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57 questions from UPSC CSE Prelims GS Paper 1 on Constitutional Framework & Development (Indian Polity). Spanning from 1995 to 2025. Practice with show/hide answers and detailed explanations.
57
Questions
24
Years
33
Easy
23
Moderate
Based on 57 questions across 24 years, UPSC has consistently tested aspirants' understanding of Constitutional Framework & Development within the broader Indian Polity syllabus. The questions range from factual recall to application-based analysis.
Recent trends show UPSC moving towards statement-based questions that combine multiple aspects of Constitutional Framework & Development. Aspirants should focus on understanding concepts rather than memorizing isolated facts.
Q: निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: भारत के संविधान के उपबंध — विषय I. राज्य की लोक सेवा में न्याय-पालिका का कार्यपालिका से पृथक्करण : राज्य की नीति के निर्देशक तत्त्व II. हमारी सामाजिक संस्कृति की समग्र विरासत का महत्त्व समझना और उसका संरक्षण करना : मूल कर्तव्य III. कारखानों में 14 वर्ष से कम आयु के बच्चों के नियोजन का निषेध : मूल अधिकार उपयुक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?
Q: Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I — Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor’s office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the Bill to the President of India for assent?
Q: Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
Q: With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 368 के अनुसार, संसद निम्नलिखित में से किनके द्वारा संविधान के किसी उपबंध में संशोधन कर सकती है ? 1. परिवर्तन 2. प्रतिस्थापन 3. विलोपन नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: भारत के संविधान के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं ? 1. नगरपालिकाओं की शक्तियाँ संविधान के भाग 9-क में दी गई हैं । 2. आपात उपबंध संविधान के भाग 18 में दिए गए हैं । 3. संविधान के संशोधनों से संबंधित उपबंध संविधान के भाग 20 में दिए गए हैं । नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
Q: Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
Q: In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: संविधान दिवस के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: कथन-I: नागरिकों के बीच संवैधानिक मूल्यों को संवर्धित करने के लिए संविधान दिवस प्रतिवर्ष 26 नवम्बर को मनाया जाता है। कथन-II: 26 नवम्बर, 1949 को, भारत की संविधान सभा ने भारत के संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने के लिए डॉ॰ बी. आर. अम्बेडकर की अध्यक्षता में एक प्रारूप समिति बनाई। उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 1. किसी संविधान संशोधन विधेयक को भारत के राष्ट्रपति की पूर्व स्वीकृति की अपेक्षा होती है। 2. जब कोई संविधान संशोधन विधेयक भारत के राष्ट्रपति के समक्ष प्रस्तुत किया जाता है, तो भारत के राष्ट्रपति के लिए यह बाध्यकारी है कि वे अपनी अनुमति दें। 3. संविधान संशोधन विधेयक लोक सभा और राज्य सभा दोनों द्वारा विशेष बहुमत से पारित होना ही चाहिए और इसके लिए संयुक्त बैठक का कोई उपाय नहीं है। उपयुक्त कथनों में कौन-से सही हैं ?
Q: With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
Q: 26 जनवरी, 1950 को भारत की वास्तविक सांविधानिक स्थिति क्या थी?
Q: सांविधानिक सरकार का आशय क्या है?
Q: भारतरत्न और पद पुरस्कारों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारतरत्न और पद पुरस्कार, भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 18 (1) के अंतर्गत उपाधियाँ हैं। 2. वर्ष 1954 में प्रारंभ किए गए पद पुरस्कारों को केवल एक बार संशोधित किया गया था। 3. किसी वर्ष विशेष में भारतरत्न पुरस्कारों की अधिकतम संख्या तीन तक सीमित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?
Q: परिणामतः, संवैधानिक सरकार का अर्थ है
Q: मूल अधिकारों के अतिरिक्त, भारत के संविधान का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से भाग मानव अधिकारों की सार्वभौमिक घोषणा 1948 (Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948) के सिद्धांतों एवं प्रावधानों को प्रतिबिंबित करता/करते हैं? 1. उद्देशिका 2. राज्य की नीति के निदेशक तत्त्व 3. मूल कर्त्तव्य नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: किस प्रधानमंत्री के कार्यकाल के दौरान भारत के संविधान में 44वाँ संशोधन पारित किया गया था?
Q: निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत की संसद किसी कानून विशेष को भारत के संविधान की नौवीं अनुसूची में डाल सकती है। 2. नौवीं अनुसूची में डाले गए किसी कानून की वैधता का परीक्षण किसी न्यायालय द्वारा नहीं किया जा सकता एवं उसके ऊपर कोई निर्णय भी नहीं दिया जा सकता है। उपयुक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Q: Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Q: The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
Q: Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which 1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislatures of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
Q: Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?
Q: Which of the Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 percent of the total number in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
Q: What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts. 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendments) Acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
Q: The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
Q: As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
Q: Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list. List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Rights C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union List II (Country from which it was derived) 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. Ireland 4. United Kingdom 5. USA Codes: A B C D
Q: Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
Q: Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
Q: The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
Q: The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were
Q: The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Amendments to the Constitution) I. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 II. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994 III. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000 IV. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000 List II (Contents) A) Establishment of State-level Rent Tribunals Act, 1991 B) No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh C) Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels D) Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission E) According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi Codes:
Q: If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
Q: Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
Q: Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Q: Consider the following functionaries: I. Cabinet Secretary II. Chief Election Commissioner III. Union Cabinet Ministers IV. Chief Justice of India Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
Q: Consider the following statements: An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the I. Lok Sabha. II. Rajya Sabha. III. State Legislatures. IV. President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Functionaries) I. President of India II. Judges of the Supreme Court III. Members of Parliament IV. Ministers for the Union List II (Oaths or affirmations) A) Secrecy of Information B) Faithful Discharge of Duties C) Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India D) Upholding the Constitution and the Law
Q: In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ ………. do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
Q: Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India. Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last Governor-General of free India. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Q: Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States? I. Election of the President II. Representation of States in Parliament III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
UPSC has asked 57 questions on Constitutional Framework & Development in GS Paper 1 Prelims between 1995 and 2025. This sub-topic falls under Indian Polity.
Questions on Constitutional Framework & Development have appeared in UPSC Prelims in the following years: 2025, 2024, 2023, 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2014, 2013, 2008, 2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003, 2002, 2001, 2000, 1999, 1997, 1996, 1995. The topic has appeared in 24 out of 31 years.
Among 57 questions on Constitutional Framework & Development: 33 are easy, 23 are moderate, and 1 are difficult. Most questions test conceptual understanding of the topic.
