Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947) — UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions
51 questions from UPSC CSE Prelims GS Paper 1 on Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947) (Modern History). Spanning from 1996 to 2026. Practice with show/hide answers.
What UPSC Asks About Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947)
Based on 51 questions across 27 years, UPSC has consistently tested aspirants' understanding of Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947) within the broader Modern History syllabus. The questions range from factual recall to application-based analysis.
Recent trends show UPSC moving towards statement-based questions that combine multiple aspects of Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947). Aspirants should focus on understanding concepts rather than memorizing isolated facts.
Q: Consider the following assertion :
The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.
Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ?
1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Q: In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q: With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting. rights to all the women above the age of 21.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below:
Q: What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?
1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India
Select the correct answer
using the code given below:
Q: Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the provinces
Q: With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?
1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Q: With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations,
which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces
(b)It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department
(c)It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d)It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service, with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits
Q: After Quit India Movement,
C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled "The Way Out".
Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?
(a)The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States
(b)Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander-in-Chief should be Indian leaders
(c)Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All India Federation to be based on a Union of the provinces of British India and the Princely States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Q: Consider the following statements:
The Cripps Proposals include the provision for
1. Full independence for India.
2. Creation of Constitution-making body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy’s Executive Council in which all the portfolios including that of War Members were to be held by the Indian leaders?
Q: Assertion (A): According to the Wavell Plan, the number of Hindu and Muslim members in the Executive Council were to be equal.
Reason (R): Wavell thought that this arrangement would have avoided the partition of India.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q: Consider the following statements:
1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company’s monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Under the Government of India Act, 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. The provincial autonomy
2. The establishment of Federal Court
3. All India Federation at the centre
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements :
1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded electorates for the depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Pact, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements:
Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the
1. Abolition of diarchy in the Governor's provinces.
2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own.
3. Abolition of the principle of communal representation.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
Q: An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was
(a)that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India
(b)the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War
(c)the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war
(d)the framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces
Q: Match List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Acts)
A. Charter Act, 1813
B. Regulating Act
C. Act of 1858
D. Pitt’s India Act
List II (Provisions)
1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the East India Company’s affairs in India
2. Company’s trade monopoly in India was ended
3. The power to govern was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown
4. The Company’s directors were asked to present to the British government all correspondence and documents pertaining to the administration of the company
Codes:
Q: Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting the “portfolio” or departmental system for corporate functioning?
Q: With reference to the colonial period of Indian history, match List I (Person) with List II (Event) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Person)
A. MacDonald
B. Linlithgow
C. Dalhousie
D. Chelmsford
List II (Event)
1. Doctrine of Lapse
2. Communal Award
3. August Offer
4. Dyarchy
Codes:
Q: Match List I with List II
and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Butler Committee
II. Hurtog Committee Report
III. Hunter Inquiry Committee Report
IV. Muddiman Committee Report
List II
A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Report
B) Relationship between the Indian States and Paramount Power
C) Working of Dyarchy as laid down in the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
D) The growth of education in British India and potentialities of its further progress
Codes:
Q: The meeting of Indian and British political leaders during 1930-32 in London has often been referred to as the First, Second and Third Round Table Conferences. It would be incorrect to refer to them as such because
(a)the Indian National Congress did not take part in two of them
(b)Indian parties other than the Indian National Congress participating in the Conference represented sectional interests and not the whole of India
(c)the British Labour Party had withdrawn from the Conference, thereby making the proceedings of the Conference partisan
(d)it was an instance of Conference held in three sessions and not that of three separate conferences
Q: Match List I with List II
and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Governor General of Presidency of Fort William in Bengal (under Regulating Act, 1773)
II. Governor General of India (under Charter Act, 1833)
III. Governor General and Viceroy of India (under Indian Councils Act, 1858)
IV. Governor General and Crown Representative (under Government of India Act, 1935)
List II
A. Archibald Percival Wavell, Viscount and Earl Wavell
B. James Andrew Broun Ramsay, Earl and Marquess of Dalhousie
C. Charles Cornwallis, 2nd Earl and first Marquess of Cornwallis
D. Gilbert John Elliot-Murray-Kynynmond, Earl of Minto
E. Louis Mountbatten, Earl Mountbatten of Burma
Codes:
How many UPSC Prelims questions have been asked from Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947)?▼
UPSC has asked 51 questions on Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947) in GS Paper 1 Prelims between 1996 and 2026. This sub-topic falls under Modern History.
In which years has UPSC asked about Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947)?▼
Questions on Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947) have appeared in UPSC Prelims in the following years: 2026, 2023, 2022, 2021, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012, 2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003, 2002, 2000, 1999, 1998, 1997, 1996. The topic has appeared in 27 out of 31 years.
What is the difficulty level of Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947) questions in UPSC Prelims?▼
Among 51 questions on Constitutional Developments & British Plans (1909-1947): 17 are easy, 33 are moderate, and 1 are difficult. Most questions test conceptual understanding of the topic.
