Q: Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
(a)C. Rajagopalachari
(b)Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c)T. T. Krishnamachari
(d)Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
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Constitutional Framework & Development — UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions
53 questions from UPSC CSE Prelims GS Paper 1 on Constitutional Framework & Development (Indian Polity). Spanning from 1995 to 2024. Practice with show/hide answers and detailed explanations.
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What UPSC Asks About Constitutional Framework & Development
Based on 53 questions across 22 years, UPSC has consistently tested aspirants' understanding of Constitutional Framework & Development within the broader Indian Polity syllabus. The questions range from factual recall to application-based analysis.
Recent trends show UPSC moving towards statement-based questions that combine multiple aspects of Constitutional Framework & Development. Aspirants should focus on understanding concepts rather than memorizing isolated facts.
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All Constitutional Framework & Development Questions
Q: With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q: As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of : 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Q: The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1, 2 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)2, 3 and 4
Q: In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
(a)The principle of natural justice
(b)The procedure established by law
(c)Fair application of law
(d)Equality before law
Q: Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
(a)It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b)It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c)It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d)It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Q: In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a)1st Amendment
(b)42nd Amendment
(c)44th Amendment
(d)86th Amendment
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 : Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q: With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 and 3
Q: Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
(a)A committed judiciary
(b)Centralization of powers
(c)Elected government
(d)Separation of powers
Q: What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
(a)A Democratic Republic
(b)A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c)A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d)A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Q: Constitutional government means
(a)a representative government of a nation with federal structure
(b)a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c)a government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d)a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards : 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and3
Q: A constitutional government by definition is a
(a)government by legislature
(b)popular government
(c)multi-party government
(d)limited government
Q: Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q: The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(a)a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b)not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c)a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d)a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q: The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a)Jawaharlal Nehru
(b)Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c)Indira Gandhi
(d)Morarji Desai
Q: Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q: Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a)Liberty of thought
(b)Economic liberty
(c)Liberty of expression
(d)Liberty of belief
Q: The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a)The Preamble
(b)The Fundamental Rights
(c)The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)The Fundamental Duties
Q: Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which 1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislatures of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q: 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)None of the above
Q: Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?
(a)Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b)Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c)Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d)Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Q: Which of the Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 percent of the total number in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
(a)91st
(b)93rd
(c)95th
(d)97th
Q: What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
(a)Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b)Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(c)Providing reservation to women in Parliament and State Legislatures
(d)Free and compulsory education to children between the age of 6 and 14 years
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts. 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendments) Acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Q: Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a)B. R. Ambedkar
(b)J.
B. Kripalani
(c)Jawaharlal Nehru
(d)Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Q: The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:
(a)Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b)The Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c)Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
(d)The demarcation of new boundaries between States
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)The Constitution Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.
(b)Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India.
(c)The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.
(d)The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.
Q: Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a)It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b)It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c)It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d)It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
(a)Attorney General of India - Judges of the Supreme Court - Members of Parliament - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b)Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General of India - Members of Parliament
(c)Attorney General of India - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Judges of the Supreme Court - Members of Parliament
(d)Judges of the Supreme Court - Attorney General of India - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Members of Parliament
Q: As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a)Deputy Prime Minister
(b)Former President
(c)Governor of a State within his state
(d)Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q: Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list. List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Rights C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union List II (Country from which it was derived) 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. Ireland 4. United Kingdom 5. USA Codes: A B C D
(a)5 4 1 2
(b)3 5 2 1
(c)5 4 2 1
(d)3 5 1 2
Q: Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(a)Ordinary Bill
(b)Money Bill
(c)Finance Bill
(d)Constitution Amendment Bill
Q: Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
(a)First
(b)Second
(c)Third
(d)Fourth
Q: The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
(a)First Amendment
(b)Eighth Amendment
(c)Ninth Amendment
(d)Forty second Amendment
Q: The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were
(a)nominated by the British Parliament
(b)nominated by the Governor General
(c)elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(d)elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League
Q: The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the
(a)continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b)free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c)reservation of 30 per cent posts for women in government recruitments
(d)allocation of a greater number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Amendments to the Constitution) I. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 II. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994 III. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000 IV. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000 List II (Contents) A) Establishment of State-level Rent Tribunals Act, 1991 B) No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh C) Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels D) Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission E) According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi Codes:
(a)I-E, II-A, III-D, IV-B
(b)I-A, II-E, III-C, IV-D
(c)I-E, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(d)I-A, II-E, III-D, IV-B
Q: If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
(a)First
(b)Second
(c)Third
(d)Fifth
Q: Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
(a)Article 349
(b)Article 350
(c)Article 350-A
(d)Article 351
Q: Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a)It lists the distribution of power between the Union and the States
(b)It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c)It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d)It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q: Consider the following functionaries: I. Cabinet Secretary II. Chief Election Commissioner III. Union Cabinet Ministers IV. Chief Justice of India Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
(a)III, IV, II, I
(b)IV, III, I, II
(c)IV, III, II, I
(d)III, IV, I, II
Q: Consider the following statements: An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the I. Lok Sabha. II. Rajya Sabha. III. State Legislatures. IV. President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a)I alone
(b)I, II and III
(c)II, III and IV
(d)I and II
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)Kachchativu and Tin Bigha were territories acquired by the Indian Republic from the French
(b)Kachchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri Lankan and Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the Government of India
(c)Kachchativu and Tin Bigha are areas that were annexed by the Chinese in the 1962 Sino Indian War
(d)Kachchativu and Tin Bigha are enclaves which were transferred to India by lease arrangements with Sri Lanka and Pakistan respectively
Q: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Functionaries) I. President of India II. Judges of the Supreme Court III. Members of Parliament IV. Ministers for the Union List II (Oaths or affirmations) A) Secrecy of Information B) Faithful Discharge of Duties C) Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India D) Upholding the Constitution and the Law
(a)I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(b)I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(c)I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(d)I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
Q: In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ ………. do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
(a)twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b)twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c)twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d)None of the above
Q: Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India. Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last Governor-General of free India. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c)A is true but R is false
(d)A is false but R is true
Q: Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States? I. Election of the President II. Representation of States in Parliament III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a)I, II and III
(b)I, II and IV
(c)I, III and IV
(d)II, III and IV
Frequently Asked Questions
How many UPSC Prelims questions have been asked from Constitutional Framework & Development?▼
UPSC has asked 53 questions on Constitutional Framework & Development in GS Paper 1 Prelims between 1995 and 2024. This sub-topic falls under Indian Polity.
In which years has UPSC asked about Constitutional Framework & Development?▼
Questions on Constitutional Framework & Development have appeared in UPSC Prelims in the following years: 2024, 2023, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2014, 2013, 2008, 2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003, 2002, 2001, 2000, 1999, 1997, 1996, 1995. The topic has appeared in 22 out of 31 years.
What is the difficulty level of Constitutional Framework & Development questions in UPSC Prelims?▼
Among 53 questions on Constitutional Framework & Development: 32 are easy, 20 are moderate, and 1 are difficult. Most questions test conceptual understanding of the topic.