which the Government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
Q: Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
(a)FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
(b)FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
(c)FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
Q: Assertion (A): ‘Balance of Payments’ represents a better picture of a country’s economic transactions with the rest of the world than the ‘Balance of Trade’.
Reason (R): ‘Balance of Payments’ takes into account the exchanges of both visible and invisible items whereas ‘Balance of Trade’ does not.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In India, during the financial year 2004-2005 an increase of below 10 % over the value of exports (in rupee terms) in the financial year 2003-2004 was reported.
2. According to the WTO, India’s share in the world merchandise exports is 2 % in the year 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. During the year 2004, India’s foreign exchange reserves did not exceed the 125 billion U.S. Dollar mark
2. The series of index numbers of wholesale prices introduced from April, 2000 has the year 1993-94 as base year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002-03.
Reason (R): For the first time, India's exports crossed worth $50 billion in the year 2002-03.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during the year 2001-02, consider the following statements:
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in tea sector, the foreign firm would have to disinvest 33% of the equity in favour of an Indian partner within four years.
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, the single largest Indian shareholder should have a holding higher than 26%.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a negative growth of 2.17%.
Reason (R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, coffee, textiles and marine products.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q: India's external debt increased from US $98,158 million as at the end of March 2000 to US $100,225 million as at the end of March 2001 due to increase in
Q: Global capital flows to developing countries increased significantly during the nineties. In view of the East Asian financial crisis and the Latin American experience, which type of inflow is considered safest for the host country?
Q: Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean
1. its free float with other international currencies.
2. its direct exchange with any other international currency at any prescribed place inside and outside the country.
3. it acts just like any other international currency.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Ceiling on foreign exchange for a host of current account transaction heads was lowered in the year 2000. Reason (R): There was a fall in foreign currency assets also.
(a)Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
The Indian rupee is fully convertible
I. in respect of Current Account of Balance of Payment.
II. in respect of Capital Account of Balance of Payment.
III. into gold.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable increase after 1991.
Reason (R): The Government of India has resorted to devaluation.
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Assertion (A): Devaluation of a currency may promote export.
Reason (R): Price of the country's products in the international market may fall due to devaluation.
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements: The price of any currency in the international market is decided by the
I. World Bank
II. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
III. stability of the government of the concerned country
IV. economic potential of the country in question
Of these statements:
Q: One of the important goals of the economic liberalisation policy is to achieve full convertibility of the Indian rupee. This is being advocated because
(a)convertibility of the rupee will stabilize its exchange value against major currencies of the world
(b)it will attract more foreign capital inflow in India
(c)it will help promote exports
(d)it will help India secure loans from the world financial markets at attractive terms
(a)received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through the official channels
(b)received for sale/transfer of shares without going through the established stock exchanges
(c)received as commission for services rendered to overseas investors/buyers/sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape and/or in getting preferential treatment
(d)made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election expenses
Q: The changing composition of the export trade is indicative of structural transformation of Indian economy in favour of modernisation. The best indicator of the trend is the
(a)relative share of petroleum products in exports
(b)decline in the share of agricultural products in exports
(c)constant share of ores and minerals in exports
(d)increase in the share of manufactured products in exports
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Increase in foreign exchange reserves ................. Monetary expansion
II. Low import growth rate in India ...................... Recession in Indian Industry
III. Euro issues ................ Shares held by Indian companies in European countries
IV. Portfolio investment ............... Foreign institutional investors
Select the correct answer by using the following codes:
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: मान लीजिए सरकार का राजस्व व्यय ₹80,000 करोड़ है और राजस्व प्राप्ति ₹60,000 करोड़ है। सरकारी बजट ₹10,000 करोड़ के उधार-प्रण और ₹6,000 करोड़ के ब्याज भुगतान के लिए प्रावधान करता है। निम्नलिखित कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?
I. राजस्व घाटा ₹20,000 करोड़ है।
II. राजकोषीय घाटा ₹10,000 करोड़ है।
III. प्राथमिक घाटा ₹4,000 करोड़ है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Q: किसी देश का राजकोषीय घाटा ₹50,000 करोड़ है। इसे ऋण-प्रण सार्वजनिक बांडों के माध्यम से ₹10,000 करोड़ प्राप्त हो रहे हैं। उस देश की ब्याज देयता ₹1,500 करोड़ है। उसका सकल प्राथमिक घाटा कितना है?
Q: Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It re-introduced tax-effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?
Q: Consider the following statements:
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: वित्त मंत्री संसद में बजट प्रस्तुत करते हुए उसके साथ अन्य दस्तावेज भी प्रस्तुत करते हैं जिनमें ‘वृहद आर्थिक रूपरेखा विवरण (The Macro Economic Framework Statement)’ भी सम्मिलित रहता है। यह संयुक्त प्रदेश नियम आदेश के कारण प्रस्तुत किया जाता है :
(a)वित्तीय स्थायित्व संधारण परम्परा के कारण
(b)भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 112 तथा अनुच्छेद 110(1) के कारण
(c)भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 113 के कारण
(d)राजकोषीय उत्तरदायित्व एवं बजट प्रबंधन अधिनियम, 2003 के प्रावधानों के कारण
Q: In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?
1. Housing loans owed by households
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
3. Treasury bills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements :
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In the last decade, there has been a sustained increase in the proportion of India’s tax revenue to GDP.
2. In the last decade, there has been a sustained increase in the proportion of India’s fiscal deficit to GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Reducing import duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
2. Loans received from foreign governments
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
1. Slowing economic growth rate
2. Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?
(a)It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth
(b)It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
(c)It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation
(d)It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion
Q: What is the difference between "vote-on-account" and "interim budget"?
1. The provision of a "vote-on-account" is used by a regular Government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A "vote-on-account" only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of governance, consider the following :
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/off-loading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India ?
Q: Consider the following actions by the Government:
1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the "fiscal stimulus" package?
Q: With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements :
1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of Parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of these statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to the Indian Public Finance consider the following statements:
1. External liabilities reported in Union Budget are based on historical exchange rates.
2. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy.
3. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit to GDP in recent years has an adverse effect to private investments.
4. Interest payments is the single largest component of the non-plan revenue expenditure of the Union Government.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following:
I. Market borrowing
II. Treasury bills
III. Special securities issued to RBI
Which of these is/are component(s) of internal debt?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Term)
I. Fiscal deficit
II. Budget deficit
III. Revenue deficit
IV. Primary deficit
List II (Explanation)
A) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts
B) Excess of Revenue Expenditure over Revenue Receipts
C) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings
D) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings and Interest Payments
Q: Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.
Reason (R): Fiscal deficit is the borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India plus other liabilities of the Government to meet its expenditure.
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Which of the following come under Non-plan expenditure?
I. Subsidies
II. Interest payments
III. Defence expenditure
IV. Maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure created in the previous plans
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
Q: The following Table shows the percentage distribution of revenue expenditure of Government of India in 1989-90 and 1994-95:
(Heads: Defence, Interest Payments, Subsidies, Grants to States/UTs Other)
Based on this table, it can be said that the Indian economy is in poor shape because the Central Government continues to be under pressure to
(a)reduce expenditure of defence
(b)spend more and more on interest payments
(c)reduce expenditure on subsidies
(d)spend more and more as grants-in-aid to State Governments/Union Territories
Q: Which of the following are among the non-plan expenditures of the Government of India?
I. Defence expenditure
II. Subsidies
III. All expenditures linked with the previous plan periods
IV. Interest payment
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II:
Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III:
For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and only one of them explains Statement I
(c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following:
1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following markets:
1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
Q: Consider the investments in the following assets:
1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Q: भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था के संदर्भ में, 'मुद्रास्फीति-संलग्न बांड (Inflation-Indexed Bonds — IIBs)' के क्या लाभ हैं?
1. सरकार IIBs के रूप में अपने ऋणग्रण पर कूपन दरों को कम कर सकती है।
2. IIBs निवेशकों को मुद्रास्फीति के बारे में अनिश्चितता से सुरक्षा प्रदान करते हैं।
3. IIBs पर प्राप्त ब्याज और साथ-साथ पूंजीगत लाभ कर-योग्य नहीं होते।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत में, सावधि क्षमता-निर्धारण एजेन्सियाँ (क्रेडिट रेटिंग एजेन्सीज) भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक द्वारा विनियमित होती हैं।
2. ICRA नाम से जानी जाने वाली क्षमता-निर्धारण एजेन्सी एक परिकर लिमिटेड कम्पनी है।
3. क्रिसिल रेटिंग्स एक भारतीय सावधि क्षमता-निर्धारण एजेन्सी है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: परिवर्तनीय बॉण्ड के सन्दर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. सूझबूझ बॉण्ड को इक्विटी के लिए बदलने का विकल्प है, परिवर्तनीय बॉण्ड अपेक्षाकृत कम ब्याज दर का भुगतान करते हैं।
2. इक्विटी के लिए बदलने का विकल्प बॉण्ड-धारक को बढ़ती हुई उपभोक्ता कंपनियों में सहभागिता की मात्रा प्रदान करता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: भारतीय सरकारी बांड प्रतिफल (Government Bond Yields) निम्नलिखित में से किससे/किनसे प्रभावित होता है/होते हैं?
1. यूनाइटेड स्टेट्स फेडरल रिज़र्व की कार्रवाइयाँ
2. भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक की कार्रवाइयाँ
3. मुद्रास्फीति एवं अल्पकालिक ब्याज दर
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
Q: भारत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. खुदरा निवेशक डिमैट खातों के माध्यम से प्राथमिक बाजार में 'ट्रेज़री बिल' और 'भारत सरकार के ऋण बॉण्ड' में निवेश कर सकते हैं।
2. 'नेगोशिएटेड डीलिंग सिस्टम-ऑर्डर मैचिंग' भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक का सरकारी प्रतिभूति व्यापार मंच है।
3. 'सेंट्रल डिपॉज़िटरी सर्विसेज लिमिटेड' का संयुक्त रूप से भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक और बॉम्बे स्टॉक एक्सचेंज द्वारा प्रवर्तन किया जाता है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :
1. ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
2. ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
3. ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
4. ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक, भारत सरकार की प्रतिभूतियों का प्रबंधन और प्रचालन करता है किन्तु किसी राज्य सरकार की प्रतिभूतियों का नहीं।
2. भारत सरकार कोष-पत्र (ट्रेज़री बिल) जारी करती है और राज्य सरकारें कोई कोष-पत्र जारी नहीं करतीं।
3. कोष-पत्र अक्सर अपने सममूल्य से कटे हुए पर जारी किए जाते हैं।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to 'IFC Masala Bonds', sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government's 'Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme' and 'Gold Monetization Scheme'?
1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy
2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
3. To reduce India's dependence on gold imports
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The upper part of the graph is a hypothetical movement in the BSE Sensex over a few months and the lower part is the fluctuation in the average value of automobile shares in the same period (actual values not given). Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the graphs?
(a)The automobile share market has been as unstable as BSE Sensex in that period
(b)There has been a major political change in June/July
(c)Automobile shares have shown a steady improvement in price, unaffected by large fluctuations in BSE Sensex
Q: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Dow Jones : New York
II. Hang Seng : Seoul
III. FTSE-100 : London
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: The behaviour of a fictitious stock market index (comprising a weighted average of the market prices of a selected list of companies including some multinational corporations (MNCs) over a 15-day period is shown in the graph. The behaviour of the MNC’s in the same period is also shown in the second graph. Which one of the following is a valid conclusion?
(a)MNC’s fell steeper in the period depicted
(b)Share prices of every non-MNC company soared by over 5% on the 12th day
(c)Government announced a policy disfavouring MNC’s on the 11th day
(d)Whatever be the reason favouring market revival on the 12th day, it appears to be relevant only to non-MNC companies
Q: The price fluctuations of 4 scrips in a stock market in the four quarters of a year are shown in the table below. Four different investors had the following portfolios of investment in the four companies throughout the year:
Investor 1: 10 of A, 20 of B, 30 of C and 40 of D
Investor 2: 40 of A, 10 of B, 20 of C and 30 of D
Investor 3: 30 of A, 40 of B, 10 of C and 20 of D
Investor 4: 20 of A, 30 of B, 40 of C and 10 of D
In the light of the above, which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Organization — Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle-income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II:
The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q: एशियाई अवसंरचना निवेश बैंक (Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank – AIIB) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. AIIB के 80 से अधिक सदस्य राष्ट्र हैं।
2. AIIB में भारत सबसे बड़ा शेयरधारक है।
3. AIIB में एशिया से बाहर का कोई सदस्य नहीं है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Q: With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:
1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b)World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c)Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d)UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Q: With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:
1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
2. The World Bank participates as observer in IMFC's meetings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following countries:
1. Brazil
2. Mexico
3. South Africa
According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as “Emerging Economies”?
Q: India is a member of which of the following?
1. Asian Development Bank
2. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
3. Colombo Plan
4. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low-income countries facing high level of indebtedness.
2. Singapore Regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provide training in macroeconomics analysis and policy, and related subjects as a part of programme of the IMF Institute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following organisations:
I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
II. International Finance Corporation
III. International Fund for Agricultural Development
IV. International Monetary Fund
Which of these are agencies of the United Nations?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Publisher)
I. Ministry of Industry
II. Central Statistical Organisation
III. Reserve Bank of India
IV. Ministry of Finance
List II (Publication)
A) Report on Currency and Finance
B) Economic Survey
C) Wholesale Price Index
D) National Accounts Statistics
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
I. Development Programme
II. National Council of Applied Economic Research
III. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research
IV. World Bank
List II
A) UN India Human Development Report
B) India Development Report
C) World Development Report
D) Human Development Report
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
I. WTO
II. IDA
III. IMF
IV. IBRD
List II
A) Provides loans to address short-term balance of payment problems
B) Multi-lateral trade negotiation body
C) Sanction of soft loans
D) Facilitating lending and borrowings for reconstruction and development
Q: Consider the following statements: Most international agencies which fund development programmes in India on inter-governmental bilateral agreements mainly provide
I. Technical assistance.
II. Soft loans which are required to be paid back with interest.
III. Grants, not required to be paid back.
IV. Food assistance to alleviate poverty.
Of these statements —
Q: Which of the following constitute the World Bank?
I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
II. International Finance Corporation
III. International Development Association
IV. International Monetary Fund
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
कथन-I: वस्तुओं के वैश्विक निर्यात में भारत का निर्यात 3·2% है।
कथन-II: भारत में कार्यरत अनेक स्थानीय कंपनियाँ और भारत से कार्यरत कुछ विदेशी कंपनियाँ ने 'उत्पादन-लिंक्ड प्रोत्साहन (पीएलआई) योजना' का लाभ उठाया है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?
(a)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की सही व्याख्या है
(b)कथन-I और कथन-II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन-II, कथन-I की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
Q: With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारत में माल के भौगोलिक संकेत (रजिस्ट्रीकरण और संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1999 को निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित दायित्वों के अनुपालन के लिए लागू किया गया ?
Q: निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. ऑस्ट्रेलिया
2. कनाडा
3. चीन
4. भारत
5. जापान
6. यू.एस.ए.
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-कौन आसियान (ASEAN) के मुक्त व्यापार भागीदारों में से हैं?
Q: ‘राष्ट्रीय बौद्धिक सम्पदा अधिकार नीति (National Intellectual Property Rights Policy)’ के सन्दर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. यह नीति विश्व व्यापार संगठन की TRIPS समझौते के प्रति भारत की प्रतिबद्धता को दर्शाती है।
2. औद्योगिक नीति और संवर्धन विभाग भारत में बौद्धिक सम्पदा अधिकारों के विभिन्न प्रावधानों के लिए, नोडल विभाग है।
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारत ने WTO के व्यापार सुगमता करार (TFA) का अनुसमर्थन किया है।
2. TFA, WTO के बाली मंत्रिस्तरीय पैकेज 2013 का एक भाग है।
3. TFA, जनवरी 2016 में प्रभावी हुआ।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the
(a)Food and Agriculture Organization
(b)United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
Q: With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, "Home Charges" formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted "Home Charges"?
1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is/are
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following :
1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of services only.
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act ?
Q: As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) came into effect from 1st December 2005.
2. As per SAFTA agreement terms, India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka have to decrease their custom duties to the level of 0 % to 5 % by the year 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements
1. India’s import of crude and petroleum product during the year 2001-02 accounted for about 27% of India’s total imports.
2. During the year 2001-02, India’s exports had increased by 10% as compared to the previous year
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): The new EXIM Policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason (R): GATT has played a significant role in the liberalisation of economy.
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a specialised agency of United Nations System of Organisations
2. WIPO has its headquarters at Rome
3. The Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement is binding on all WTO members
4. Least-developed country members of WTO are not required to apply the provisions of TRIPS Agreements for a period of 20 years from the general date of application of the Agreement
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: The Ministerial Meeting of the WTO held in December 1999 was unsuccessful because it attempted to link trade with
1. labour related issues.
2. environment related issues.
3. terrorism related issues.
4. debt related issues.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): The emergence of economic globalism does not imply the decline of socialist ideology.
Reason (R): The ideology of Socialism believes in universalism and globalism.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Assertion (A): An important policy instrument of economic liberalization is reduction in import duties on capital goods.
Reason (R): Reduction in import duties would help the local entrepreneurs to improve technology to face the global markets.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: Which of the following were the aims behind the setting up of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
I. Promotion of free trade and resource flows across countries.
II. Protection of intellectual property rights.
III. Managing balanced trade between different countries.
IV. Promotion of trade between the former East Bloc countries and the western world.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following items imported by India:
I. Capital goods
II. Petroleum
III. Pearls and precious stones
IV. Chemicals
V. Iron and Steel
The correct sequence of these items (as per 1994-95 figures) in decreasing order of value is —
Q: Which of the following benefits are likely to accrue to India from the World Trade Organisation?
I. India’s share in the world trade is to go up from the present 600 million US dollars to 5 billion US dollars by 2000 A.D.
II. It will help boost exports of agricultural commodities from India.
III. India’s share in the world trade is likely to triple by the year 2000 A.D.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Economic activity — Sector
1. Storage of agricultural produce — Secondary
2. Dairy farm — Primary
3. Mineral exploration — Tertiary
4. Weaving cloth — Secondary
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था में भौतिक पूंजी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए:
वस्तु — श्रेणी
1. किसान का हल — कार्यशील पूंजी
2. कंप्यूटर — स्थिर पूंजी
3. कुछ वर्षों प्रयोग किया जाने वाला सूट — स्थिर पूंजी
4. पेट्रोल — कार्यशील पूंजी
उपरोक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: निम्नलिखित में कौन-कौन से गतिविधियाँ अर्थव्यवस्था में वास्तविक क्षेत्र (Real Sector) का निर्माण करती हैं?
1. किसानों का अपनी फ़सलें काटना
2. कपड़ा मिलों का कच्चे कपास को फ़ेब्रिक में बदलना
3. किसी वाणिज्यिक बैंक का किसी व्यापारी कम्पनी को ऋण देना
4. किसी कंप्यूटर विनिर्माण कम्पनी का विदेश में मूल्यांकित बॉण्ड जारी करना
नीचे दिए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
अन्य बातें अपरिवर्तित रहने पर, यदि किसी वस्तु के लिए बाजार माँग बढ़ सकती है, यदि
1. इसकी प्रतिस्थापन वस्तु की कीमत में वृद्धि हो
2. इसकी पूरक वस्तु की कीमत में वृद्धि हो
3. वस्तु घटिया किस्म की है और उपभोक्ताओं की आय में वृद्धि होती है
4. इसकी कीमत घटती है
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements :
Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if
1. price of its substitute increases
2. price of its complement increases
3. the good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases
4. its price falls
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth-largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Term – Most appropriate description
1. Melt down – Fall in stock prices
2. Recession – Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down – Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Q: With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements:
1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries.
2. China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements :
1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years.
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?
Q: With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following activities:
1. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing
2. Manufacturing
3. Trade, Hotels, Transport and Communication
4. Financing, Insurance, Real Estate and Business services
The decreasing order of the contribution of these sectors to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at factor cost at constant prices (2000-01) is
Q: Consider the following States:
I. Gujarat
II. Karnataka
III. Maharashtra
IV. Tamil Nadu
The descending order of these States with reference to their level of Per Capita Net State Domestic Product is
Q: The following table shows the percentage change in the consumption of electricity by five towns P, Q, R, S, T from 1986 to 1988:
Town Per cent change from 1986 to 1987 From 1987 to 1988
P +8 −18
Q +15 −11
R +6 +9
S −7 −5
T +13 −6
If town T consumed 500,000 units in 1986, how much did it consume in 1988?
Q: The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher than that of per capita income at constant prices, because the latter takes into account the rate of
Q: The new Gross Domestic Product (GDP) series released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in February 1999 is with reference to base price of
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
I. Boom
II. Recession
III. Depression
IV. Recovery
List II
A) Business activity at high level with increasing income, output and employment at macro level
B) Gradual fall of income, output and employment with business activity in a low gear
C) Unprecedented level of under employment and unemployment, drastic fall in income, output and employment
D) Steady rise in the general level of prices, income, output and employment
Codes:
Q: In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is: (C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Government Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively.)
Q: Consider the following statements:
Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent years because
1. there is persistent investment over time only in select locales.
2. some areas are agro-climatically less conducive to development.
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and economic opportunities.
4. some areas have faced continuous political instability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q: Assertion (A): Though India’s national income has gone up several fold since 1947, there has been no marked improvement in the per capita income level.
Reason (R): Sizeable proportion of the population of India is still living below the poverty line.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Q: The following figure represents sales (in thousands) over the period 1978 to 1983:
[bar chart showing sales values for years 78-83]
The sales in 1981 exceeded that in 1979 by
Q: Consider the diagram given below: (Pie-chart showing family expenditure with segments labelled T: Transport, Ec: Education of children, H: Housing, C: Clothing, F: Food, S: Savings, O: Others.) From the diagram shown it would be right to conclude that
(a)the family spent more than half the income on food and clothing
(b)the amount saved by the family was too little
(c)the family had no health problems
(d)the family managed to meet all the essential expenses out of the income earned
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: भारत में, 'अंतिम उपायकर्ता (Lender of Last Resort)' के रूप में केन्द्रीय बैंक के कार्यों में सामान्यतः निम्नलिखित में से क्या सम्मिलित है/हैं?
1. अन्य स्रोतों से ऋण प्राप्ति में विफल होने पर व्यापार एवं उद्योग निकायों को ऋण प्रदान करना
2. अस्थायी संकट के समय बैंकों के लिए चलनिधि उपलब्ध कराना
3. विभिन्न ऋणों के वित्तपोषण के लिए सरकार को ऋण देना
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
Q: यदि आप अपने बैंक के माँग जमा खाते (Demand Deposit Account) से ₹ 1,00,000 की नगद राशि निकालते हैं, तो अर्थव्यवस्था में तात्कालिक रूप से मुद्रा की समग्र पूर्ति पर इसका क्या प्रभाव पड़ेगा ?
(a)मुद्रा की समग्र पूर्ति में ₹ 1,00,000 की कमी आएगी
(b)मुद्रा की समग्र पूर्ति में ₹ 1,00,000 की वृद्धि होगी
(c)मुद्रा की समग्र पूर्ति में ₹ 1,00,000 से अधिक की वृद्धि होगी
Q: यदि आर.बी.आई. संचालक मौद्रिक नीति के अनुसार कार्य करने पर विवश होता है, तो वह निम्नलिखित में से क्या नहीं करेगा?
1. वैधानिक तरलता अनुपात को घटाकर उसे अवशोषित करना
2. सीमांत स्थायी सुविधा दर को बढ़ाना
3. रेपो दर को घटाना तथा रिवर्स रेपो दर को भी घटाना
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Q: मौद्रिक नीति समिति (Monetary Policy Committee/MPC) के सम्बन्ध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
1. यह RBI की नीतिगत (बेंचमार्क) ब्याज दर का निर्धारण करती है।
2. यह एक 12-सदस्यीय निकाय है जिसमें RBI का गवर्नर भी शामिल होता है तथा वर्ष में कम से कम चार बैठकें होती हैं।
3. यह केन्द्रीय वित्त मंत्री की अध्यक्षता में कार्य करती है।
नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: With reference to Indian economy, consider the following:
1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Public debt
4. Public revenue
Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?
Q: In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?
1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following liquid assets:
1. Demand deposits with the banks
2. Time deposits with the banks
3. Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
Q: Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The repo rate is the rate at which other banks borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
2. A value of 1 for the Gini Coefficient in a country implies that there is perfectly equal income for everyone in its population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following:
1. Currency with the public
2. Demand deposits with banks
3. Time deposits with banks
Which of these are included in Broad Money (M3) in India?
Q: The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India?
I. Currency with the Public
II. Demand deposits with banks
III. Time deposits with banks
IV. Other deposits with RBI
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT :
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following countries :
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q: 'वॉटरक्रेडिट' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. यह जल एवं स्वच्छता क्षेत्र में कार्य के लिए सूक्ष्म वित्त साधनों (माइक्रोफाइनेंस टूल्स) को लागू करता है।
2. यह एक वैश्विक पहल है जिसे विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन और विश्व बैंक के सहयोग से प्रारंभ किया गया है।
3. इसका उद्देश्य निम्न आयवर्गीय व्यक्तियों को सब्सिडी के बिना अपनी जल-संबंधी आवश्यकताओं को पूरा करने के लिए सक्षम बनाना है।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?
Q: Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: कभी-कभी समाचारों में आने वाले पद “व्यापारी छूट दर” (Merchant Discount Rate) को निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सबसे सही सूचित करता है?
(a)यह किसी बैंक द्वारा किसी व्यापारी को उस बैंक के डेबिट कार्ड के माध्यम से भुगतान स्वीकार करने के लिए दिया जाने वाला प्रोत्साहन है।
(b)यह बैंकों द्वारा अपने ग्राहकों को वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के लिए ऋण/वित्तीय लेन-देन के लिए डेबिट कार्ड का प्रयोग करने पर वापस दी जाने वाली राशि है।
(c)यह बैंक द्वारा किसी व्यापारी पर अपने ग्राहकों के डेबिट कार्ड से भुगतान स्वीकार करने पर लगाया जाने वाला शुल्क है।
(d)यह सरकार द्वारा व्यापारियों को अपने ग्राहकों से ‘पॉइंट ऑफ सेल’ (POS) मशीनों और डेबिट कार्ड के माध्यम से डिजिटल भुगतान को बढ़ावा देने के लिए दिया जाने वाला प्रोत्साहन है।
Q: What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. भारतीय राष्ट्रीय भुगतान निगम (National Payments Corporation of India/NPCI) देश में खुदरा भुगतान के विकास के संबंध में प्रमुख संस्था है।
2. NPCI ने अपने कार्ड भुगतान स्कीम RuPay प्रारंभ की है।
उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
Q: The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: The term 'Core Banking Solutions' is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?
1. It is a networking of a bank's branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.
2. It is an effort to increase RBI's control over commercial banks through computerization.
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under microfinance is/are:
1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Q: With reference to India, consider the following :
1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II:
In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Q: भारत के संदर्भ में, हाल ही में जनसंचार-माध्यमों में अक्सर चर्चित “अप्रत्याश कर अंतरित” (text garbled in OCR) निम्नलिखित में से किस स्थिति को सर्वाधिक रूप से प्रतिबिंबित करता है?
(a precise official term is unreadable in the source image; text retained as provided)
(a)कोई भारतीय कम्पनी, जिसने किसी विदेशी उद्यम में निवेश किया हो और अपने निवेश पर मिलने वाला लाभ उस बाहरी देश को कर अदा करती हो
(b)कोई विदेशी कम्पनी, जिसने भारत में निवेश किया हो और अपने निवेश से मिलने वाले लाभ पर अपने आधार देश को कर अदा करती हो
(c)कोई भारतीय कम्पनी, जो किसी बाहरी देश में भूमि सम्पत्ति खरीदती है और उसका मूल्य बढ़ने पर उसे बेचकर प्राप्ति को भारत में अंतरण कर देती है
(d)कोई विदेशी कम्पनी, जो भारत में अंतर्गत करती है और ऐसे शेयर भारत में स्थित पंजीकृतियों से अपना वस्तुगत मूल्य समायोजित करती है
Q: अवासी इकाइयों द्वारा दी जा रही ऑनलाइन विज्ञापन सेवाओं पर भारत द्वारा 6% ‘समतुल्य कर’ (Equalisation Levy) लगाए जाने के निर्णय के सन्दर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. यह आयकर अधिनियम के भाग के रूप में लागू किया गया है।
2. भारत में विज्ञापन सेवाएँ देने वाली अवासी इकाइयाँ अपने गृह देश में “दोहरे कराधान से बचाव समझौतों” के अन्तर्गत टैक्स क्रेडिट का दावा कर सकती हैं।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Q: Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
Q: वस्तु एवं सेवा कर (Goods and Services Tax/GST) के क्रियान्वयन हेतु निम्नलिखित संभावित लाभ क्या है/हैं ?
1. यह भारत में बहु-प्राधिकरणी कर व्यवस्था के बहुत वर्षों का स्थान लेगा और इस प्रकार एकल बाजार स्थापित करेगा।
2. यह भारत के ‘राजकोषीय घाटे’ को समाप्त करेगा और उसके विदेशी मुद्रा भंडार को बढ़ाने हेतु उसे सक्षम बनाएगा।
3. यह भारत की अर्थव्यवस्था की दक्षता और आकांक्षा को बहुत बड़े रूप से बढ़ाएगा और उसे निकट भविष्य में चीन से आगे निकल जाने योग्य बनाएगा।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?
1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Consider the following statements :
In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are
1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government's objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Q: In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
Q: Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning :
1. The Second Five-Year Plan emphasised on the establishment of heavy industries.
2. The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of the National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The planning process in the industrial sector in India has assumed a relatively less important position in the nineties as compared to that in the earlier period. Which one of the following is true in this regard?
(a)With the advent of liberalisation, industrial investments/development have largely been placed within the domain of private and multinational sectors
(b)With markets assuming a central place, the role of central planning in many sectors has been rendered redundant
(c)The focus of planning has shifted to sectors like human resource development, infrastructure, population control and welfare
(d)The nation’s priorities have shifted away from industrial development to rural development
Q: Which one of the following is correct regarding stabilization and structural adjustment as two components of the new economic policy adopted in India?
(a)Stabilization is a gradual, multi-step process while structural adjustment is a quick adaptation process
(b)Structural adjustment is a gradual, multi-step process, while stabilization is a quick adaptation process
(c)Stabilization and structural adjustment are very similar and complementary policies. It is difficult to separate one from the other
(d)Stabilization mainly deals with a set of policies which are to be implemented by the Central Government while structural adjustment is to be set in motion by the State Governments
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The weight of food items is higher in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) than in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, whereas CPI does.
3. The Reserve Bank of India has adopted WPI for its primary measure of inflation and for deciding key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1. an increase in the money supply
2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3. an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Q: India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), consider the following statements:
1. The new WPI series with base 1993-94 = 100 became effective from April 1998.
2. In the new WPI series, became effective from 1 April 2000.
3. The weight for electricity has increased in the new WPI series.
Which of these statements are correct?
Q: The misery index is the sum of a country’s unemployment and inflation rate. The higher the index, the more miserable is the country to live in. In the figure given below is the Misery Index for various countries in Europe:
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the misery index given above?
I. Britain is the most miserable country to live in.
II. The inflation rate in Spain is less than that in Belgium and Britain.
III. Italy and France seem to have almost identical unemployment rate.
IV. The higher the misery index, the higher the inflation rate.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
(a)decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
(b)increase the tax collection of the Government
(c)increase the investment expenditure in the economy
(d)increase the total savings in the economy
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions from Indian Economy are asked in UPSC Prelims every year?▼
On average, 15–20 questions (roughly 20% of the paper) come from Indian Economy, though the exact number may range from 12 to 22 depending on the year.
Which book is best for Indian Economy UPSC Prelims preparation?▼
After completing Class XI–XII NCERT Macroeconomics, most toppers recommend either ‘Indian Economy’ by Ramesh Singh or by Sanjiv Verma for static concepts, supplemented by the latest Economic Survey, Union Budget summary and monthly PIB/RBI releases for current affairs.
Are numerical data like GDP growth rate or fiscal deficit asked directly?▼
UPSC rarely asks for exact numbers; instead it focuses on directional trends (increase/decrease), relative positions or milestone targets already highlighted in the Economic Survey or Budget (e.g., fiscal deficit glide path).
How to cover government schemes efficiently for Prelims Economy?▼
Classify schemes into sectors (agriculture, social security, infrastructure), note implementing ministry, objective, funding pattern and unique features; revise using tabular flashcards and attempt PYQs to see how UPSC frames statements around eligibility and performance indicators.
Is it necessary to study International Economics for Prelims?▼
Yes. Topics like WTO agreements, trade facilitation, Balance of Payments, exchange-rate mechanisms, IMF quotas and World Bank reports routinely appear—about 80 questions in the last three decades were from the external sector and international institutions combined.