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200 MCQs · GS
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding SOUL – School of Ultimate Leadership?
The Department of Science and Technology, Government of India had declared 28th February as National Science Day for celebrating the memory of the _____________.
Which of the following statements regarding Election Commission of India is/are correct?
In around the 8th century BCE, ________ described the concept of Pythagorean theorem and gave the rules of right-angled triangle.
Which of the following countries was recently in the news regarding an outbreak of human metapneumovirus (HMPV)?
In which state was the 'Mahabharata Vatika' featuring 37 plant species mentioned in the ‘Mahabharata’, set up for plant conservation?
The Flamingo Festival 2025, one of India's premier eco-tourism events attracting thousands of visitors from across the globe, is celebrated in which of the following states?
Which of the following is India's first 'AI-enabled' warship?
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Cook Islands that was recently in the news?
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the 10th Financial Literacy Week (FLW) 2025 with the theme ____________________.
Consider the following statements about the significance of the Shamlaji fair for the Bhil Adivasis: 1. The fair is an important religious pilgrimage site for the Bhil community. 2. It provides a continuous marketplace for trade and commerce during the festival. 3. The fair is exclusively meant for traders and merchants with no religious significance. Which of the above statements are correct?
Recently China's Zhurong rover discovered 3.6 billion-year-old sandy beach deposits on ________, indicating that the planet once had an ancient ocean.
Recently _____________, India’s Finance Secretary, has been appointed as the 11th Chairperson of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the following countries launched the Green Transition Alliance India (GTAI) to strengthen its collaboration with India in the field of sustainable energy solutions?
India and ____________ agreed to resume free trade negotiations following the discussions between their Prime Ministers during the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro in November, 2024.
Recently ____________ has been appointed as the ‘Principal Secretary-2’ to Prime Minister of India.
The Aravali Safari Park project proposed to be the world’s largest safari park, will be developed in ___________.
India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with _______ to expand cooperation in the mining sector, specifically focusing on lithium exploration.
The world largest propellant mixing equipment, a 10 ton vertical mixer is developed by _____.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Matsya-6000 submersible developed under India’s Deep Ocean Mission by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)?
In a significant milestone for India's agricultural exports, the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) successfully completed India's first-ever commercial shipments of premium Sangola and Bhagwa pomegranates to __________.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the G-SAFAL scheme?
According to the Socio-Economic Review, 2024-2025 of Gujarat, Gujarat comes in _______ category in Logistic Ease Across Different States (LEADS), 2024.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in Gujarat?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the economy of Gujarat according to the Socio-Economic Review, 2024-2025 of Gujarat? 1. Gujarat has consistently contributed over 8% to India’s GST collections, highlighting its economic vitality and strength. 2. During the year 2022-23, Gujarat stood first in handling total cargo among the states of India. 3. According to the results of Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) 2022-23, Gujarat is first in the country in Industrial Production and Fixed Capital.
_________ is one of the cities chosen by the NITI Aayog for its Growth Hub (G-HUB) programme to boost their economic growth.
Which of the following major crops are covered under the Minimum Support Price Policy of Government of India? 1. Sorghum 2. Maize 3. Cotton 4. Sugarcane
In the Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman, the limit of the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the insurance sector has been raised from ________ to ______.
Reliance industries has announced plans to build the world’s largest data centre in ________
_____________ initiated its withdrawal from the World Health Organization (WHO) on January 20, 2025 citing mishandling of the COVID-19 pandemic financial disparities and political influence concerns.
Three statements 1, 2 and 3 are given below, followed by a question Statements: 1: Raj has a higher salary than Mohan but earns less than Suresh. 2: Suresh is the highest earner among them. 3: Mohan earns less than Amit. Question: Who among Amit, Mohan, Raj and Suresh has the lowest salary? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?
Study the following statements and answer the question: 1. Ravi is older than Ajay. 2. Sanesh and Dhruv are of same age. 3. Priyank is the youngest. 4. Kaushal is younger than Dhruv. 5. Kaushal is older than Ravi. How many statements are required to determine the oldest person/persons?
Four groups of numbers are given below: Group 1: 19, 37, 51, 67 Group 2: 13, 29, 43, 61 Group 3: 17, 31, 53, 71 Group 4: 11, 23, 47, 59 Statements: 1. All numbers in a group follow a specific pattern related to prime numbers. 2. One of the groups contains a non-prime number, which makes it different from the others. Question: Which group is different from the others?
If A, B, C and D are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (A × B) + (C × D)?
In a park, there is a rectangular walking track. One bench is placed along each of the north and south sides, and two distinct benches are placed along each of the east and west sides. How many different triangular areas can be formed by selecting any three benches as vertices?
Three workers Ajay, Milan and Sagar can complete a construction project independently in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. Ajay works on Monday, Milan on Tuesday, Sagar on Wednesday and then the cycle repeats (Ajay again on Thursday, and so on). Consider the following statements: 1. The project will be completed on Thursday. 2. The project will be completed in 11 days. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
There are four people (A, B, C and D) where each have a unique seat assigned at a table. If the four people randomly sit in the seats, then consider the following statements: 1. It is possible that exactly one person sits in the wrong seat. 2. There are only six ways in which exactly two people can sit in their correct seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
There are five students (Amit, Bhavesh, Charan, Deepak and Esha) who applied for a scholarship, and the following statements were made about their selection: True Statement: One of Amit and Bhavesh was selected. False Statement: At least one of Charan and Deepak was selected. True Statement: At most two of Charan, Deepak and Esha were selected. Based on the above information, consider the following conclusions: 1. At least four students received the scholarship. 2. Deepak was selected for the scholarship. Which of the above conclusions is/are correct?
In a line of passengers waiting for a bus, Ravi is 21st from the front, and Suresh is 12th from the back. After they interchange their positions, Suresh becomes 17th from the back. How many passengers are there in the line?
Arrange the following in a logical and meaningful sequence: 1. Province 2. Citizen 3. World 4. Country 5. City 6. Continent
A delivery truck drives 12 km south. It then turns right and travels 15 km followed by another right turn to go 16 km. Finally it makes one more right turn and moves 15 km to reach its final stop. Which direction is the truck facing now?
Rahul and Sohan start traveling together from one location. They walk 10 km towards the north. Rahul then turns left and walks 5 km, while Sohan turns right and walks 3 km. Rahul then takes another left turn and walks 15 km, whereas Sohan turns right again and walks 15 km. How far is Rahul from Sohan now?
Statements: 1. All doctors are trained. 2. All trained individuals are skilled. Conclusions: I. All doctors are skilled. II. All skilled individuals are doctors. Which of the following is correct?
In a factory, there are two types of machines, X and Y. The ratio of profits earned by machines X and Y is 3:2, while the ratio of their maintenance costs is 5:3. Statements: 1. The total savings after deducting maintenance costs is ₹10,000. 2. The total maintenance cost of both machines together is ₹40,000. Conclusions: I. The total profit earned by both the machines can be calculated. II. The profit earned by machine X alone can be determined. Which of the following is correct?
The letters of the word 'MISUNDERSTANDINGS' are arranged alphabetically in reverse order. How many positions of the letter/letters will remain unchanged?
If 7 × 6 × 2 = 12, 9 × 1 × 3 = 9, 11 × 7 × 2 = 10, then what is the value of 13 × 6 × 5?
Question: A sequence follows a specific pattern: 40, 20, 20, 30, 60, 150, X. Can we say both statements given below are sufficient to find X value? Statements: 1. Each term in the sequence follows a combination of division, multiplication and addition operations. 2. The pattern includes division by 2, repetition, addition and multiplication by increasing factors (2, 2.5 and 3).
Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Is y a whole number? Statement-1 : y/5 is not a whole number. Statement-2 : 5y is a whole number. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
Two players, A and B participated in a gaming competition. 80% of the registered participants played the game and there were no disqualifications. No participant skipped the game. A scored 40% of the total points earned by all players and won by 120 points. What is the total number of registered participants?
What is the number of ways to form a two-letter code using distinct non-vowel letters from the English alphabet?
A family of two generations consists of six members: P, Q, R, S, T and U. The family has three males and three females. There are two married couples and two unmarried siblings. Statements: 1. U is P’s daughter, and Q is R’s mother-in-law. 2. T is an unmarried male, and S is a male. Is it possible to determine the correct relationship among the family members?
40 players are sitting in a circle and one of them (Player-1) has a token. The token is passed clockwise in a specific pattern: Player-1 passes it to Player-2, Player-2 passes it to Player-4, Player-4 passes it to Player-7, and so on. After how many such passes (including the first player), will the token return to Player-1?
The average monthly salary of employees A, B and C in a company is ₹40,000. The average monthly salary of employees B, D and E is ₹42,000. The salary of employee F is equal to that of employee B. What is the average monthly salary of A, B, C, D, E and F?
In a class of 130 students, 80 students are from City A and the remaining 50 students are from City B. A total of 80 students in the class can play basketball. Statements: 1. At least 30 students from City B can play basketball. 2. Not more than 50 students from City A can play basketball. Is it possible to determine how many students from City A can play basketball?
A carpenter is cutting square wooden tiles. Due to a measurement mistake, the length of each side is measured 3% larger than its actual size. What is the percentage error in the calculated surface area of these tiles?
A company hosts its annual conference every year on 10th July. In 2024, the conference was held on a Wednesday. The management wants to know on which day the conference was held in 2023. Which day of the week was 10th July, 2023?
A bakery with 5 identical ovens can bake 350 cookies per hour. At this rate, how many cookies could 8 such ovens bake in 3 hours?
Which one will replace the question mark? 5 5 6 8 2 2 2 3 4 4 6 ?
Read the following statements and answer the question. Statements: 1. One-fourth of the price of each chair is ₹500. 2. The total price of three chairs is ₹2000 more than the total price of two chairs. What will be the total cost of 10 identical chairs?
Consider the following statements: 1. The study of national income and business cycles falls in the domain of macroeconomics. 2. The study of inflation and unemployment falls in the domain of microeconomics. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Consider the following statements with respect to Securities Transaction Tax (STT) in India: 1. STT is a tax levied on transactions carried out on the domestic stock exchanges. 2. STT is an indirect tax. 3. STT is collected for the government of India by the stock exchanges. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Recently, RBI has decreased Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Such a step may allow banks to cut the interest rates for loans because of which one of the following reasons?
Which one of the following best defines marginal cost?
Which one of the following is not a feature of monopolistic competition?
Which one of the following measures made monetary policy independent of fiscal policy in India?
What is duty inversion in context of tariffs?
Consider the following statements: 1. Core inflation includes the prices of food and fuel 2. Headline inflation excludes the prices of food and fuel Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. India accommodates 17.7% of the world’s total population 2. In 1966, a separate department was established to promote family planning 3. Long-term objective of National Population Policy, 2000 is to stabilize the population by 2070 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Increase in consumption expenditure resulting from increased disposable income can cause demand-pull inflation 2. Increase in the cost of production resulting from increase in wage rate can cause cost-push inflation Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which of the following correctly describes India’s engagement with the United Nations (UN)? 1. India is a founding member of the United Nations. 2. India is a permanent member of the UN Security Council (UNSC). 3. India has contributed to multiple UN peacekeeping operations across the world. 4. India has ratified the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following existing schemes have been subsumed under the recently launched program ‘Samagra Shiksha’? 1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan 2. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan 3. Teacher Education Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following statements regarding Public Private Partnership (PPP) in infrastructure in India: 1. Policies and projects under PPP are regulated by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance 2. PPP has well-defined allocation of risk between the private and public entities Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to the workforce employed in India?
Which of the following statements is correct about the external concessional loans that India gets as Official Development Assistance?
From an equilibrium position, demand and supply of a commodity increase proportionately. Which one of the following is the most likely outcome of this situation with respect to new equilibrium price and output?
Consider the following statements: 1. Planning Commission had no provision for part-time members 2. NITI Aayog has a number of part-time members 3. Planning Commission framed policies for states 4. NITI Aayog does not have the powers to frame policies for the states Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the second lowest debt-to-gross state domestic product (GSDP) ratio among all states 2. A low debt-to-GSDP ratio denotes an unhealthy financial position Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which one of the following best defines an expansionary fiscal policy?
Consider the following statements regarding Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956: 1. This policy was based on P.C. Mahalanobis model 2. The emphasis was on setting up small and medium industries in the backward regions 3. Industries were classified in three categories in this policy Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Net exports are positive if import payments are more than export earnings 2. Net exports can never be zero Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. The first SEZ policy in India was announced in 2000 2. The objective of SEZ policy was to increase foreign investment in India and to provide an internationally competitive environment for exports 3. The SEZ Act was passed in 2010 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding neutral monetary policy stance of the RBI: 1. A neutral stance suggests that the RBI can either cut repo rate or increase it. 2. This stance is typically adopted when the policy priority is equal on both inflation and growth. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements with respect to land reforms in India: 1. One of the objectives of land reforms was to pass on the ownership of land from landlords to peasants 2. Land reforms resulted in decrease in the cultivation of cash crops Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements with respect to the balance of payments: 1. Exports and imports of services are recorded in current account 2. Unilateral flows are recorded in capital account 3. Current account surplus always equals capital account deficit Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. To control inflation, repo rate should be decreased by the RBI 2. To tackle recession, the government should increase its expenditure Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which one of the following is not a factor responsible for overall balance of payment imbalance in India since 1991?
Which of the following would be considered as foreign direct investment in India? 1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India 2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian company 3. Portfolio investment Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. Harappa and Mohenjo Daro, the two ancient sites in the Indus Valley were excavated in 1920. 2. These cities brought to light the civilization which was first called ‘Indus Valley Civilization’ but was later termed as ‘Indus Civilization’ due to the discovery of more sites. 3. Alternatively, it has come to be known as ‘Harappan Civilization’ after the name of its first site.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Indus Valley Civilization was the first urbanization in India. 2. It had a well-planned drainage system and grid-pattern town planning. 3. The society followed a strict hierarchical structure with social inequalities. 4. Agriculture was the primary economic activity with trade and commerce flourishing.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Rig Veda is composed in Sanskrit. 2. It was originally recited and heard rather than read. 3. The Rig Veda was written down at the time of its composition. 4. The Rig Veda contains hymns (suktas) in praise of various God and Goddesses.
What are Banni, Rabari and Bavalia in Gujarat?
Which of the following statements is true about the traditional art forms of Gujarat?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding 'Calicoes' as textile exports from India? 1. Calicoes were made from silk fabric and featured intricate designs. 2. The name ‘Calico’ is derived from the Indian city of Calicut. 3. Calicoes were popular in Europe, particularly in England, where they were used for fashionable garments. 4. The decline of Calico exports from India was primarily due to the industrialization and protectionist policies of the British government.
Which of the following statements regarding the support of Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar is correct?
Which of the following statements regarding Mahagujarat Movement are correct? 1. The Mahagujarat Movement was a demand for a separate Gujarat state from the bilingual Bombay state. 2. Indulal Yagnik was the prominent leader who spearheaded the movement. 3. The movement led to the formation of Gujarat and Maharashtra as separate states in 1960. 4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the main leader of the movement.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Religious and Social Reform Movements in Gujarat? 1. The Swaminarayan Movement emphasized moral discipline, devotion and the eradication of social evils like alcoholism and violence. 2. Arya Samaj, introduced by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in Gujarat, promoted Vedic teachings, Shuddhi (reconversion) and the abolition of untouchability. 3. Prarthana Samaj in Gujarat advocated for widow remarriage, women’s education and caste equality. 4. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the founder of the Swaminarayan Movement in Gujarat.
Which of the following statements regarding Indian Revolutionaries in India and Abroad during the Indian National Movement are correct? 1. Ghadar Party, founded in the United States and Canada aimed to overthrow British Rule in India. 2. Bhagat Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad were the key members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) which sought independence through revolutionary activities. 3. Rash Bihari Bose played a crucial role in organizing the Indian National Army (INA) before Subhas Chandra Bose took its leadership. 4. Mahatma Gandhi was associated with the Non-Cooperation Movement which emphasized non-violent resistance against the British rule.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Gujarat’s connection with the Indus Valley Civilization? 1. Excavations at sites like Lothal, Patan (Somnath), Rojadi and Rangapur have confirmed that Gujarat was a part of the urban civilization nearly 4000 years ago. 2. The pottery forms in Kutch and Saurashtra and bead-making techniques in Cambay (Khambhat) show similarities with excavated artefacts from the Indus Valley Civilization. 3. Lothal was a significant maritime trade center, and evidence suggests that maritime activity in the region continues to this day. 4. Dholavira, another major Indus Valley site in Gujarat, was known for its iron tools and weapons.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Traditional Architecture of Gujarat before the Advent of Muslim Rule? 1. The architecture of Gujarat featured intricate wood carvings, stone lattices (Jali work) and elaborate ornamentation in buildings. 2. The Jama Masjid of Ahmedabad, built after the city’s foundation, incorporated indigenous architectural styles with local craftsmanship. 3. The construction of temples and structures in Gujarat followed a blended style, incorporating elements of both Hindu and Jain architectural traditions. 4. The architectural developments in Gujarat were solely influenced by Persian and Central Asian styles with no native artistic traditions.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the celebration of Bhai bij (Bhai Dooj) and its significance in different communities? 1. On Bhai Bij, Hindu women invite their brother at home, offer them a feast and receive gifts in return. 2. Many pilgrims from Gujarat travel to Mathura on special trains and buses to bathe in the Yamuna river on this day. 3. Among Jains, Bhai Bij is considered auspicious because Sunanda, the sister of Mahavir, invited her brother Nandivardhan to her home to end the mourning period after Mahavir’s Nirvana. 4. Bhai Bij is primarily a Hindu festival but also holds cultural and historical significance in Jain traditions, particularly in relation to the legacy of Mahavir and his family.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the importance of fairs and festivals in the contemporary context of Gujarat? 1. Gujarat's fair and festivals serve as a platform for showcasing traditional crafts, agricultural products and livestock trade, continuing the historical tradition of economic and cultural exchange. 2. Events like Rann Utsav, Tarnetar Fair and Bhavnath Fair bring together diverse religious communities, artisans and craftsmen from across India. 3. The International Kite Festival (Uttarayan) and Modhera Dance Festival highlight Gujarat’s ability to blend tradition with modern trends, attracting global tourists and fostering cultural diplomacy. 4. In modern Gujarat, fairs and festivals continue to be a driving force for tourism and local economic growth, preserving cultural heritage while adapting to contemporary trends.
Which of the following statements regarding Uma Shankar Joshi and the Jnanpith Award are correct? 1. Uma Shankar Joshi was a renowned Gujarati poet and writer known for his contribution to modern Gujarati literature. 2. He was awarded the Jnanpith Award in May, 1968 becoming the first Gujarati writer to receive this prestigious honour. 3. His literary works reflect themes of Gandhian philosophy, nationalism and social reform. 4. The Jnanpith Award is given exclusively for poetry, and Uma Shankar Joshi received it solely for his poetic contributions.
_______________ festival is celebrated as a tribute to Vijayanagar Empire in _____ state of India.
What are the light, humourous songs played during wedding called in Gujarat?
Which of the following islands in Gujarat is in the shape of a conch (Shankh)?
_____________ are the stone symbols of the spirit of courage and bravery found in Gujarat, Saurashtra and Kutch.
Which deity did the Magg Parsi Brahmins from Punjab bring to Gujarat in 4th century and is worshipped today as well?
The Sun Temple of Modhera, Jain Temples of Delwara and Rani Ki Vaav are the examples of _______________.
__________ is a famous tribal fair held at Khedbrahma for mourning, festivities and matchmaking.
Badamwari spring blossom festival is celebrated in _________________.
_________ built Moti Shahi Mahal or Shahibaug Palace from which an area is also called in Ahmedabad.
___________ invited Raja Ravi Varma, the great Indian artist and painter, who visited Gujarat and painted some memorable paintings like Vishwamitra, Deepdarshan, etc.
Which of the following is a female-dominated folk dance?
The tradition of classical music in Gujarat began with __________.
_________ at ________ was set up by Rotary Club International.
Who are the creators of 'Mata Ni Pachhadi', a printing art?
________ style of painting practices in Kutch came from Iran.
Consider the following statements: 1. Earth is a planet and receives all its light and heat from the Sun. 2. Earth is the fourth planet from the Sun and the third largest planet in size. Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
Consider the following statements about the Southern Solstice: 1. The South Pole is tilted towards the Sun. 2. The Sun's rays fall directly on the Tropic of Capricorn. 3. The Southern Hemisphere has seasons with short days and long nights. Which of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct option from the following regarding the reasons for the change in seasons.
Consider the following statements: 1. The uppermost layer of the Earth is called the crust and it is the thinnest layer. 2. The thickness of the oceanic crust is greater than the continental crust. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. The mountains which have everlasting rivers of ice are called glaciers. 2. The chain of mountains arranged in the line is called a range. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Identify the waterfall of plateau regions from the waterfalls given below.
Consider the following statements: 1. Nitrogen gas present in the atmosphere helps in the growth of all types of living organisms. 2. Carbon dioxide gas helps in the growth of trees and plants. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
The Earth's atmosphere is divided into five different layers. In which of the following layers does the temperature increase with the increase in altitude? 1. Crustacean 2. Stratosphere 3. Mesosphere 4. Ionosphere Choose the correct option from the following.
Which of the following evidence is presented in the favour of the fact that climate change has been occurring since the beginning of the Earth's origin? 1. Deposition of sediments in glacial lakes 2. Rings found in tree trunks 3. Depositional landforms found in deserts Choose the correct option from the following.
Consider the following statements: 1. At perihelion, the Earth receives more insolation than at aphelion. 2. The difference in insolation during aphelion and perihelion has a comprehensive effect on the Earth’s daily weather. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Tropical cyclones do not form near the equator. The main reason for this is 1. Coriolis force is zero. 2. The value of gravity is the lowest. 3. The winds flow at right angle to the Isobar. Select the correct option from the following.
Which of the following local winds blow during the day time? 1. Land waves 2. Sea waves 3. Valley waves 4. Katabatic winds Choose the correct option from the following.
Consider the following statements: 1. The boundary between two different types of air masses is called a front. 2. Front are formed only in the middle latitudes. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about tropical cyclones: 1. These cyclones originate only in the sea. 2. These cyclones are more destructive than the temperate cyclone. 3. These cyclones move from east to west. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about Köppen's group 'A' type of climate: 1. This type of climate is found between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. 2. The climate here remains hot and humid. 3. The annual temperature difference is very high here. Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
Through which of the following processes is there continuous exchange of water between the atmosphere, oceans and continents? 1. Evaporation 2. Transpiration 3. Condensation 4. Humidity Choose the correct option from the following.
Consider the following statements: 1. The temperature at which water starts to evaporate is called the latent heat of vaporization. 2. The capacity to absorb water decreases with increase in air temperature. 3. The higher the wind speed, the more intense will be the evaporation. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Consider the statements given below regarding the distribution of rainfall in the world: 1. There is more rainfall over the oceans than the land areas. 2. There is heavy rainfall on the east coast between 25° and 40° North and South latitudes of the equator. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Which of the following factors affect the salinity of ocean water? 1. Evaporation and precipitation 2. Rivers 3. Mangrove vegetation 4. Ocean currents Choose the correct option from the following.
Consider the following statements: 1. Mobility in ocean water occurs only due to the effect of external forces. 2. There are both horizontal and vertical movements in ocean water. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Which states of India are surrounded by international border on three sides? 1. Manipur 2. Assam 3. Sikkim 4. Tripura Select the correct option from the following.
Consider the following statements about the Tapi River: 1. The Tapi river flows south of the Satpura mountain range. 2. The Tapi river is the only river in the Indian peninsula that flows from east to west. 3. The Ajanta and Satmala mountains are situated to the north of the Tapi river. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. The Himalayan mountain range extends from the Satluj river to the Brahmaputra river in a west-east direction. 2. The width of the Himalayan mountain range decreases from west to east. 3. The height of the western part to the Himalayan mountain range shows greater diversity than those in the eastern part. Which of the above statements are correct?
Consider the following statement(s) about the Ganges river system: 1. The river Ganga leaves the mountainous region and enters the plains near Haridwar. 2. After originating from the Yamunotri Glacier, the Yamuna river flows parallel to the right bank of the Ganga. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Consider the following statements with reference to Western disturbance: 1. Western disturbances originate in the Caspian Sea. 2. They enter India through the Western jet stream. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
In which states of India are Tropical evergreen forests found? 1. On the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats 2. In the Andaman and Nicobar islands 3. On the Aravalli mountain range 4. On the hills of the north-eastern region Select the correct option from the following.
Consider the following statements about red soil: 1. Red soil develops in areas where crystalline igneous rocks are found. 2. Red soil appears yellow when hydrated. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
The peninsular section of India is mainly composed of which rocks? 1. Granite 2. Basalt 3. Gneiss 4. Sandstone Select the correct option from the following.
Consider the following statements: 1. India is rich in iron ore containing high-grade iron content. 2. Hematite is the most important industrial iron ore and is used in maximum quantities. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
The oldest known language family in India is
Consider the following statements regarding the origin and evolution of the Indian Constitution: Statements: 1. The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th January, 1950. 2. The Government of India Act, 1935 had no influence on the Indian Constitution. 3. The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements correctly describe/(s) the characteristics of the Indian Constitution? Statements: 1. The Indian Constitution establishes India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic. 2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is justiciable and can be enforced in a Court of Law. 3. The Indian Constitution provides a single citizenship for all its citizens. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements accurately reflect/(s) the provisions of the Indian Constitution? Statements: 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enforceable by the courts. 2. The Indian Constitution provides a federal system with unitary features. 3. The Fundamental Rights can be amended by the Parliament without any restrictions. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding important Constitutional Amendments: Statements: 1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is known as the 'Mini-Constitution' as it introduced significant changes, including the words Socialist, Secular and Integrity in the Preamble. 2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 restored certain provisions of the Fundamental Rights that were curtailed during the emergency. 3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 provided constitutional status to urban local bodies. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements correctly pertain/(s) to the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Indian Constitution? Statements: 1. The Basic Structure Doctrine was established by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973). 2. The Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot alter its Basic Structure. 3. The S.R. Bommai Case (1994) reinforced the Basic Structure Doctrine by ruling that secularism is an essential part of the Constitution. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements correctly pertains to the Doctrine of Federalism in India? Statements: 1. Indian federalism is described as 'quasi-federal' due to its unitary bias. 2. The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution demarcates powers between the Centre and the States through Union, State and Concurrent lists. 3. The Government of India Act, 1935 laid the foundation for federal provisions in the Indian Constitution. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following constitutional authorities is a quasi-judicial body? Statements: 1. The Election Commission of India 2. The Finance Commission 3. The National Green Tribunal 4. The Central Vigilance Commission Select the correct option:
Which of the following statements correctly describe/(s) the powers and responsibilities of statutory and quasi-judicial bodies in India? 1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a quasi-judicial body that has the power to adjudicate the disputes related to political parties under the Tenth Schedule. 2. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body that exclusively handles environmental disputes under the NGT Act, 2010. 3. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is a constitutional body responsible for investigating corruption cases in the country. 4. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates financial markets but does not have quasi-judicial powers. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
The power of the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment under Article 72 applies to: 1. Offenses against laws made by Parliament 2. Offenses committed by members of the armed forces 3. Death penalty cases 4. Offenses against state laws Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is related to local self-governance in India? 1. 61st Amendment Act, 1989 2. 69th Amendment Act, 1991 3. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 4. 74th Amendment Act, 1992 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Which of the following policies or programs are aimed at improving governance at the state and central level? 1. Digital India Mission 2. Smart Cities Mission 3. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Scheme 4. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India was introduced to: 1. Allow the courts to take suo motu cognizance of matters affecting the public interest. 2. Ensure legal representation for the economically weaker sections of society. 3. Enable NGOs and activists to file petitions on behalf of affected communities. 4. Restrict the judiciary’s power to interfere in government policy decisions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Which of the following correctly describes the doctrine of Collective Responsibility under the Indian Constitution? 1. It applies only to the Union Council of Ministers and not to the State Councils of Ministers. 2. It means that ministers must publicly support cabinet decisions even if they personally disagree. 3. The President can dismiss an individual minister for misconduct, even if the Council of Ministers retains confidence. 4. The doctrine finds its constitutional basis in Article 75 at the Union level and Article 164 at the State level. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Which of the following statements regarding judicial activism in India are correct? 1. It refers to proactive judicial intervention in legislative and executive matters to uphold constitutional values. 2. Judicial activism in India gained momentum through Public Interest Litigations (PILs). 3. The judiciary can strike down laws or executive actions that violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution. 4. The Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) explicitly defined judicial activism as a constitutional doctrine. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following statements about India's quasi-judicial bodies are correct? 1. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) can impose penalties for human rights violations. 2. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) deals with disputes related to the service conditions of civil servants. 3. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is responsible for regulating monopolistic trade practices. 4. The Election Commission of India (ECI) has quasi-judicial powers in matters related to the Model Code of Conduct violations. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following institutions play a key role in India’s international relations? 1. Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) 2. Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) 3. Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) 4. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution deal with the separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary? 1. Article 50 – Separation of Judiciary from the Executive 2. Article 123 – Ordinance-making power of the President 3. Article 246 – Division of legislative powers between Centre and States 4. Article 312 – Creation of All India Services Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following correctly describes the role of State Election Commissions (SECs) under the Indian Constitution? 1. SECs conduct elections to Panchayati Raj institutions and Municipal bodies. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner of India has the authority to remove a State Election Commissioner. 3. SECs derive their powers from Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Constitution. 4. The tenure and conditions of service of State Election Commissioners are determined by the Governor of the state. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
The Indo-US Nuclear Deal (2008) was controversial because: 1. It allowed India to engage in nuclear trade despite not being a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). 2. It imposed restrictions on India's sovereign right to conduct nuclear tests. 3. The deal was signed under the WTO framework. 4. It led to the introduction of a Confidence Motion in Parliament due to political opposition. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following statements correctly describe India's federal structure? 1. India follows a quasi-federal system with a strong center. 2. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States is outlined in Schedule 7 of the Constitution. 3. The Finance Commission is responsible for determining the financial relations between the Union and the States. 4. The Governor has the power to dissolve a State Assembly even without the recommendation of the Council of Ministers. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following statements about the Constitutional Amendments in India are correct? 1. The First Constitutional Amendment (1951) introduced reasonable restrictions on fundamental rights. 2. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is also known as the 'Mini-Constitution' of India. 3. The 44th Amendment (1978) restored the fundamental rights diluted by the 42nd Amendment. 4. The 101st Amendment (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure of the Indian Judiciary? 1. The Supreme Court of India was established under Article 124 of the Constitution. 2. The High Courts in India function under Articles 214-231 of the Constitution. 3. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Council of Ministers. 4. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 for violating judicial independence. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following correctly describes the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935? 1. It introduced Provincial Autonomy and abolished Diarchy at the provincial level. 2. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court in India. 3. It proposed a federation of British India and Princely States though the federation never materialized. 4. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Rights for the first time in India. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following statements about Local Self-Government in India is correct? 1. The Panchayati Raj System is based on the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957). 2. The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 provided for the establishment of three-tier Panchayati Raj institutions in all states. 3. The 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with powers and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj institutions. 4. The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting elections to both Panchayati Raj institutions and State Legislatures. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which of the following statements about Judicial Review in India are correct? 1. Judicial Review is derived from Article 13 of the Indian Constitution. 2. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to review both Constitutional Amendments and laws. 3. The Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973) established that the basic structure of the constitution cannot be amended. 4. Judicial Review in India is broader than in the United States, as it allows for the review of Constitutional Amendments. Select the correct answer using the codes below:
Which type of aircraft benefits the most from flying in a jet stream?
The fermentation of Idli and Dosa batter is primarily driven by lactic acid bacteria (LAB), with Leuconostoc mesenteroides playing a key role in the initial stages. This bacterium initiates the fermentation process by producing: (i) lactic acid (ii) acetic acid (iii) carbon dioxide Choose the correct option:
What is the typical recommended tyre pressure range for passenger vehicles in India?
A coal-based thermal power plant supplies electricity to the households in a town located in Gujarat. Approximately how much CO2 would be emitted when 9-watt LED bulb operates for 1 hour?
If a Pollution Under Control (PUC) Certificate is to be issued for a petrol-driven 4-wheeler, which of the following needs to be evaluated in the respective exhaust gas? (i) Hydro Carbon (HC) (ii) Carbon Monoxide (CO) (iii) Ammonia (NH3) (iv) Hydrogen disulphide (H2S)
Which of the following statement(s) is / are true? (i) Gold is insoluble in nitric acid, a property that has been used to confirm the presence of gold in items giving rise to the term ‘acid test’ (ii) Silver is soluble in nitric acid and form Silver Nitrate, Water and Nitrogen Oxide
Among the various oxides of nitrogen, which one is the most harmful?
Which of the following statement(s) is / are true? (i) Bowen Ratio is defined as the ratio of sensible heat flux to latent heat flux (ii) High Bowen Ratio (>1) indicates moist surfaces (e.g., water bodies or vegetated areas)
Which of the following statement(s) is / are true? (i) Ministry of Power has established National Mission on the use of biomass in thermal power plants known as SAMARTH (ii) The policy on biomass utilization for power generation through co-firing in coal-based power plants, mandates all thermal power plants in the country to use 5-10% biomass for power production.
Which of the following is / are the objective(s) of Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana? (i) To separate agriculture and non-agriculture feeders for judicious rostering of supply to agricultural and non-agricultural consumers in rural area (ii) Strengthening and augmentation of sub-transmission and distribution infrastructure in rural area (iii) Metering in rural area (feeders, distribution transformers and consumers)
Under the Green Open Access Rules, 2022, the minimum size of the renewable energy project eligible for open access is
Which of the following statement(s) is / are true? (i) The government introduced well-targeted systems of subsidy to LPG consumers through PAHAL (ii) PAHAL has entered into Guinness Book of World Records as being the largest direct benefit transfer scheme
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true focusing the establishment of an ethanol plant in Haryana for utilizing agricultural residue which is set to revolutionize India's ‘waste-to-wealth’ efforts? (i) About 2 lakh tonnes of rice straw (parali) will be used to generate 3 crore litres of ethanol annually (ii) Considering the Ethanol Blending Program, this ethanol will reduce greenhouse gases equivalent to about three lakh tonnes of CO2 equivalent emissions per annum.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are true? (i) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) has a mandate to achieve up to a 40% reduction in PM10 levels or to meet national standards (60 µg/m³) in the 131 non-attainment and million plus cities/urban agglomerations by 2025-26 (ii) PRANA is the special purpose vehicle which essentially funds the various mitigation strategies across the non-attainment cities
A key technical feature of the "One Nation - One Grid - One Frequency" system in India is
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding National Green Tribunal? (i) The tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 but shall be guided by principles of natural justice (ii) National Green Tribunal has five places of sitting i.e. Principal Bench in Bhopal and Zonal Bench in Delhi, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai.
Which of the following is/are connected with Ozone Layer Protection? (i) Montreal Protocol (ii) Vienna Convention (iii) Stockholm Convention (iv) Rotterdam Convention Choose the correct option:
Which of the following is/are not a part of the India's Intended Nationally Determined Contribution towards climate action? (i) Reducing emission intensity of GDP (ii) Increasing the share of non-fossil fuel-based electricity
Which of the following is/are true for e-Sampark? (i) e-Sampark is a mechanism to connect the government directly with citizens across India by running mailer, outbound dialling and SMS campaigns (ii) e-Sampark is a one-stop solution providing technical support and services towards a hassle- free admission process in academic institutions across the country
Which of the following is/are true regarding the vision of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)? (i) To empower Aadhaar number holders of India with a unique identity. (ii) To provide a digital platform to authenticate anytime, anywhere.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Quantum Simulator? (i) It is one of the first initiatives to address the common challenge of advancing the Quantum Computing research frontiers in the country (ii) It is accomplished as a collaborative effort of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Indian Institute of Sciences, Bengaluru and Indian Institute of Technology, Roorkee
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Cyber Surakshit Bharat? (i) It is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. (ii) It was conceptualized with the mission to spread awareness about cybercrime and build the capacities of Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT officials across all government departments, banks and PSU.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (i) Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) is India’s independent regional navigation satellite system designed to provide accurate Position, Velocity and Timing (PVT) service to users in India as well as to region extending about 1500 km beyond Indian land mass. (ii) NavIC will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) and Restricted Service (RS).
Which of the following are the portals of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)? (i) Bhoonidhi (ii) Bhuvan (iii) VEDAS (iv) SPARK
What critical milestone did ISRO achieve with the SPADEX satellites in March, 2025?