RAS Pre 2024 Question Paper with Answers

Rajasthan State and Subordinate Services Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Examination, 2024 · held on 2 February 2025

This page gives every question of the General Knowledge and General Science paper with the answer from RPSC's final answer key, UnlockIAS's explanation of why that option is right and each other option is wrong, and key facts. The question text is copied exactly as printed in the question booklet RPSC uploaded.

150 questions · 200 marks · 3 hours

Negative marking, from RPSC’s syllabus: “1/3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.”

RPSC’s documents: question booklet (PDF) · final answer key (PDF)

This booklet prints a fifth choice under every question, “(5) Question not attempted”. The questions below list the four answer options, (1)–(4).

1. Q1The four segments of the Golden Quadrilateral join the following cities : A. Delhi – Mumbai B. Mumbai – Chennai C. Chennai – Kolkata D. Kolkata – Delhi Consider the length of the above segments in descending order and select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes :Answer: (1) — C, D, A, B
2. Q2Consider the following statements : A. Luni Basin and Shekhawati region are the Sub-regions of Rajasthan Bangar. B. Ghaggar Plain covers mostly Hanumangarh and Ganganagar district. C. Nagaur uplands have salty lakes and inland drainage. D. Aravalli ranges are rich in all types of minerals. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes :Answer: (2) — A, B and C
3. Q3Which of the following group of districts of Rajasthan is correctly arranged in ascending order as per average rainfall during South-West Monsoon ?Answer: (1) — Jalore, Jaipur, Kota
4. Q4Which is not a correct match ? Nuclear Power Plant – StateAnswer: (3) — Kaiga – Tamil Nadu
5. Q5Which type of soil is dominant in Jaipur, Dausa and Alwar districts ?Answer: (4) — Alfisols
6. Q6In the year 2021-22, contribution of Rajasthan in total production of Bajra in the country (in percentage) wasAnswer: (3) — 38.98
7. Q7Medtech Medical Devices Park is located atAnswer: (4) — Boranada, Jodhpur (undivided)
8. Q8In which district of Rajasthan ‘Khadin’ is a popular method of water conservation ?Answer: (3) — Jaisalmer
9. Q9Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I (District) – List – II (River) A. Udaipur – i. Sabi & Ruparel B. Bundi – ii. Gambhiri & Parvati C. Bharatpur – iii. Som & Jakham D. Alwar – iv. Kural Codes :Answer: (4) — A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
10. Q10At which of the following places, asbestos mines are located in Rajasthan ?Answer: (1) — Arjunpura and Piparda
11. Q11The most important resources of lignite in Rajasthan are located atAnswer: (3) — Kapurdi, Merta and Kasnau
12. Q12Which is not a correct match ? Conservation Reserve (as on May 2023) – DistrictAnswer: (3) — Sorsan – Bundi
13. Q13Mount Abu and Ranakpur are included in which tourist circuit ?Answer: (3) — Godwar
14. Q14The national executive of which political party called for the dissolution of the Constituent Assembly and its re-election by adult suffrage ?Answer: (2) — Socialist Party
15. Q15The correct descending order of districts in Rajasthan based on total literacy rate (census 2011) isAnswer: (2) — Kota, Jaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Alwar
16. Q16Fundamental Rights provided by which of the following groups of Articles are granted only to ‘Citizens’ of India ?Answer: (4) — Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30
17. Q17In which year it was inserted in the Constitution of India that the State shall secure free legal aid to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities ?Answer: (2) — 1976
18. Q18Match List-A with List-B and identify the correct answer from the codes given below : List-A (Case) – List-B (Amendment challenged) A. Indira Gandhi V. Raj Narain – i. 42nd Amendment B. Minerva Mills V. Union of India – ii. 52nd Amendment C. Kihoto Hollohan V. Zachillu – iii. 39th Amendment D. P. Sambamurthy V. State of A.P. – iv. 32nd Amendment Codes :Answer: (4) — A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
19. Q19Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the election of the President of India ?Answer: (4) — Every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one hundred in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly.
20. Q20Identify the correct statement regarding the Election Commission of India.Answer: (3) — Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
21. Q21Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the speaker of Lok Sabha are correct ? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : (i) The speaker presides over a joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament. (ii) When a Money Bill is transferred from the Lower House to the Upper House, the speaker shall endorse on the bill his certificate that it is a Money Bill. (iii) While a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the speaker shall neither preside nor take part in its proceedings. (iv) The speaker does not vote in the House except when there is equality of votes. Codes :Answer: (3) — Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
22. Q22Which of the following is a matter on which the Finance Commission notified by the Ministry of Finance on 31st December, 2023 shall not make its recommendation ?Answer: (4) — Review the present arrangements on Financing Climate Management initiatives.
23. Q23Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) The Congress won 145 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election. (b) The BJP won 133 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election. (c) The CPI(M) won 48 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election. Codes :Answer: (1) — Only (a) is correct.
24. Q24The Central Vigilance Commission was formed on the basis of the recommendations of which of the following committee ?Answer: (1) — Santhanam Committee
25. Q25Which of the following Chief Minister faced President’s Rule in Rajasthan for maximum number of times ?Answer: (2) — Bhairon Singh Shekhawat
26. Q26As of the end of the November 2024, how many women were there in the Rajasthan Council of Ministers ?Answer: (2) — Only 2
27. Q27Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding subordinate legislation in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly ?Answer: (4) — This is done by Rule 240 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.
28. Q28Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Governor of Rajasthan ?Answer: (3) — Gurumukh Nihal Singh was appointed as the first Governor of Rajasthan on 1st November, 1956 AD.
29. Q29Who becomes the chairperson of District Planning Committee in Rajasthan ?Answer: (4) — Zila Pramukh
30. Q30By which Act, the Jaipur Development Authority was established ?Answer: (1) — Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982
31. Q31Which of the following group of princely states had enacted legislations on Panchayats prior to independence ?Answer: (3) — Jodhpur, Jaipur, Udaipur, Sirohi
32. Q32Which Article of the Constitution prescribes mandatory consultation with RPSC on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under Government of Rajasthan ?Answer: (1) — Article 320(3)
33. Q33From which of the following date Pramil Kumar Mathur assumed the office of the Registrar General of Rajasthan High Court ?Answer: (3) — 20/04/2024
34. Q34Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Deputy Lokayukta Act, 1973, the Lokayukta is empowered to investigate allegations against ministers and public servants in certain cases. Which of the following subject is not part of those investigations ?Answer: (3) — Sexual harassment of women, caste discrimination and violence against children.
35. Q35What is the amount of security deposit to contest the election of a Mayor by a candidate belonging to the general category ?Answer: (3) — ₹ 30,000
36. Q36State Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a Committee. Who of the following is not a member of this Committee ?Answer: (4) — Chief Justice of High Court
37. Q37Among the following Chairpersons of Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission, who could complete a five year term ?Answer: (2) — Justice N.K. Jain
38. Q38The aim of citizen’s charter is not –Answer: (4) — To create effective hearing system of public demands
39. Q39In which of the following year annual growth rate of Gross National Income and Net National Income on both current prices and constant prices were Negative in India ?Answer: (3) — 2020-21
40. Q40Which of the following statement is related to the benefit of the “Input Tax Credit Mechanism” of GST ?Answer: (1) — This avoid double taxation.
41. Q41Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding RAJ NIVESH Portal of Rajasthan ?Answer: (2) — It is a “One Stop Shop” (OSS) facility directly under Chief Minister to facilitate large investment proposals more effectively and expedite requisite approvals / clearances for the same under one roof.
42. Q42Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of inflation in India ? A. Core inflation include the prices of food and energy. B. Headline inflation exclude food inflation. C. Headline inflation is more volatile in nature than core inflation. Select the answer using the codes given below :Answer: (4) — Only C
43. Q43In List–I, the names of agricultural crops are given and in List–II, the names of the states which stood first in the production of these crops in 2021-22 are given. Match them by using codes : List–I – List–II A. Nutricereals – i. Rajasthan B. Total pulses – ii. Karnataka C. Groundnut – iii. Madhya Pradesh D. Soyabean – iv. Maharashtra v. Gujarat Codes :Answer: (3) — A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-iv
44. Q44Consider the following statements regarding “National Food Security Act” (NFSA) in India : A. It was enacted on July 5, 2013. B. Around 50 crore persons have been covered under NFSA at present. C. The Act legally entitles upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains. Choose the correct option using codes :Answer: (3) — Both A and C are correct.
45. Q45Consider the following statements regarding World Happiness Report – 2024 : A. India ranked 126th out of more than 140 countries, which is lower than its neighbouring countries including China, Nepal, Pakistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh. B. India’s ranking has remained relatively stagnant over the years, indicating limited progress in improving the overall happiness and well-being of its population. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :Answer: (2) — Only B
46. Q46Worker to Population Ratio (WPR) is defined asAnswer: (3) — Percentage of employed persons in total population
47. Q47Which of the following is not associated with financial sector reforms in India initiated after 1991 ?Answer: (3) — F.R.B.M. Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management)
48. Q48Consider the following statements regarding fiscal deficit of Rajasthan : A. The actual fiscal deficit in the year 2022-23 has been 3.76 percent of the State GDP. B. This is less than the limit prescribed by the F.R.B.M. Act, 2005. C. The fiscal deficit of 2022-23 was higher than that of 2021-22. Choose the correct option :Answer: (4) — All A, B and C are correct.
49. Q49Consider the following statements regarding targets of Rajasthan Mineral Policy – 2024 : A. Provide employment to 50 lakh people by 2029-30 and over 1 crore people (direct and indirect) by 2046-47. B. Enhance the mineral sector’s contribution to state’s GSDP from 3.4 percent in 2023-24 to 5 percent by 2029-30 and to 8 percent by 2046-47. C. Expand the number of minerals under extraction from 58 to 70 by 2047. Which of the above statements are correct ?Answer: (4) — A, B and C
50. Q50The correct share of various sector in Gross Fixed Capital Formation of Rajasthan in descending order isAnswer: (3) — Construction, Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining
51. Q51Ease of Doing Business ranking for the states in India is released by –Answer: (2) — Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
52. Q52Which of the following has been formed in place of Chief Minister’s Rajasthan Economic Transformation Advisory Council (CMRETAC) ?Answer: (2) — Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI)
53. Q53Which of the following park/zone has not been developed by RIICO in Rajasthan ?Answer: (4) — Agro Food Park – Udaipur
54. Q54Rajasthan Government announced M-Sand Policy in the year 2024. This will remain in force –Answer: (1) — until 31 March, 2029 or till a new policy is announced
55. Q55Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List-I (New Industrial areas developed by RIICO in the year 2023-24) – List-II (Place) A. Nadol – i. Udaipur B. Dharmpura – ii. Jhalawar C. Umriya – iii. Barmer D. Maal ki Toos – iv. Pali Codes :Answer: (2) — A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
56. Q56Which of the following statements are correct about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana ? (i) To install Solar plants on one crore houses to provide upto 300 unit free electricity every month. (ii) Provision of 30 percent subsidy for setting up rooftop solar plants. (iii) 100 percent online system for registration, application, approval & grant. (iv) Provision of loan at bank interest 4 percent to each applicant.Answer: (3) — (i) & (iii)
57. Q57Who among the following are eligible for Aastha Scheme in Rajasthan ?Answer: (4) — Families in which 2 or more people are specially abled category with more than 40 percent disability.
58. Q58Mukhyamantri Svanidhi Yojana of Rajasthan aims toAnswer: (3) — empower street vendors
59. Q59In cataract the natural lens becomes cloudy because of change in which of the following ?Answer: (1) — Protein
60. Q60Which of the following are units of the pressure ? (A) bar (B) Pa (C) torr (D) atm Choose the correct option :Answer: (4) — All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
61. Q61The main objective of “Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Programme (Phase-III)” is :Answer: (3) — to improve service delivery in water supply, sewerage and sanitation.
62. Q62Among the following layers, identify the one which is used for wireless connection in IoT devices :Answer: (3) — Network Layer
63. Q63What is the name of the man-portable air defence system developed by ‘DRDO’ to neutralize aerial threats ?Answer: (4) — VSHORADS
64. Q64Which of the following statement is incorrect for Active Electronically Scanned Array Radar (AESA) ?Answer: (1) — It is not capable of tracking multiple targets.
65. Q65The fourth generation biofuels are obtained from genetically modified :Answer: (4) — Algae
66. Q66Regarding Artificial Intelligence (AI), identify the correct statements using the codes given below : A. Machine learning is a subset of AI. B. Supervised learning involves training a computer system without labelled input data. C. Machines learn through trial and error, receiving rewards during reinforcement learning. Codes :Answer: (2) — Only A and C
67. Q67Kwashiorkor, a form of malnutrition, is caused by deficiency of which of the following ?Answer: (2) — Protein
68. Q68Which of the following artificial sweeteners have the highest sweetness value in comparison to sucrose ?Answer: (2) — Alitame
69. Q69Which of the following is a micro-mineral found in human body fluids / tissues ?Answer: (3) — Iodine
70. Q70Select the incorrect set of “the typical Vector – Disease caused – Type of Pathogen”.Answer: (1) — Aedes – Chikungunya – Bacteria
71. Q71According to Central Pollution Control Board, the Air Quality category for IND-AQI range of 101 – 200 isAnswer: (3) — Moderate
72. Q72Select the incorrect statement from the following :Answer: (1) — El Nino and La Nina are a kind of storm.
73. Q73India’s first Nano-cellulose plant developed by ICAR – CIRCOT Mumbai is related toAnswer: (1) — Cotton
74. Q74Red List of IUCN is known asAnswer: (4) — Barometer of Life
75. Q75Select the incorrect statement regarding the Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Project (Phase-2).Answer: (2) — It covers 18 districts and 8 wild-life sanctuaries.
76. Q76Match Column-I (Location of the Center of Excellence) with Column-II (the horticultural crop) and select the correct answer using the codes given below : Column-I – Column-II A. Bassi – (i) Mango B. Sagra Bhojka – (ii) Custard-apple C. Devrawas – (iii) Pomegranate D. Khemri – (iv) Guava (v) Date-palm Codes :Answer: (3) — A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)
77. Q77Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) under 17 global goals given by United Nations specifically focuses on “Life on Land”, aiming to protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems ?Answer: (3) — SDG 15
78. Q78“Ganga”, India’s first cloned cow born in March 2023 belongs to which breed ?Answer: (2) — Gir
79. Q79In the question given below, statement and two assumptions (I) and (II) are given. Choose the correct option from the following : Statement : In order to replenish the nutrients in the soil, it is important to grow different types of crops in every alternate season. Assumptions : (I) A crop can never be grown for the second time in the same field. (II) If a different crop is grown in the successive season, no additional nutrients such as fertilizers are required to be added to the soil at all.Answer: (4) — Neither assumption (I) nor assumption (II) is implicit.
80. Q80Which of the following village of Rajasthan is transforming itself to a zero-waste model with the help of Green Technology intervention ?Answer: (4) — Aandhi
81. Q81In the question given below, three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given statements to be true. Read the conclusions and given the answer. Statements : Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture. Conclusions : (I) Some graphics are figures. (II) Some symbols are pictures.Answer: (3) — Only Conclusion (I) follows.
82. Q82A statement is followed by two arguments (I) and (II). Choose which of the argument(s) is/are strong. Statement : Should every house use solar energy in order to reduce the need of electricity in Rajasthan ? Arguments : (I) Yes, it will conserve our natural resources and it will promote environmental compatibility. (II) No, solar panels are costly and all the house owners cannot afford it without subsidy.Answer: (1) — Only argument (I) is strong.
83. Q83Eight equidistant points lie on a circle. Using these points as vertices, right angled triangles are drawn such that one side of each triangle is diameter of the circle. The number of such possible right angled triangles is :Answer: (4) — 24
84. Q84Next term in the following sequence is : 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?Answer: (2) — 252
85. Q85In a coding system, ‘PROJECT’ is written as ‘CEOPRT’ and ‘PLANE’ is written as ‘ELNP’. Then, in the same coding system the ‘ORGANISED’ will be written as :Answer: (4) — ADEGIORS
86. Q86In the question given below, a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered (I) and (II). Choose the correct option from the following : Statement : There has been less voting in this Lok Sabha election as compared to previous Lok Sabha election. Course of action : (I) The election commission should announce re-election for Lok Sabha. (II) Election commission should cancel the voting rights of the people who did not vote in this Lok Sabha election.Answer: (3) — Neither (I) nor (II) follows.
87. Q87Mr. X starts walking towards south from point A. After walking 20 m., he reaches at point B. Now he turns left and walks 20 m and reaches at point C. Now he turns 45° anticlockwise, walks a distance 20√3 m and reaches at the point D. What is the shortest distance between point A and point D ?Answer: (3) — 20√5 m
88. Q88A Venn diagram is drawn followed by the four choices. Select the correct choice which represents the given diagram.Answer: (1) — Teacher, Mother, Doctor
89. Q89Images of consonants of the English alphabet (capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images which do not look like their original shapes ?Answer: (2) — 14
90. Q90A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. B is married to C. F is the mother of E and D is the daughter of F. A’s daughter is E and C’s son is A. There are two married couples in the family. Which of the following is correct ?Answer: (4) — E is granddaughter of C.
91. Q91A housewife has 1000 ml of mixture that contains milk and water in the ratio of 3:1. She adds 250 ml of mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:2 in it. Then she uses 250 ml of the combined mixture to make curd. How much of pure milk is left in the mixture remained ?Answer: (4) — 720 ml
92. Q92A reduction of 21% in the price of rice enables a person to buy 10.5 kg more for ₹ 1,000. What is the reduced price of rice per kg ?Answer: (1) — ₹ 20
93. Q93The simple interest on a sum of ₹ 8,000 at a certain rate percent per annum for 3 years is ₹ 3,600. If the interest is compounded 8-monthly on the same sum at the same interest rate, then total compound interest after 2 years will beAnswer: (4) — ₹ 2,648
94. Q94The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units. A rectangle is constructed, which is equal in area to the triangle. It has a width of 10 units, then the perimeter of this rectangle is :Answer: (2) — 26 units
95. Q95How many triangles are there in the following figure ?Answer: (3) — 16
96. Q96The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 49. It was later discovered that three observations taken as 40, 20, 50 were actually 60, 70, 80 respectively. The correct mean isAnswer: (3) — 50
97. Q97Ten different letters of alphabets are given. Words with five letters are formed from these given letters. Then, the number of words which have atleast one repeated letter is :Answer: (1) — 69760
98. Q98The probability of getting the sum as a prime number, when two dice are thrown together, is :Answer: (3) — 5/12
99. Q99Recently which app is launched by Jaipur Municipal Corporation, Heritage for citizens to report civic issues and government to analyze, track, manage & solve ?Answer: (3) — Jaipur 311
100. Q100The pie-chart provided below gives the distribution of land areas used for various food crops : Choose the correct option from the following which uses more than 50% of the total area.Answer: (2) — Rice, Wheat and Sorghum
101. Q101Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly by-election – 2024 ?Answer: (4) — Maximum ballot papers for service employed voters were issued in Khinvsar assembly constituency.
102. Q102Choose the correct statement with regards to Guru Ghasidas – Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve.Answer: (4) — It is the third largest tiger reserve in the country.
103. Q103Which of the following Institution has been engaged by the Competition Commission of India in 2024, to conduct a market study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition ?Answer: (2) — Management Development Institute Society
104. Q104The ‘Rajasthan MSME Policy – 2024’ will remain in force until which of the following date ?Answer: (3) — 31 March, 2029
105. Q105Recently Yamandu Orsi has been elected as the President of which country ?Answer: (2) — Uruguay
106. Q106The Submarine Cable Resilience Summit in February, 2025 will be held at :Answer: (2) — Nigeria
107. Q107Name the writer from South Korea who has won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2024 ?Answer: (4) — Han Kang
108. Q108Match the Column I and II regarding National awards for the empowerment of persons with disabilities 2024 : Column-I (Sarvshreshth Divyangjan) – Column-II (Field of out-standing work) (a) Ananya Bijesh – (i) Art and Culture (b) Prateek Khandelwal – (ii) Music (c) Priyanka Deepak Dabade – (iii) Accessibility Codes :Answer: (4) — (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
109. Q109Recently the Government of India has approved inclusion of some of the languages in the list of classical languages. Now, how many languages in total are having the status of classical languages ?Answer: (4) — 11
110. Q110The I Edition of Joint Table Top Exercise (CINBAX) between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army was held at :Answer: (2) — Pune
111. Q111Where was the India – Norway business round table held on 8th December, 2024 ?Answer: (4) — Mumbai
112. Q112Which organization has recently launched an upgraded Mobile App “Suvidha 2.0” ?Answer: (1) — Election Commission of India
113. Q113Consider the following statements about recently inaugurated Asia’s largest and world’s highest imaging Cherenkov Observatory, at Hanle, Ladakh : I. It was inaugurated by Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission. II. It is located at an altitude of 5100 metres. III. The telescope is built by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre with the support of Electronic Corporation of India and other industry partners. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :Answer: (3) — Only I and III are correct.
114. Q114Who among the following from India, co-chaired with Mr. Atsushi Mimura, at the 2nd India – Japan Finance Dialogue held at Tokyo in September, 2024 ?Answer: (3) — Ajay Seth
115. Q115Khelo India Youth Games 2025 will be hosted by which of the following state ?Answer: (2) — Bihar
116. Q116How many medals did India win at the 2024 ISSF (International Shooting Sport Federation) World Cup in shooting ?Answer: Deleted by RPSC
117. Q117Consider the following statements regarding to 38th National Games 2025 and choose the correct option : Statement (A) : It will be hosted by Uttarakhand. Statement (B) : The National Games will feature 28 sporting disciplines and 4 demonstration events.Answer: (2) — Only Statement (A) is correct.
118. Q118How many gold and bronze medals has Rajasthan won in 5th National Para Shooting Championship held at Pune in November 2024 ?Answer: (3) — 16 gold and 7 bronze
119. Q119‘Divith Reddy Adulla’ winner of World Cadet Under-8 Championship 2024 is related to which game ?Answer: (2) — Chess
120. Q120Which of the following archaeological sites was identified by archaeologist T.H. Handley as a Buddhist town ?Answer: (4) — Naliasar
121. Q121Consider the following statements about Rao Chunda of Marwar and choose the correct option from below : A. Rao Chunda obtained Mandore in dowry. B. Rao Ranmal ascended the throne immediately after Rao Chunda’s death.Answer: (1) — Only A is true.
122. Q122According to “Rao-Jetsi-Ro-Chhanda”, who among the following was defeated by Rao Jaitsi, the ruler of Bikaner ?Answer: (2) — Kamran
123. Q123Which of the following was/were associated in the excavation of Ojiyana ? A. R.C. Agrawal B. B.R. Meena C. Alok Tripathi Codes :Answer: (4) — B and C
124. Q124Consider the following statements related to Bijolia Peasant Movement : A. Vijay Singh Pathik had gone to Wardha to meet Gandhiji to give information regarding the Bijolia Peasant Movement. B. Prayag’s Abhyudaya and Calcutta’s Bharat Mitra newspaper regularly published news related to the Bijolia Peasant Movement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :Answer: (2) — Only B is correct.
125. Q125The S.A. Sudhalkar report of 1945 is associated with which of the following Princely State ?Answer: (1) — Jodhpur
126. Q126Which of the following statements is not true regarding Walterkrit Rajput Hitkarini Sabha ?Answer: (2) — It was aimed to make reforms for Rajputs and Dalits of Rajasthan.
127. Q127The famous temple built by Mathandev at Rajorgarh was dedicated to which of the following deities ?Answer: (1) — Shiva
128. Q128Consider the following statements about the folk instrument ‘Chautara’ and choose the correct option from below : A. It is a four stringed instrument. B. It is generally used in singing bhajans of Ramdev ji.Answer: (3) — A and B both are true.
129. Q129Which of the following options is not rightly matched ?Answer: (3) — Khuman Raso – Karnidan
130. Q130Match List – I with List – II regarding famous painting styles and their painters of Rajasthan and select the correct option : List – I – List – II A. Kishangarh – i. Sahibdeen B. Bikaner – ii. Nihalchand C. Mewar – iii. Ali Raza D. Marwar – iv. Shivdas Codes :Answer: (2) — A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
131. Q131Consider the following statements about Saint Laldas and choose the correct option from below : A. Saint Laldas remained unmarried throughout his life. B. After the death of Saint Laldas, a temple was built at his Samadhi place.Answer: (2) — Only B is true.
132. Q132Which of the following colours is ‘Kasumal’, which is used in the costumes of Rajasthan ?Answer: (1) — Red
133. Q133Consider the following statements about Matsya Union’s Prime Minister Shobaram and choose the correct option from below : A. He left his legal profession during the Non-Cooperation Movement. B. He was the member of the Cabinet of Heeralal Shastri.Answer: (2) — Only B is true.
134. Q134For which of the following the words Aadi (आड़ी), Hiyali (हीयाली) are popular in Rajasthani language ?Answer: (4) — Riddles
135. Q135Which of the following titles was adopted by the Kadphises Second of Kushan dynasty ?Answer: (2) — Sarvalokeshwar
136. Q136Consider the following statements about Stupas and choose the correct option from below : A. The word ‘Stupa’ is an architectural term and means something which is raised up by accumulation. B. The custom of erecting ‘Stupas’ as a form of memorial to the dead was pre-Buddhist.Answer: (3) — A and B both are true.
137. Q137Which of the following Buddhist texts were written in Sanskrit language ? Choose the correct option from below : A. Divyavadan B. Deepvansha C. Mahavansha D. Aryamanjushree MoolkalpAnswer: (3) — A, D
138. Q138Consider the following statements related to Aajivaka Sect : A. Belief in Determinism B. The order of reincarnation can be changed. C. Belief in Austerity Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes :Answer: (4) — A and C are correct.
139. Q139Which of the following monuments were built by Emperor Shershah ? A. Sasaram Tomb B. Kila-E-Kuhn Mosque C. Tomb of Sikandara D. Jama MasjidAnswer: (1) — A, B
140. Q140Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Bhakti Movement ?Answer: (3) — Madhvacharya propounded Nirguna Bhakti Siddhant instead of Saguna Bhakti.
141. Q141Who painted the famous image of Bharat Mata to visually associate the identity of India, as a Nation ?Answer: (2) — Abnindranath
142. Q142In which language did the poet Mallanarya write the texts named “Bhava Chinta Ratna” and “Veerasaivamrita” in the court of Krishandev Ray ?Answer: (4) — Kannada
143. Q143Who among the following was appointed as the chairman of Secondary Education Commission by Government of India in 1952 ?Answer: (4) — Laxman Swami Mudaliar
144. Q144Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below : List – I (Desert) – List – II (Location) A. Gobi – i. Southern Africa B. Patagonia – ii. Asia C. Victoria – iii. South America D. Kalahari – iv. Australia Codes :Answer: (1) — A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
145. Q145Which is not an area of Mediterranean type of Agriculture ?Answer: (3) — Northern Australia
146. Q146Read the following statements related to the liberal phase of Indian National Movement (1885 – 1905 A.D.) : A. Supported the rich democratic and scientific culture of modern Europe. B. Strongly criticized the Economic aspect of British imperialism. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :Answer: (3) — Both A and B are true.
147. Q147What is the correct order of the following mountain ranges from North to South ? A. Ladakh B. Shiwalik C. Karakoram D. Zaskar Codes :Answer: (3) — C, A, D, B
148. Q148Which one of the following statements is not correct ?Answer: (4) — The Monsoon Expedition (Monex) was organized under the joint auspices of the United States of America (U.S.A.) and India.
149. Q149Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I (Tributary) – List – II (River) A. Rapti – i. Brahmaputra B. Tista – ii. Narmada C. Hiran – iii. Godavari D. Purna – iv. Ghaghra Codes :Answer: (4) — A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
150. Q150In which forest zone of the world highest deforestation has been recorded ?Answer: (2) — Tropical