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386 MCQs · Aptitude (Group-I) + GS (Group-I) + GS (Group-II)
If 808 x 8008 x 80008 = A and the sum of all the digits in the A is M, what will be the value of sqrt(M) ?
(Directions for questions 2-3) : There are two series given below, of which one is complete and follows a certain pattern. Based on the pattern of the complete series, find the answering term in the other series with missing terms marked by alphabets. Which number will come in place of D in the following ? Series: 4, 25, 169, 1009, 5041, 20161 and 6, A, B, C, D, E
Which number will come in place of E in the following ? Series: 4, 7.5, 21.25, 77.875, 354.9375, 1957.65625 and 5, A, B, C, D, E
Amit has to travel distances of 66 km, 88 km and 110 km on three consecutive days. He travels with the greatest possible constant speed (in km/hr) on all the three days so that he covers the respective distances in an integer number of hours on each day. How many hours will it take him to complete the journey ?
If pKq means p + q, pLq means p - q, pMq means p % q, pNq means p / q, which of the following equation is incorrect ?
A pipe 'N' can fill a tank in 1/4 hour and another pipe 'M' can fill it in 1/6 hour. Both pipes are opened to fill the empty tank, but after 1/15 hour a leak developed in the tank. The leak alone can empty the full tank in just 1/12 hour. If both pipes were opened at 9 pm, then at what time will the tank be emptied ? [Question Deleted]
Rajani has a digital watch that shows time in a 24-hour format. The time on the watch shows 23:45. After passing 'A' minutes the watch shows the time in such a way that the four whole numbers are again arranged in ascending order from left to right. Then what will be the value of A x A ?
If E * F means 'E is the son of F', E + F means 'E is the father of F', E > F means 'E is the daughter of F', E < F means 'E is the wife of F', which of the following pair of people represents first cousins with regard to the relation given in the expressions, if it is provided that H is the sister of P ? Q > R < P + S and M * H < I + J < K + L
In a hostel room, five people P, Q, R, S and T read a novel. The one who reads the novel first gives it to R. The one who reads the novel last has taken it from P. T is not the first or the last to read the novel. There are two readers between Q and P. Identify those two readers between Q and P in the same order.
Consider the following statements : I. An equilateral triangle in a circle will have the maximum area compared to other triangles inside the same circle. II. If the height of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm, its area will be equal to (100*sqrt(3)/3) cm^2. III. If three sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 cm, then the circumradius of the triangle is 2.5 cm. IV. Scalene triangle is a triangle with none of the sides equal to any other sides. Which among the above given statements are correct ?
The sum of all the three-digit natural numbers, which on being divided by 5, leave a remainder equal to 4 is XXYZA. What is the value of Y + Z ?
(Directions for questions 12-15) : Nandu and Mohan decided to sell their Apple 6 Series watches each at Rs.42,000 to Karthik and Ganesh respectively. In each case the selling price of Rs.42,000 was arrived at by increasing the cost price by 25%. While Nandu gives a discount of 10% on the first Rs.12,000, 8% on the next Rs.16,000 and 5% on the rest to the buyer Karthik, Mohan gives a discount of 8% on the first Rs.16,000, 7% on the next Rs.8,000 and 5% on the rest to his buyer Ganesh. These discounts were however subject to the condition, that the buyers make the payment on time, failing which the discount gets reduced by 1% for every delay of a week. If Nandu and Mohan got all the payments on time, what is the approximate percentage of profit of the person getting the higher profit ?
If Karthik defaults to make payment by 1 and 2 weeks in the second and third payments respectively, what would be the profit of Nandu on the sale of a watch ?
If Ganesh defaults in each payment by 2 weeks, what would be the profit of Mohan on the sale of a watch ?
What would be the difference in the profits of Nandu and Mohan if both the buyers default in each payment by a week ?
Madhu purchased a bike in the year 2024 at the cost of Rs.78,000. It depreciates in value, 10% the first year, 9.5% the next year, 9% the third year and so on, with all the percentages applied on the original cost of the bike. What will be its value in the year 2029 ?
Neelima places an order for 'p' number of sweets from Agarwal Sweet Shop that produces 'q' number of sweets every day. r% of the total number of sweets produced in a day fail quality check and are discarded. What will be the number of days in which the order will be completed ?
There are 5 members in the family by the names Ravi, Madhu, Mahesh, Raghu and Praveen. Praveen is taller than Raghu but not as fat as Raghu. Mahesh is taller than Ravi but shorter than Madhu. Ravi is fatter than Raghu but not as fat as Madhu. Praveen is thinner than Mahesh, who is thinner than Raghu. If they are arranged in an ascending order, i.e., fattest to thinnest, who will come in the middle ?
(Directions for questions 19-21) : On the eve of Bathukamma festival, the association of Greenfield Apartments had organized games for children. As a part of that, Keerthi, Joshna, Pallavi, Rama and Swetha participated in a race. They got different ranks from 1 to 5 in the race (1 being the fastest and 5 being the slowest). The following information is also known : I. Keerthi is not the person who finished the race first. II. Pallavi didn't get the 5th rank, but she finished the race after Keerthi. III. Rama finished the race after Joshna. IV. The sum of ranks of Keerthi and Swetha was equal to the sum of ranks of Pallavi and Rama. Among the five girls that participated in the race, who was the last to finish the race ?
If the sum of the ranks of Swetha and Pallavi is 8, then who got the 4th rank ?
Among the five girls, who could not have finished the race after Pallavi ?
The ratio of Pooja's age to Ajay's age is 1 : 3. The ratio of their ages after 8 years will be 1 : 2. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 1 : 5 ?
Bhaskar bought a piggy bank for his daughter Kavitha. Kavitha started saving her money. On 1st March, 2024 she saved Rs.1 and every day starting from 2nd March she saved Rs.1 more than the previous day. Find the first date after 1st March, 2024 at the end of which her total savings will be a perfect square.
Jaya, a shopkeeper, initially had 'n' pens. A customer bought 10% pens from n, then another customer bought 20% of the remaining pens, after that one more customer purchased 25% of the remaining pens. Finally, Jaya was left with 270 pens in her shop. How many pens were there initially in her shop ?
A preliminary test was conducted by a recruiting agency which consisted of 100 questions. Madhuri takes that test and attempts all the questions in it. For every correct answer 1 mark is awarded, while a wrong answer is penalized as follows : I. One-fifth of the questions carry 1/10 negative marking. II. One-tenth of the questions carry 1/5 negative marking. III. Remaining questions will carry 1/2 negative marking. Unattempted questions carry 0 marks. If maximum and minimum possible marks scored by Madhuri are X and Y respectively, then (X-Y)/17.375 is :
In a classroom, a teacher asked, "How many 2-digit numbers exist which have the property that the product of factorials of its digits > the sum of factorials of its digits ?" Then what will be the answer of the students present there ?
Krishna, Suresh and Raghava together started a business with the initial investments of Rs.15,000, Rs.18,000 and Rs.20,000 respectively. After a year, Krishna and Suresh increased their investments by Rs.5,000 and Rs.2,000 respectively, while Raghava withdrew Rs.5,000. After one more year, Krishna, Suresh and Raghava increased their investments by 20%, 25% and 40% respectively. It was decided that Raghava would receive 20% of the total profit received by them for his extra work and the rest of the profit would be distributed according to their investments. After 3 years, the total profit received by them was Rs.53,400. If the extra profit received by Raghava was excluded, then find the ratio of profit shares of Krishna, Suresh and Raghava :
John has a piggy bank which contains 25-paise, 50-paise and 1-rupee coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total amount in the piggy bank is Rs.160. If there are thrice as many 1-rupee coins as there are 25-paise coins, then what is the number of 50-paise coins in the piggy bank ?
Sekhar delivered a 20 litre solution of milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2 to Bhaskar. Bhaskar removed 10 litres from this, replaced it with pure milk and delivered it to Karthik and Karthik repeated this process and delivered it to Varun. What is the ratio of milk and water in the solution received by Varun ?
In a new year party, out of the total guests, 60% are women. If 80% of the guests are married couples (form a pair of husband and wife) and the rest are unmarried, then which of the following statements are correct ? I. All men are married. II. More than 30% of women are unmarried. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
In a kitchen rack, six boxes are kept one on top of another. The red box is just above the blue box. The purple box is between the black and the green box. The yellow box is between the red and the black box. If the boxes are numbered from 1 to 6 from top to bottom, then the difference between the position of the green and the red box is D. What is the value of D^3/2 ?
Pointing at a boy in the photograph Bhargav said, "The boy sitting on the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger brother." What is the relation between the boy in the photograph and Bhargav ?
Consider the following statements : I. A Parallelogram having all the sides equal is a Rhombus. II. All the Rhombuses are Parallelograms, but the reverse is not true. III. A Rhombus may or may not be a Square, but all Squares are Rhombuses. Which among the above given statements are correct ?
An electrical lineman has to climb on a pole of height 50 meters to fix the wires. In the first one minute he climbed up 5 meters, in the next one minute he slipped down by 2 meters. Further, he repeated the same process till he reached the top of the pole. Then at what height was he at the 24th minute and how many times did he go upwards to reach the top of the pole ?
Sandeep invested a certain amount in Reliance Infra Private Limited which offers compound interest (compounded annually) at 5% p.a. and an amount equal to 50% of that amount was invested in Reliance Jio, which offers compound interest (compounded annually) at 10% p.a. The duration of investment for both the companies was 2 years. If the difference between the amount received from both the companies is Rs.6,965, what is the difference between the sums invested in the two companies ?
Kalpana's project report consists of 40 pages, each of 75 lines with 80 characters in each line. The lines are reduced to 70, but the number of characters is increased to 95 per line. What is the approximate change in the number of pages ?
A, B and C are hired for a painting job. Working together, A and B can do a job in 12 days, B and C can do the same job in 8 days, while A and C can do it in 16 days. Then how long will it take, if all of them work together to complete the job ?
The letters of the word 'ENTRANCE' are arranged in such a way that all vowels are always written together. How many such ways of writing the word is possible ?
If 12th June, 2024 will be a Wednesday, then what day of week will it be on 19th November, 2024 ?
Umesh is standing in a bus stand facing the North-west direction. He turns 135 degrees anti-clockwise. After that he turns 45 degrees anti-clockwise. He finally turns 90 degrees clockwise. Which direction is he facing now ?
If 8.92 x 4.15 x 7.69 x ? = 1565.67631, what will come in the place of '?' ?
Pawan appeared for examination in 5 subjects. The maximum marks are the same for each subject. His marks in these 5 subjects are in the proportion 4 : 5 : 6 : 7 : 8 and overall he scored 60%. In how many subjects did he score less than 50% of the maximum marks ?
It takes Madhu 2t minutes to complete Form-A which has k questions and 3t minutes to complete Form-B which has k/2 questions. If Madhu answers all the questions, how much more time does he take on an average to answer a Form-B question than he takes to answer a Form-A question ?
A professor of pharmaceutical sciences in his classroom defines that the 'half-life of a drug substance is the time period in which the drug substance becomes just half of it'. If it is known that the half-life of a drug Adrenaline is 800 years, then after 3200 years, 1200 gm of Adrenaline becomes X. Which of the following is a possible value for the sum of all digits in X ?
Chandra is a confused typist. While typing the numbers from 600 to 799 (both included), he typed 8 wherever he was supposed to type 6. Then the total number of times he had typed 8 is :
Find the incorrect term in the given series : 193 140 97 62 35 16 5
Ganesh donated 50% of his saving of Rs.1,26,588 to Ayodhya Trust and he invested the rest of the amount at 10% compound interest per annum, separately for his children Krishna and Veda in such a way that when they attain the age of 18 years, they would receive the same amount. The age of Krishna is 13 years and that of Veda is 11 years. Then the amount invested for Veda must be :
Find the Mean of the following data (correct to two decimal places) : Variables (Frequency) - 15-25 (4), 25-35 (11), 35-45 (19), 45-55 (14), 55-65 (0), 65-75 (2). [Question Deleted]
Find the number of triangles in the following figure : [a 4x4 grid square with both main diagonals and cross-lines drawn through each cell]
Each of seven boys named A, B, C, D, E, F and G has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Sunday and ending on Saturday of the same week. Only two persons have their exam between C and A. B has his exam immediately before E. C has his exam immediately before F. Only G has his exam after A. Which of the following options represents the correct match of a boy and the day of his exam ?
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : A person with AB+ve blood group is called as 'Universal Recipient'. Reason (R) : A person with AB+ve blood group has A & B antigens and Antibodies in Plasma. Code :
Vande Bharat Express travelling at 63 kmph can cross a platform of Visakhapatnam railway station which is 199.5 m long in 21 seconds. How much time would Vande Bharat Express take to completely cross (from the moment they meet) Duronto Express 157 m long and travelling at 54 kmph in the opposite direction to it ?
Study the following bar chart and answer the question that is given below. The chart shows the number of students that appeared for and passed B.Tech. examination from different IITs in 2024. [Bar chart - Appeared/Passed: IIT Kanpur 210/160, IIT Madras 250/180, IIT Pune 270/225, IIT Tirupati 200/150, IIT Bombay 300/250]. The number of students who passed the examination from IIT Kanpur and IIT Pune is what percentage of the average number of students who appeared for the examination from IIT Madras, IIT Tirupati and IIT Bombay respectively ?
Read the below given statements followed by conclusions. Choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statements : Statements : All professors are doctors. All doctors are engineers. Some professors are lawyers. Conclusions : I. All professors are engineers. II. All engineers are lawyers. III. Some doctors are lawyers.
Assume that you are the polling officer of a polling station for the general elections 2024 and the polling booth is in an area where Maoist prevalence is high. During the day of polling a group of Maoists come and try to disrupt proceedings by terrorizing the voters and firing guns. What will you do ?
If a circle touching all the n sides of a polygon of perimeter 2p has radius r, then the area of the polygon is :
In a recreation club, Sam, Gautham, Nagesh, Deepak and Anup were playing cards. Sam says to Gautham, "If you give me three cards, you will have as many as Anup has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many as Deepak has." Sam and Gautham together have 10 cards more than what Deepak and Anup together have. If Gautham has two cards more than what Nagesh has and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does Gautham have ?
In a certain code language, Bihar is coded as Uttar Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh is coded as Punjab, Punjab is coded as Assam, Assam is coded as Goa, Goa is coded as Bangalore and Bangalore is coded as Sikkim. Then in which state was an AIIMS inaugurated recently by the Prime Minister of India ?
Consider the following statements about Seed Vaults : I. Svalbard Global Seed Vault is a facility on a remote Norwegian Spitsbergen Island, and it is the world's largest secure seed storage vault. II. India's Seed Vault is located in a high-altitude mountain pass on the Chang La in Ladakh. III. Indian Seed Vault is a joint venture of National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources and the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research. Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?
Identify the new sites in India added to the list of Ramsar sites on the eve of World Wetland Day 2024 : I. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary II. Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary III. Pichavaram Mangrove IV. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve V. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements about 'Women Engineered SATellite' (WESAT) : I. WESAT is the first Indian satellite to be fully designed and developed by women students of Lal Bahadur Shastri Institute of Technology for Women, Kerala. II. WESAT was launched aboard the PSLV-C58/XPoSAT Mission as one of the secondary payloads on 1st January, 2024. III. WESAT is meant to study how rainfall refills underground water in rural areas of India. Which among the above statements are correct ?
Which among the following is the world's first country to propose a tax for agricultural emissions to achieve the emission reduction target by 2050 ?
Consider the following statements about Garbhini-GA2 : I. It is the first India-specific Artificial Intelligence (AI) model which accurately determines the age of a fetus in pregnant women in the second and third trimesters. II. Garbhini-GA2 was developed by the researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras and Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad. Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
Identify India's first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy for which Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) granted market approval :
Consider the following statements about the indigenous Green propulsion system that was successfully demonstrated in space on ISRO's PSLV-C58 mission : I. It was developed by Bellatrix Aerospace Private Limited under the Technology Development Fund scheme of DRDO. II. Green propulsion system is an innovative technology which is a non-toxic and environmentally-friendly propulsion system for low orbit space. III. Green propulsion system is ideal for space missions with high thrust requirement. Which among the above statements are correct ?
Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) for innovation and research in the renewable energy sector with :
Consider the following statements : I. India retained the 40th position in Global Innovation Index among the top innovative economies globally as per Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023. II. As per WIPO Report 2022, India is ranked at 7th position in terms of Resident Patent Filing activity in the world. III. India improved its ranking to 60th position in 2023 from 79th position in 2019 as per Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2023 Report. IV. India secured 42nd position out of the 55 countries in the Global Intellectual Property Index 2024 as per the 12th edition of International Intellectual Property Index. Which among the above statements are incorrect ?
India's indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) of 500 MWe capacity at Kalapakkam was developed by :
Among the following, identify the lead institutions which are in collaboration with LIGO Laboratory as a part of LIGO-India project : I. Institute for Plasma Research (IPR), Gandhinagar II. Kepler's Observatory & Research Centre, Haryana III. Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune IV. Raja Ramanna Center for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore V. Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Identify the spacecraft deployed by the NASA to study the physical changes in 'God of Chaos' asteroid which will be nearing the Earth's orbit by 2029 :
Who among the following is the first Indian woman to get a Ph.D. in a science discipline ?
The smart, biodegradable, natural polymer-based nanoparticles from renewable resources for treating colorectal cancer were developed by researchers of :
Consider the following statements regarding Sun Halo : I. Sun Halo is an optical phenomenon that occurs due to sunlight refracting in millions of hexagonal ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere. II. Sun Halo takes the form of a ring with a radius of approximately 22 degrees around the Sun. III. Sun Halo is specifically produced by cumulonimbus clouds, which are thin, detached hair-like clouds. Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Coral reefs are often called the 'Rainforests of the Sea'. Statement II : Coral reefs break the power of the waves during storms and hurricanes, thus preventing coastal erosion. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements regarding 30 by 30 initiative : I. 30 by 30 is a global initiative for governments for ensuring that at least 30% of the energy requirements should be met by renewable sources by 2030 to achieve Net Zero target. II. 30 by 30 initiative was launched by High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People. III. India is the first among the BRICS countries to join the High Ambition Coalition (HAC). Which among the above statements are correct ?
Identify the Biosphere Reserves in India, which are not a part of Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme of UNESCO : I. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve II. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve III. Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve IV. Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve V. Great Rann of Kutch Biosphere Reserve. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following state's online civic tax payment software suffered a cyber-attack recently ?
Which of the following programme by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is to encourage and support senior women scientists to conduct research in interdisciplinary areas of science and technology ?
Consider the following statements about ARTSENS device : I. It is a novel, non-invasive device to assess the health and age of the neurons and thereby provide early screening for central nervous system diseases. II. ARTSENS device was developed by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences (NIMHANS). III. ARTSENS device is powered by a proprietary non-imaging probe and an intelligent computing platform. Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?
A multimodal AI tool that can respond in 11 Indian languages developed indigenously by BharatGPT ecosystem and Seetha Mahalakshmi Healthcare (SML) is :
NITI Aayog's 'Methanol Economy' programme is aimed at : I. Reducing India's oil import bill. II. Reducing Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emission. III. Converting coal reserves and municipal solid waste into methanol. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which among the following acts as a nodal agency for sourcing of the Aarogya Maitri Cubes developed indigenously under Project BHISHM ?
Which of the following statement is correct regarding 'Impatiens Karuppusamyi', seen in the news recently ?
Consider the following statements regarding Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative : I. Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative was launched at COP27 and it is a collaboration between the Vulnerable Twenty (V20) group, the Group of Seven (G7) and other supporting countries. II. The Global Shield will increase protection for vulnerable people and countries by substantially enhancing Climate and Disaster Risk Finance and Insurance (CDRFI). Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?
Which among the following in India have been named as 'Hope Spots' by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and Mission Blue ?
Consider the following statements regarding Conference of Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP14) : I. The 14th session of CMS COP14 was held from 12th to 17th February, 2024 at Samarkand, Uzbekistan. II. The CMS COP14 was convened under the slogan "Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home". III. CMS COP14 was the first global biodiversity gathering since the adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF)-2022. Which among the above statements are correct ?
Consider the following statements regarding GSAT-N2 : I. It is the first demand driven satellite mission that is fully funded and owned by New Space India Limited (NSIL). II. GSAT-N2 satellite will be lifted by using SpaceX's Falcon-9 rocket and is scheduled in the 2nd quarter of 2025. III. The collaboration of NSIL with SpaceX was made due to the current limitation of India's rockets, which are lacking in the capacity to lift large communication satellites. Which among the above given statements are correct ?
Consider the following statements : Statement I : India has tremendous Solar power generation potential. Statement II : India experiences clear sunny weather for 250 to 300 days per year and this exposure to the Sun is estimated to be worth 5000 Tn kilowatt hour of energy in a year over India's land area. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following became the world's first country to make abortion a constitutional right ?
Consider the following statements regarding 'Operation Aspides' which was recently seen in the news : I. It is a defensive maritime security operation to restore and safeguard freedom of navigation in the Red Sea and the Gulf. II. Operation Aspides is a joint operation by Interpol and International Maritime Organization and was launched on 19th February, 2024. Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
Consider the following statements regarding DOSTI drill : I. DOSTI-16 is a trilateral coast guard exercise between India, Sri Lanka and Maldives conducted from 22 to 25 February, 2024. II. The DOSTI drill was started in 1991 as a bilateral exercise by the coast guards of India and Sri Lanka. III. Indian Coast Guard Ship Samarth and ICGS Abhinav participated in the Exercise DOSTI-16. Which among the above statements are correct ?
'iOncology.ai', an Artificial Intelligence (AI) platform designed for the early detection of breast and ovarian cancer, was launched by :
Consider the following statements regarding 'CRIIIO 4 GOOD' : I. CRIIIO 4 GOOD is a series of 8 cricket-based animation films. II. CRIIIO 4 GOOD consists of new online, life skill learning modules to promote gender equality among girls and boys. III. CRIIIO 4 GOOD was launched by International Cricket Council, UNICEF and Board of Control for Cricket in India. Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?
Which among the following country's Prime Minister became the first Pacific leader to address Australia's Parliament ?
Consider the following statements regarding PACE satellite : I. It is NASA's satellite mission to study ocean health, air quality and effects of climate change. II. PACE satellite was successfully launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon-9 rocket on 8th February, 2024. Which among the above statements is/are incorrect ?
Consider the following statements : I. The 1st edition of the Indian Naval Commanders' Conference of 2024 commenced on March 5th, 2024. II. The Government of India launched ADITI scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technology. III. Exercise Samudra Laksamana is a joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Royal Malaysian Navy. Which among the above statements are correct ?
India's first indigenous Hydrogen fuel cell ferry, flagged off by the Prime Minister of India, was built by :
Consider the following statements : Statement I : The researchers from various organizations have identified a new species of burrowing frog in the urban landscape of Karnataka and named it as 'Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu'. Statement II : Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu get its name from its behaviour of changing colours from brown to pale brown in the beginning of monsoon season. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
The initiative Mission Investigation@75 days, which mandates investigation officer to complete investigation of cases within 75 days of FIR registration is launched by which State Government ?
Who among the following have been selected to be the astronauts on India's first crewed mission to space ? I. Wing Commander Shubanshu Shukla II. Group Captain P. Balakrishnan Nair III. Group Captain Pankaj M. Sinha IV. Group Captain Ajit Krishnan V. Group Captain Angad Pratap. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which among the following is the first country in the world to launch the Malaria vaccine for children into its routine national immunization services ?
Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY) : I. It is a Central Sector Sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada for formalization of the fisheries sector and supporting fisheries micro and small enterprises. II. It will be implemented with an investment of over Rs.6,000 crores over a period of next 4 years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2026-27 in all States and Union Territories. III. It aims to provide one-time incentive to beneficiaries for purchasing aquaculture insurance. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Which country recently declared National emergency due to offshore oil spill ?
Who among the following eminent personalities are recipients of 58th Jnanpith Award ? I. Sampooran Singh Kalra II. Jagadguru Rambhadracharyaji III. Damodar Mauzo. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements regarding International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) : I. The International Big Cat Alliance is a multi-country, multi-agency coalition of 96 big cat range countries, non-range countries interested in big cat conservation, conservation partners and scientific organizations working the field of big cat conservation. II. The Union Cabinet approved the establishment of International Big Cat Alliance headquarters in India with a one-time budgetary support of Rs.150 crores for a period of 2 years from 2023-24 to 2024-2025. Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
Identify the incorrect pair regarding persons and their field of activity who were conferred with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards 2023 :
India's first spy satellite that is set to be launched in a SpaceX rocket was built by :
'Mukhyamantri Vishwakarma Pension Yojana', a special scheme to provide pension to workers, street vendors, folk artists on attaining the age of 60 years, was announced by the State Government of :
Recently the State of Tamil Nadu banned the sale of cotton candy due to the presence of which cancer-causing agent in it ?
Which of the following countries recently became the 119th country to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA) ?
Consider the following statements regarding State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2023 : I. Karnataka is the top performing state in SEEI 2023 with an overall score of 86.5 out of 100. II. Assam and Uttar Pradesh are in the 'Achiever' category in SEEI 2023. III. Andhra Pradesh is in the 'Front runner' category in SEEI 2023. Which among the above statements are correct ?
'Sangam : Digital Twin', recently seen in the news, is an initiative of which Department of India ?
Consider the following statements : I. Indian Naval ships Cheetah, Guldar and Magar were decommissioned on 12th January, 2024. The decommissioning event was conducted at Lakshadweep. II. INS Imphal, a Project 15B stealth guided missile destroyer was commissioned into the Indian Navy at an immersion ceremony held at the Naval Dockyard, Mumbai on December 26th, 2023. Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
Which of the following state topped the Khelo India Para Games 2023 medal table ?
In which of the following places were new medical colleges inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh in September 2023 ? I. Eluru II. Vizianagaram III. Pulivendula IV. Machilipatnam V. Adoni. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
What is India's rank in Logistics Performance Index out of 139 countries, as per the World Bank's Logistics Performance Index (LPI) Report 2023 ?
Identify the company that launched 'Pratham' which is the world's first no-code computer vision platform :
Which among the following Space agencies has launched its next generation H3 rocket into orbit ?
Consider the following statements on the late Harappan cultures : I. The late Harappan cultures are primarily Chalcolithic in which tools of stone and copper are used. II. They do not show metal objects requiring complicated casting. III. The Chalcolithic people in the later Harappan phase lived in villages. IV. In the late Harappan phase at Bhagwanpura in Haryana, burnt bricks were not found. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Consider the following types of pottery : I. Black and Red Ware II. Black Slipped Ware III. Painted Grey Ware IV. Red Ware V. Northern Black Polished Ware. Which of the above types of pottery were associated with the Later Vedic people ?
Identify the incorrect statement on the contributions of Jainism :
Match the following : List-I (Mahajanapada) A. Avanti B. Koshala C. Vatsa D. Anga; List-II (Capital) I. Ujjain II. Shravasti III. Kaushambi IV. Champa. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following art and architectural forms : I. Rock-cut elephant at Dhauli in Orissa II. Yakshi figure from Didarganj near Patna III. Great Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh IV. 80-pillared hall at Kumrahar near Patna. Which of the above art and architectural forms belong to the Mauryan period ?
Consider the following items : I. Turban II. Trousers III. Heavy long coat IV. Helmet V. Boots. Which of the items listed above were introduced by the Shakas and Kushans from Central Asia ?
In the Satavahanas's inscriptions, the terms 'Katakas' and 'Skandhavaras' mean
Consider the following statements : I. During the reign of Chandragupta-I, the Sakas were defeated. II. Samudragupta's South Indian conquest did not lead to any permanent annexation. Which of the following statement is/are correct ?
In the Sangam literature, Vellalars were :
Match the following : List-I (Pallavan Ruler) A. Sivaskandavarman B. Vishnugopa C. Narasimhavarman-I D. Nandivarman-II; List-II (Political event) I. Samudragupta's invasion II. Kanchi came under the Pallavas III. Defeated Vikramaditya-II and city of Kanchi was captured IV. Defeat of Pulakesin-II and destruction of Vatapi city. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following is wrongly matched with respect to Rashtrakutas ?
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Cholas :
Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi was built by :
The Persian traveller Abdur Razzaq visited Vijayanagara in the reign of :
Match the following : List-I (Bhakti Saint) A. Vallabhacharya B. Tulsidas C. Sri Chaitanya D. Tukaram; List-II (Area of the movement) I. Uttar Pradesh II. Gujarat III. Bengal IV. Maharashtra. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements on Sher Shah's land revenue administration : I. Land was classified into three categories on the basis of produce from the land. II. Land was measured according to a uniform system. III. 1/4 of the produce was collected as tax. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Consider the following Mughal structures : I. Tomb of Salim Chishti II. Buland Darwaza III. Tomb of Humayun IV. Jami Masjid. Which of the above buildings were constructed during the reign of Akbar ?
Match the following : List-I (Name of the Ruler) A. Husain Ali Khan B. Murshid Quli Khan C. Chin Qilich Khan D. Safdar Jung; List-II (Position of the Ruler) I. One of the Saiyid brothers II. The ruler of Bengal III. The Nizam of Hyderabad IV. The Nawab of Awadh. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Match the following : List-I (Kakatiya ruler) A. Rudradeva B. Ganapatideva C. Rudramadevi D. Prataparudradeva; List-II (Event/Contribution) I. Shifting the capital from Anamakonda to Orugallu (Warangal) II. Thousand Pillar Temple was built III. Malik Kafur's expedition IV. Marco Polo's visit to Coastal Andhra. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Identify the correct chronology of Later Mughals :
In Shivaji's administration, Dabir was :
Identify the correct chronology of establishment of French settlements :
Consider the following Indian states : I. Awadh II. Jhansi III. Satara IV. Nagpur V. Sindh. Which of the above states were annexed by the British due to the policy of Doctrine of Lapse ?
Identify the wrong matching of poets and their languages in the 18th century :
Consider the following statements on the contributions of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar : I. His great contribution was for the upliftment of women in India. II. He organized a powerful movement for the enactment of Widow Remarriage Act. III. To propagate his social ideas, he published Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali weekly newspaper. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Which of the following statements is incorrect on William Bentinck's reforms ?
Consider the following events : I. Swadeshi Movement II. Surat Split III. Lucknow Pact IV. Home Rule Movement. Which of the above main events took place during the extremist phase ?
Consider the following events : I. Visit of Simon Commission to India II. Purna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session III. Launch of Dandi March. Which of the above main events took place during the tenure of Lord Irwin ?
Consider the following Revolutionaries : I. Bhagat Singh II. Sachindra Nath Sanyal III. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee IV. Ram Prasad Bismil V. Chandra Shekhar Azad. Who among the above founded 'Hindustan Republican Association' in 1924 ?
Which of the following is wrongly matched regarding 'Praja Mandals' ?
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the office of the 'Whip' ? I. Although not mentioned in the Constitution of India, the office of the 'Whip' has however been incorporated in the Rules of the House by the 'Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998'. II. The role of the Chief Whip of the government party in the Lok Sabha is served by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs. III. All political parties - whether ruling or opposition, will have their own Whips in the Parliament. IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the leader of the House but is responsible only to the leader of the party that has appointed him/her to the office of Chief Whip. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
In the context of distinctions existing between a Public Bill and a Private Bill, select the statement/statements that is/are valid : I. A Private Bill which has been introduced by a Member of Parliament sitting in the opposition and which has been approved by the House will have to be referred to the law department for consultation. II. A Public Bill is always introduced in the Parliament by the Minister or a member of the government party. III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy of the government but upon its approval by the House, a Private Bill would have reflected the policy of the government. IV. Public Bills and Private Bills, regardless of the differences between them, are governed by the same general procedure, and are required to be passed through the same stages in the House. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have to be mandatorily reserved for the President's consideration ? I. A Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy. II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction but which was however not obtained under Article 304. III. A Bill that attracts the provisions of Article 288. IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision that belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries, but which is however repugnant to any Union law. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements in connection with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) : I. CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution but this does not mean that the CAG can be impeached from office in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court. II. Some public corporations are audited exclusively by private professional auditors, and the CAG may have no involvement at all. III. The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory and propriety audit but not performance audit. IV. The Constitution of India has not specified any criterion for the appointment of CAG. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?
In connection with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The GST Council was established as a Statutory body, but it was later turned into a Constitutional federal body by an amendment of the Constitution. II. The proceedings of the GST Council will be invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council. III. In the event of any dispute between more than two states over GST issues, the GST Council has to refer the matter to be adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. IV. The GST Council is required to make recommendations to the Centre and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India : I. The Constitution of India has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government. II. In 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023), the Supreme Court has directed the Government to treat the Regional Commissioners on par with the Election Commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner), as far as removal from office is concerned. III. Since its inception, the Election Commission had functioned as a multi-member body. IV. The power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of Vice-President of India is vested in the Election Commission. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?
In the context of Centre - State Relations, which of the following statement/statements are valid ? I. Punchhi Commission had recommended that the procedure that is followed for the removal of President should also be applicable for the impeachment of Governors as well. II. The law that is made by the Parliament with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to the State in which President's rule is imposed, cannot be re-enacted by the State Legislature after the President's rule is ended. III. The Sarkaria Commission was not the first to recommend the establishment of an Inter-State Council. IV. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a resolution declaring that it is necessary in the national interest that the Parliament should make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements in connection with the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States : I. The proceeds of the surcharges that are levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of India, would be shared between the Centre and the States. II. Article 268A and Article 272 of the Constitution of India were both repealed by same Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied by the Centre but collected by the States. IV. The net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?
Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct in relation to the Human Rights Commissions in India ? I. The role to undertake functions relating to human rights in the Union Territory of Ladakh may be conferred upon a State Human Rights Commission by the Central Government. II. Only 2 persons can be appointed as members of the National Human Rights Commission under the category of possessing knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights. III. The President can remove the Chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviour. However, the President has to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in this matter. IV. The National Human Rights Commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of two years from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statement/statements can be attributed correctly to the exercise of Delimitation ? I. The principle of 'one man, one vote' reiterates the need for the exercise of Delimitation. II. The Government of India can set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in a select few States or UTs. III. The Delimitation Commission can only recommend the re-delimitation of territorial Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies but cannot recommend on the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of India is the Ministry of Law and Justice. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements with regard to India's Foreign Policy : I. India's Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative but had later extended into political, strategic and cultural dimensions. II. The 'Connect Central Asia Policy' has been taken forward with the institutionalization of the 'India-Central Asia Summit' mechanism. III. Under the 'Security and Growth for All in the Region' (SAGAR) Policy, the DRDO initiated the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of establishing long-term collaboration with countries in the East Asian region. IV. India's Think West Policy is an outreach to the Western Industrialized nations for strengthening of relations in areas of education and defence. Which of the above statements are valid ?
Which of the following statement/statements can best describe the nature of security concerns/developments for India ? I. The development of the Hambantota Development Zone can be seen or viewed as a policy of containment funded by Pakistan. II. India's support in building the Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a strategic act to balance the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in Yemen. III. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an extension of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) and serves as a platform for maritime security. IV. The Malabar Exercise is connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD). Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
In the context of Central Government programmes, which one of following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? I. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing poverty of the ST communities by generating additional employment opportunities. II. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary, the State Government and the Central Government. III. Under the 'FutureSkills Prime' Programme, Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the key implementing agency. IV. Mission Karmayogi comprises of eight key pillars that are intended to create functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants. Select the answer using the codes given below :
In the context of the enactment of Budget, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The Appropriation Bill carries an automatic repeal clause. II. The provision 'Vote on Account' has become ineffectual after the re-scheduling of the budget cycle from the last day of February to the first day of February. III. Amendments to either reject or reduce a tax can not be moved in case of the Finance Bill. IV. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can only be discussed. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
In connection with the veto power of the Indian President, which one of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The Indian President possesses 'Suspensive Veto' in the case of Money Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills. II. The Indian President can exercise 'Absolute Veto' with respect to Government Bills at all times. III. The Indian President enjoys 'Pocket Veto' indefinitely whereas the American President possesses 'Qualified Veto'. IV. The objective of the veto power in being conferred upon the Indian President is to ensure a system of checks and balances between the office of the President and that of the power of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements : I. It was intended to protect Central and State laws that are included in it from judicial review on the ground of violation of Fundamental rights. II. The entries included in it are not restricted to the subject of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system alone. III. Article 31B carries a retrospective effect but it has ceased to be operative after the 'I.R. Coelho Case' (2007). IV. The entries incorporated in it are only done so, by the power of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
The 'Territory of India' and the 'Union of India' are two distinct and different expressions due to which of the following reason/reasons ? I. The 'Union of India' includes just States and Union Territories while the 'Territory of India' includes in addition to States and Union Territories, those territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time as well. II. The expression 'Union of India' is mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the expression 'Territory of India' is not found in the Constitution of India. III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of India is with reference to just the 'Union of India' but not the 'Territory of India'. IV. The Union Territories are covered by the expression 'Territory of India' and not by the expression 'Union of India'. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements would you accept as appropriate ideas referring to 'Equality' ? I. The primacy of equality is safeguarded, defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than by the Constitution as conceptualized by A.V. Dicey. II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India constitutes only the concept of 'Equality before the law' but does not mention the concept of 'Equal Protection of Laws'. III. Article 194 and Article 361A of the Constitution of India are indicative of the fact that equality in India is not absolute. IV. The theory of equality includes distinction of merit but not distinction on account of hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995). Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties ? I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just the citizens of India with the exception of Article 51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners that are resident in India. II. The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended the implementation of the Fundamental Duties irrespective of the existence of legal provisions. III. In 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the constitutionality of laws that are otherwise ambiguous to interpret. IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had recommended for penalties to be considered in the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the Fundamental Duties. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
With regards to Directive Principles of State Policy, what is the correct chronological order in which the following additions/changes were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments ? I. The adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38. II. The changing of the subject-matter of Article 45. III. The adding of Article 43B. IV. The adding of Article 48A. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements : I. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first provision was declared as invalid by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973). II. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) considered the extension of the scope of the second provision of Article 31C as invalid as well. III. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) has considered the importance of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. IV. The present interpretation with respect to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the same reiteration of the principle that was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Champakan Dorairajan case (1951). Which of the statement/statements given above is/are incorrect ?
With reference to the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements : I. A private member of the House of the Parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the Constitution only after the prior permission of the President. II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India provides for three types of amendments - simple majority, special majority and ratification of half of the States by a simple majority. III. For amendments that require ratification of half of the States by a simple majority, it is not necessary that all the State Legislatures must take action on the Bill. IV. The State Legislatures can pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368 in the same manner, as it could be done for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct ?
Consider the following statements about the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution : I. The doctrine of the 'Basic Structure' has been incorporated into the Constitution of India by an Act of Parliament. II. Presently, the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution. III. Parliament's limited power to amend the Constitution is also an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution. IV. The Supreme Court in the 'Kumar Padma Prasad Case' (1992) had declared that the mandate to build a 'welfare state' is an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Which of the following statement is correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges ?
The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha can be described by which of the following statement/statements ? I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills. II. Consideration of the CAG's report. III. Initiating the removal of the Vice-President. IV. Approval of proclamation of all the three types of emergencies by the President. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following source/sources of revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the Panchayats ? I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to the States from the Centre may be again re-distributed to the Panchayats as recommended by the Central Finance Commission. II. Loans from the State Government. III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the State Government is empowered to devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in the absence of the State Finance Commission's recommendations. IV. Internal Resource Generation is facilitated only in the case of Panchayats situated in Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : In connection with their own resource collection, the Panchayats at the village level are better placed than the Panchayats at the Intermediate and the District levels. Reason (R) : The Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to depend only on tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for internal resource generation. Code :
In connection with the lapsing of Bills, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. If the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but if the Bill has still not been discussed in the Rajya Sabha, then such a Bill does not lapse. II. A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration of the Houses will not lapse. However, the Lok Sabha should not have been dissolved by the time the Bill is returned. III. A Bill that is passed by both the Houses but pending for President's assent will not lapse. IV. A Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha but which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha will also lapse. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : [Question Deleted]
Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Law Commission of India ? I. It is a non-constitutional quasi judicial body. II. One of its functions is to communicate its opinion to the President on subjects relating to legal administration. III. Its reports are not submitted to the Parliament. IV. It has no suo motu decision power to undertake research by itself. Select the answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution ? I. The term 'democratic' as used in the Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism. II. The term 'Republic' in the Preamble indicates that India has an elected head, called the Prime Minister. III. The 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble is neither absolute nor qualified. IV. The term 'Fraternity' as used by the Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the individual only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
In recent times, many leading agencies have reaffirmed high growth for the Indian Economy. Which of the following statement/statements can be the best reason/reasons for India's projected high growth ? I. Strong Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) II. Government's shift of focus from large capital expenditure towards private investment III. Increase in domestic air passenger traffic along with a reduction in the volume of Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) IV. Fading of the El Nino oscillation and better Rabi crop prospects. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
With regard to the progress of Digital Payments in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. Promotion of Digital Payments has been transferred from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to the Department of Financial Services. II. e-RUPI is an institution-based voucher management system instead of being person and purpose specific. III. 'Hello! UPI' is an AI voice-enabled payment feature built by a consortium of private sponsored startups recognised by the NPCI. IV. 'UPI LITE X' addresses challenges of remote areas by enabling offline UPI payments. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Tourism in India has turned out to be a key service sub-sector. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the Tourism sector in India ? I. NIDHI is a technology-driven system meant for providing services to Hospitality and Travel industry. II. The Government has resolved to make India a one trillion USD tourism economy by 2047 with 100 million international investors. III. The Hotel Occupancy Rate has been rapidly increasing alongside a consistent rise in the average daily rate and revenue per available room. IV. India's Services Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) has been in the expanding zone. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
The Interim Union Budget (FY25) has proposed initiatives to boost India's Green Energy Sector. Which of the following proposals are connected with developing India's Green Energy ? I. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for utilizing solar energy projects II. To set up coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100MT by 2030 III. Optional blending of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) in Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for transport and Piped Natural Gas (PNG) for domestic purposes IV. Provision of financial assistance for procurement of biomass aggregation machinery V. Setting up of a payment security system for expanding the bio-manufacturing system in the country. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statement can best be described as having resulted in the recovery of India's external sector ?
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : Tax reforms directed towards a simple tax system will result in positive productivity gains. Reason (R) : They boost GDP growth and employment growth by removing deadweight costs and reduce distortions in resource allocation. Code :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) ? I. NIP includes only economic infrastructure projects but not social infrastructure projects. II. NIP is aimed to focus on key greenfield projects alone. Brownfield projects are excluded from the NIP's coverage. III. NIP aims to offer investment opportunities in India's infrastructure sector, and to attract investments into India. IV. India Investment Grid (IIG) as a platform has ceased to facilitate the NIP and instead 'Invest India' is presently facilitating NIP. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : Majority of the reported transactions on e-NAM are intra-mandi instead of inter-mandi and inter-state. Reason (R) : The Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017, provides for progressive agricultural marketing reforms that include greater focus on intra-mandi transactions. Code :
The strategic objective of Asset Monetization Programme may be explained as :
In connection with SEBI, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. SEBI exempted regulations for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Muncipal Bonds in order to facilitate more efficient infrastructure financing through the capital markets. II. SEBI introduced the framework in which listed large corporates will mandatorily meet 25% of their financing requirements through the issuance of debt securities. III. SEBI increased the minimum ticket size of corporate bond investment in order to encourage investor responsibility. IV. SEBI along with the RBI introduced the Retail Direct Scheme. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : 'India Stack' has enabled an online, paperless and cashless digital access to various public and private services. This has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC. Reason (R) : India Stack consists of two interconnected layers, and of these, the 'Payment Layer' has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC. Code :
Pick the correct sequence out of the following sequences with regard to the present prevailing inflation trends (in percentages) in India :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with inflation ? I. Cost-push inflation cycle of milk is becoming more and more pronounced in India. II. The Bharat Atta initiative of the Government has played a considerable role in containing wheat inflation in India. III. Retail Inflation has considerably increased in the beginning of 2024 owing to increasing commodity prices. IV. The Bharat Dal initiative has also been extended to include moong dal. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reforms ? I. EASE Reforms are governed by a board of directors, who are heads of premier Financial Institutions in India. II. EASE Next programme had just one (01) priority - the Common Reforms Agenda. III. Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement is one of the four themes conceptualized as part of EASE 6.0. IV. EASE Reforms are intended for both Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as well as NBFCs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following feature/features is/are correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme ? I. This scheme covers brownfield enterprises along with greenfield enterprises. II. Non-Individual enterprises are also eligible to avail the benefit of this scheme provided certain conditions are complied with. III. For drawal of Working Capital up to Rs.10 lakh, the same may be sanctioned by way of Cash Credit Limit. IV. Besides Primary Security, the loan may be secured by a guarantee of Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand-Up India Loans (CGFSIL) as decided by the banks. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) : I. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing the RBI-DPI with 2021 as the base year to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. II. RBI-DPI consists of 6 broad parameters that have in turn sub-parameters. III. There has been a constant increase in the RBI-DPI since the time of its inception. IV. 'Consumer Centricity' is one of the parameters in the RBI-DPI. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?
Which of the following statement/statements qualifies/qualify as valid in connection with the banking mechanism in India ? I. Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) will result in increasing credit creation. II. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) applies only to the new deposit base while the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) specifically targets the new borrower lending base. III. 'Tenor Premium' is an important component in the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR). IV. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is used as a long-term policy rate and is generally lower than the Bank Rate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
In the context of India's fight against poverty, consider the following statements : I. Unlike the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by NITI Aayog does not make use of 'Alkire-Foster' (AF) methodology. II. The urban population witnessed a larger decline in poverty as compared to the rural population. III. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) includes the coverage of food grain entitlements. IV. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is computed by adding the incidence of multidimensional poverty and the intensity of poverty. Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?
In connection with the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF), which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. The fund will be established through reserved bonds taken from the G-Sec market. II. The fund is to be exclusively availed by private agencies to create urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities. III. Eligible activities for UIDF shall be connected to the Missions and Programmes of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA). IV. The fund will be collectively managed by a cluster of Municipal Cooperative Banks. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
With regard to the Startup Ecosystem in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) Centre will not be presiding over the selection process of the applications that are received under Startup Agri-Business Incubation Programme. II. Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth (MAARG) Portal is an exclusive one-stop platform intended for guiding startups in the emerging Artificial Intelligence (AI) sector only. III. Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) aims to provide financial assistance to startups for conducting 'proof of concept' trials. IV. Fund of Funds Scheme (FFS) for Startups is meant to contribute to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with the SEBI. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : The National Product measures all goods and services that arise out of economic activity, whereas National Income is the sum of all incomes as a result of the economic activity. These two are synonymous. Reason (R) : The Production of goods and services is the outcome of the use of capital and labour, along with the raw materials, and this automatically generates income. Code :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the prevailing scenarios and issues in connection with the World Trade Organisation (WTO) ? I. The 'Peace Clause' under the Bali Agreement reiterates that developing nations must not exceed the 10% ceiling limit for Public Stockholding schemes initiatives. II. The 'Green Box' prohibits the use of direct payments to producers which are not linked to production decisions. III. The 'Reduction Commitments' are expressed in terms of a "Total Aggregate Measurement of Support" which includes all product-specific support and non-product-specific support in one single figure. IV. Any support that would normally be placed in the 'Amber Box', is not to be placed in the 'Blue Box' even if the support mandates farmers to limit production. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : Coal washing results in increased generation efficiency and reduced investment costs. However, the use of washed coal in India is still limited. Reason (R) : The limited establishment of coal washeries may be attributed to the perception that coal washing by increasing the cost of electricity generation, would adversely impact the plants in terms of 'merit order' scheduling. Code :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ? I. Achieving Goal 10 will require an entire reform of the financial system that promotes equitable pay and decent work for young people. II. NITI Aayog has developed the National Indicator Framework (NIF) for facilitating monitoring of SDGs in India. III. 'Mission LiFE' aims to influence government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production. IV. The concept of global citizenship embedded in Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) is a reference term that indicates flexible citizenship rights across countries for the purpose of facilitating better labour markets. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statements are valid regarding Human Development ? I. Two countries with the same level of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, but ending with different human development outcomes is indicative of the importance of growth over development. II. A country's score on the Inequality-Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is not the same as its Human Development Index (HDI) even when there is no inequality among people. III. In Gender Development Index (GDI), values below 1 indicate higher development for women than men. IV. Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) focuses on intergenerational inequality just the same way, as the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) focuses on intragenerational inequality. V. According to the Human Development Report 2021 - 22, a new uncertainty complex is emerging, which comprises of three new concerns - planetary changes, sweeping social transformations and polarized societies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statements are valid regarding the interventions of the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the context of Healthcare ? I. Telemedicine facility is available in all Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) to avail specialist services through district hub. II. The Family Doctor Programme has been planned to be implemented as a standalone project without the need to be integrated with Primary Health Centres (PHCs). III. Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme has been revamped, by increasing the income limit from Rs.2.5 lakh to Rs.5 lakh per annum per family. IV. 'Aarogya Aasara' Scheme is intended to provide post-operative sustenance allowance with certain eligible conditions complied with. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
In connection with transport and infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ? I. Andhra Pradesh's first riverine project has been proposed between Muktyala and Madipadu on Krishna river. II. The Bhogapuram Greenfield International Airport had been started with a corpus fund that is sourced from National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF). III. Infrastructure investments in Andhra Pradesh are strictly implemented only with reference to strategic investments like ports and industrial corridors, but not with reference to community assets. IV. Rail Over Bridges (ROBs) are being developed in Andhra Pradesh under the Setu Bandhan Scheme. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Policy 2023 - 27 ? I. To achieve a minimum contribution of 25% by industry in the State GDP II. To provide end-to-end facilitation in 2 weeks III. To envisage ten (10) priorities of accomplishment IV. To focus on becoming a 'Plug and Play' State for investments V. Ensuring land allotment by APIIC within a period of 2 weeks upon receipt of application. Select the answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statements are valid in connection with Andhra Pradesh Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia Policy (2023) ? I. The objective is to target Green Energy production up to the capacity of 1 MPTA (Million Tonnes Per Annum) or Green Ammonia production up to the capacity of 2.0 MTPA in the next five years. II. New and Renewable Energy Development Corporation of A.P. Ltd (NREDCAP) shall act as a Nodal Agency under this policy. III. All the Ports in the State have infrastructure for storing liquid nitrogen which can then be utilized for storing Green Hydrogen for exporting to other countries. IV. The Policy prohibits the production of Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia by using Renewable Energy and/or Biomass from 'Third-Party/Power exchange'. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the socio-economic status of Andhra Pradesh ? I. Andhra Pradesh won the Best State Award of ICAR - National Research Center for Banana (NRCB) for export promotion. II. Andhra Pradesh GSDP growth rate has been registering a decline in recent times owing to repeated lower returns in certain sub-sectors of the Service Sector. III. For the FY 2024 - 25, the Revenue Deficit is budgeted higher than the Fiscal Deficit in terms of percentage of Andhra Pradesh GSDP. IV. The technology used by the Government of Andhra Pradesh while conducting resurvey of landholdings is referred to as 'Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS)' technology. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Following are the intrusive landforms of volcanic activity and their characteristic features : I. Batholiths : Huge mass of igneous rocks, usually granite at the deeper layers of the crust. II. Phacoliths : Large igneous mounds with a dome-shaped upper surface. III. Dykes : Wall-like structures developed by solidifying almost perpendicular to the ground. IV. Sills : The near horizontal bodies of intrusive igneous rocks. Which of the above are correctly matched ?
Consider the following statements : I. Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety. II. Almost one-fourth of the Earth's crust is composed of feldspar and quartz. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Identify the incorrect statement :
Soil formation is controlled by the following factors : I. Parent material II. Topography III. Climate IV. Biological activity V. Time. Which of the above are active factors ?
Match the following : List-I (Clouds) A. Cirrus B. Cirrostratus C. Cirrocumulus D. Cumulus; List-II (Description) I. Milky appearance II. Silky appearance III. Cauliflower structure IV. Small globular masses. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Consider the following statements : I. Doldrums are the strong winds that have rapid surface movement. II. The prevailing trade wind direction in northern hemisphere is northwest. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Identify the incorrect statement on extra-tropical cyclones :
Consider the following : I. Dry winter season II. No dry season III. Dry hot summer IV. Dry and very severe winter. Which of the above are not the characteristic features of Mediterranean Climate ?
Consider the following statements : I. In general, the terrigenous deposits are derived from the land and are mainly deposited on the continental shelves. II. From the shore onwards, there is a gradual increase in the coarseness of the terrigenous deposits. III. The muds, the finest materials, are the terrigenous deposits. IV. The colouring of the muds depends upon their chemical content. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Consider the following statements : I. The Great Rift Valley in East Africa forms a series of lakes. II. Most of these lakes are fresh water lakes. III. Lake Malawi is at the southern end in the Rift Valley. IV. Lake Victoria, the largest one, is a part of the Rift Valley. Which of the above statements are correct ? [Question Deleted]
Consider the following countries : I. Chile II. Venezuela III. Ecuador IV. Peru V. Colombia. Which of the above South American countries have a Pacific coastline ?
Identify the incorrect statement :
Which of the following statements regarding Himalayas are correct ? I. Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains. II. They are wide in Kashmir and narrow in the North-eastern states. III. The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature and their core is composed of granite. IV. The longitudinal valleys lying between Greater and Lesser Himalayas are known as Duns. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Match the following Climatic regions of India according to Koeppen's scheme : List-I (Type of Climate) A. Monsoon with short dry season B. Monsoon with dry summer C. Monsoon with dry winter D. Semi-arid Steppe climate; List-II (Areas) I. West coast of India, south of Goa II. Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu III. Most of North-East India IV. Northwestern Gujarat. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Within India, Ganga river basin has the largest catchment area. After that, following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order :
Peaty soils are one of the major soils of India. These are found in :
In Andhra Pradesh, Dharwar types of rocks are found in :
Match the following : List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh) A. Coringa B. Gundla Brahmeswaram C. Rollapadu D. Sri Lankamalleswara; List-II (Endangered Species) I. Great Indian Bustard II. Jerdon's Courser III. Saltwater Crocodile IV. Tiger. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Match the following : List-I (Hunters/Nomadic tribes) A. Pygmies B. Masai C. Semangs D. Punan; List-II (Region) I. East Africa II. Congo basin III. Borneo IV. Malaysia. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Identify the incorrect statement on the linguistic diversity of India :
Match the following : List-I (Slash and burn agriculture) A. Ladang B. Milpa C. Roca D. Masole; List-II (Practising region) I. Central America II. Indonesia III. Central Africa IV. Brazil. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Following are the regions of Iron and Steel industry in the world : I. The Atlantic coast region : The United States II. The Ural region : Russia III. The Ruhr region : Eastern Europe IV. The North-eastern and Central parts : The United Kingdom. Which of the above are correctly matched ?
Trans-Siberian Railway runs between the stations in Russia from :
Consider the following states of India : I. Punjab II. Odisha III. Haryana IV. Tamil Nadu. Which of the above states have relatively high level of groundwater utilization ?
Identify the incorrect statement on Wheat crop cultivation in India :
Consider the following oil fields of India : I. Digboi II. Moran III. Kalol IV. Naharkatiya. Which of the above oil fields are located in Assam ?
In India, most of the jute mills are located in :
Consider the following erstwhile districts of Andhra Pradesh : I. West Godavari II. East Godavari III. Visakhapatnam IV. Srikakulam. In which of the above districts are coffee plantations mainly existing in their agency areas ?
'Anda, harmika and chhatri' are integral parts of which one of the following Buddhist monuments ?
Which among the following pillar inscriptions of Ashoka states that the land revenue rate of Lumbini was reduced to one-eighth ?
Consider the following statements : a. Humayun brought famous painters Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad from Iran to Delhi. b. Jahangir's reign is considered as the 'Golden period of the Mughal painting'. c. During the reign of Jahangir, European painting was introduced at the Mughal court by the Danish merchants. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
Which Mauryan officer was the incharge of Weights and Measures ?
Romaka Siddhanta written by Varahamihira deals with :
Which one of the following books was not written by Harshavardhana ?
Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to Permanent Settlement ?
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I (Delhi Sultans) a. Muhammad bin Tughlaq b. Alauddin Khalji c. Iltutmish d. Firuz Shah Tughlaq; List II (Reforms) I. Branding of Horses II. Token Currency III. Development of Irrigation IV. Introducing Silver Tankas. Codes :
Among Ashtapradhans of Shivaji, the Sar-i-Naubat was associated with which of the following tasks ?
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I (Leaders) a. Kunwar Singh b. Hazrat Mahal c. Nana Saheb d. Bakht Khan; List II (Revolt Centres) I. Kanpur II. Delhi III. Arrah, Bihar IV. Lucknow. Codes :
The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was formed in Bombay in 1920. Who presided over its first session ?
Which Act introduced the Communal Electorate System ?
Consider the following pairs regarding Carnatic wars : Wars / Associated Treaty - I. First Carnatic War : Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle II. Second Carnatic War : Treaty of Yandabo III. Third Carnatic War : Treaty of Paris. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
The Vaikom Satyagraha which started in Kerala was associated with :
What was the code name of the Indian armed forces operation to liberate Goa, Daman and Diu from Portuguese rule ?
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I (Governor-General) a. Warren Hastings b. Lord Wellesley c. Lord Minto-I d. Lord Hardinge-I; List II (Treaty) I. Treaty of Salbai II. Treaty of Bassein III. Treaty of Amritsar IV. Treaty of Lahore. Codes :
Which of the following is not a Harappan site ?
Which of the following inscriptions mentions the names of Vedic Gods Indra, Varuna, Mitra and Nasatyas ?
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Arrange the following events in the correct chronological sequence : I. Cripps Mission II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact III. Chauri Chaura Incident IV. Poona Pact
By which one of the following Acts was the Governor-General of Bengal designated as the Governor-General of India ?
During India's colonial period, the Downward Filtration Theory was related to :
Who said that "a single shelf of a good European Library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia" ?
Which of the following is not correctly matched ? Organisation - Person
Who among the following introduced the Blue Water Policy ?
Lottery Committee (1817) of the British Rule was related to :
Who founded the 'Indian Society of Oriental Art' to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
Who among the following had resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council protesting Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Lex Loci Act of 1850 ?
Consider the following statements : I. According to Continental Drift Theory, about 150 million years ago, Pangaea, the super continent, had split into Laurasia and Gondwanaland. II. About 65 million years ago, Godwanaland further broke up to give rise to other continents. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? [Question Deleted]
Identify the incorrect statement :
Match the following : List I (Landform) a. Delta b. Cirque c. Cliffs d. Sand Dunes; List II (Geomorphic agent) I. Waves and Currents II. Winds III. Running water IV. Glaciers. Codes :
In which of the following layers of the atmosphere do meteorites burn up when they enter from the space ?
Match the following on heating and cooling of Atmosphere : List I (Process) a. Advection b. Convection c. Insolation d. Conduction; List II (Mechanism) I. Horizontal heating II. Vertical heating III. Direct heating IV. Heating the lower layers. Codes :
Consider the following statements : I. Kavaratti is the largest city in Lakshadweep Islands. II. Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island of Lakshadweep from Maldives. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Match the following : List I (Ocean Bottom Relief) a. Continental Shelf b. Continental Slope c. Deep Sea Plain d. Oceanic Deeps; List II (Characteristic feature) I. Presence of canyons and trenches II. Associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. III. Presence of massive sedimentary deposits IV. Presence of fine-grained sediments. Codes :
Identify the correct arrangement of the following water bodies as per their salinity in decreasing order :
Which of the following mountains are young fold mountains ?
Prairies are the temperate grasslands present in :
The part of the Himalayas between Satluj and Kali rivers is called :
The Eastern Ghats stretch from :
Which of the following river forms the Dhuandhar waterfalls ?
Pre-monsoon Mango Showers are common in the coastal areas of :
In India, very deep black soils are found in :
The most widespread forests in India are :
Match the following : List I (River) a. Vamsadhara b. Machkund c. Gundlakamma d. Pennar; List II (Origin) I. Nallamala hills II. Nandidurga hills III. Jayapur hills IV. Mudugal hills. Codes :
Identify the incorrect statement :
Match the following : List I (Scheduled Tribe) a. Gaddis b. Jarawas c. Santhals d. Bhutias; List II (State/Union Territory) I. Sikkim II. Jharkhand III. Andaman and Nicobar Islands IV. Himachal Pradesh. Codes :
Consider the following statements : I. The monsoons are primary winds. II. The monsoons are confined only to the tropical lands lying between 20 degrees N and 20 degrees S. III. Distribution of rainfall received from the South-West monsoons is governed mainly by the relief of the country. Which of the above statements are correct ? [Question Deleted]
Match the following : List I (Functional classification of town) a. Mining town b. Industrial town c. Administrative town d. Garrison Cantonment town; List II (Example) I. Jamshedpur II. Ankleshwar III. Udhampur IV. Gandhinagar. Codes :
Which of the following oilseed crops is grown as 'rabi' crop only ?
In which region in India was tea plantation started in the first half of the 19th century ?
Match the following on industrial clusters developed by APIIC Ltd. in Andhra Pradesh : List I (Location of the Industrial Cluster) a. Gandrajupalle in Chittoor region b. Kopparthi in Kadapa region c. Makavarapalem at Visakhapatnam d. Machilipatnam; List II (Type of Industry) I. Silk and Garments II. Engineering III. Aluminium IV. Jewellery. Codes :
In which place in India was the first cement plant set up in 1904 ?
Which one of the following states is not connected with the Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) gas pipeline ?
Bilaspur is the headquarters of which of the following Railway zones ?
Match the following on mineral resources of Andhra Pradesh : List I (Mineral) a. Manganese b. Bauxite c. Mica d. Limestone; List II (Place in erstwhile districts) I. Forest areas of Visakhapatnam and East Godavari II. Garividi in Vizianagaram III. Jammalamadugu and Mydukuru in Kadapa region IV. Nellore Region. Codes :
Match the following tourist spots of Andhra Pradesh : List I (Beach) a. Suryalanka b. Manginapudi c. Kothapatnam d. Perupalem; List II (Nearest City/Town) I. Narasapuram II. Ongole III. Machilipatnam IV. Bapatla. Codes :
To eradicate child marriages, a unique data driven approach like ALIVA is adopted by :
A circular structure used by Zoroastrians for excarnation or the disposal of human dead bodies through exposure to the natural elements and scavenger animals such as vultures is called :
The online portal developed by the Government of India for effective enforcement of the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, (which was amended in 2016), is :
Consider the following statements : I. W.P. Scott defined divorce as 'an institutionalised arrangement for terminating the marriage relationship and allowing each partner the right to remarry'. II. The first legislation in respect of the dissolution of marriage in India was enacted in 1869, and is 'Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act'. III. The irresponsible departure from the home on the part of husband, leaving the family to fend for itself is called as 'the poor man's divorce'. Which of the above given statements are correct ?
Ravindra and Seema are husband and wife. Krishna and Madhavi are children of Ravindra-Seema. Madhavi is married to Harish and Jyothi is the daughter of Madhavi-Harish. Then the Consanguineous Kinship is between :
As per the recommendations of the Sachar Committee, which among the following Muslim groups needs additional attention, similar to that of Hindu OBCs ?
In the lines of Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013, which of the following Robots can be used to end India's manual scavenging ?
In which of the following cases is it alleged that the verdict of the Supreme Court of India diluted the stringent provisions of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 ?
The Shuddhi Movement to bring back the people who transformed their religion to Islam and Christianity from Hinduism was started by :
India's first high-tech sports training centre for Divyangjan, 'The Atal Bihari Vajpayee Training Centre for Disability Sports' inaugurated on 2nd October, 2023 is located at :
Under whose Chairmanship was a high-level committee on socio-economic, health and educational status of tribal communities of India set up by the Prime Minister's Office in 2013 ?
Who stated that 'I measure the progress of a community by the degree of progress which women have achieved' ?
After a landmark Judgement on Triple Talaq in 2017, which among the following methods of divorce practised in Muslim society was recently challenged in the Apex Court of India ?
Which among the following IT initiatives by the Ministry of Home Affairs facilitates dissemination of information about significant crimes, including Human Trafficking across the country on real time basis and enables Interstate co-ordination ?
Who defined 'Communalism as the political assertiveness of a community to maintain its identity in a plural society undergoing modernization' ?
The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 enacted by the Government of India came into force from :
Consider the following statements : I. In the 15th Lok Sabha the percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha had crossed 10% of its total strength for the first time. II. The 17th Lok Sabha has a higher percentage of representation of elected women members than before and it is the highest ever since the independence of India. III. The women members elected to the Legislative Assembly of Andhra Pradesh in General Elections 2019 was 11.74% of its total strength. IV. The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023 got the assent of the President on 28th September, 2023. Which among the above given statements are correct ?
Under the pressure of groups interested in linguistic regionalism, the President of the Constituent Assembly of India has appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission to report on creation of provinces of Andhra, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra. In which year was this Commission appointed and who was it chaired by ?
Consider the following statements about the Assam Movement : I. The Assam Movement led by All Assam Students' Union (AASU) was started in the year 1983. II. The objective of the Assam Movement is to identify the migrant people, protect and provide constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards to the Bangladeshi Migrants in Assam. III. The Assam Movement was officially ended on 15th August, 1989 after coming to an understanding with the Government of India which found official expression in the Memorandum of Understanding popularly known as the Assam Accord. Which of the above given statements is/are correct ?
Consider the following statements regarding the PM CARES for Children Scheme : I. The PM CARES for Children Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11th March, 2020 for children who have lost their parents due to COVID-19 pandemic. II. The PM CARES for Children Scheme inter-alia provides support to children through convergent approach, gap funding for ensuring education, health, monthly stipend from the age of 14 years and the child receives a lump sum amount of Rs.10 lakhs on attaining the age of 18 years. III. The children who have lost their legal guardian, adoptive parents or single adoptive parent due to COVID-19 pandemic are also entitled to benefits under the scheme. Which of the above given statements are incorrect ?
According to whom 'the existence of strong personal attachments and the fact of death, which of all human events is the most upsetting and disorganizing to man's calculations, are perhaps the main sources of religious belief' ?
Which of the following Constitutional Amendments provided rights for making provisions in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation of qualifying marks in any examination (or) lowering the standards of evaluation and for reservation in the matter of promotions to the public services of the Centre and the State ?
Identify the country with which the Union Cabinet of India has approved signing of Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for co-operation in disability sector that benefits the persons with disabilities (PwDs) ?
A consensual and informal relationship practised in accordance to matrilineal laws of Kerala that prevailed among Namboothiris and Nairs is known as :
Recently the Delhi High Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a provision of the Hindu Marriage Act which 'prohibits marriage between people who are related to each other through ancestors from their parent's side unless their customs allow them to do so'. The said provision was mentioned in which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act ?
A Centrally sponsored scheme that aims to achieve the objectives of child protection, happy childhood and development under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is :
Which of the following was the custom practised during the ancient period that allows married women to cohabit with a designated male for the sole purpose of procreating a child if her husband was impotent or had died ?
As per Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, a minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes is compulsory for which of the following states ? I. Madhya Pradesh II. Punjab III. Uttar Pradesh IV. Jharkhand V. Odisha
The comment 'Devotion cannot be subjected to gender discrimination' was made by the Apex Court in its judgement in the Sabarimala Case and permitted women of all age groups into the Sabarimala temple. Who among the following middle aged women first entered the Sabarimala temple after the Supreme Court judgement ?
Consider the following statements regarding the 9th Asian Winter Games : I. The 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 are set to be held at Beijing, China. II. The official slogan of the 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 is 'Dream of Winter, Love Among Asia'. III. The names of the two tiger mascots of the 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 are Yingying and Nini. IV. On January 11th, 2024 the emblem of the 9th Asian Winter Games 2025 'Breakthrough' was officially announced. Which of the given above statements are correct ?
Which country was certified as Malaria-free by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2024 ?
Who among the following eminent personalities have been conferred with the Padma Shri Award 2024 for their contributions and achievements in the field of Arts ? I. Drona Bhuyan II. Ghulam Nabi Dar III. Rajaram Jain IV. Dasari Kondappa V. Dukhu Majhi
According to INTERPOL, which State police had registered one of the first cases in India of human trafficking committed to force victims to commit cyber fraud ?
Match the following List I with List II with regard to Arjuna Awards 2023 : List I (Name) a. Ritu Negi b. Sheetal Devi c. Naorem Roshibina Devi d. Diksha Dagar e. Harinder Pal Singh Sandhu; List II (Sports Discipline) I. Golf II. Kabaddi III. Squash IV. Para-Archery V. Wushu. Codes :
Which among the following is the initiative by the Government of Karnataka in collaboration with the All India Game Developers Forum (AIGDF) with special emphasis on gaming and social media ?
What is the theme of 'International Day of Education 2024' ?
Consider the following statements : I. India's first National Highway steel slag road section is on NH-66 Mumbai-Goa National Highway. II. Steel slag technology was developed by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) and Central Road Research Institute (CRRI). III. JSW Steel, under the IGBC-CRRI technological guidance, has constructed a 1 km long four lane steel slag road section on NH-66 Mumbai-Goa National Highway. Which of the above given statements is/are correct ?
'The Husavik Exploration Museum' seen in the news recently, belongs to which country ?
Consider the following statements about MILAN 2024 : I. MILAN 2024 is the 12th edition of Multilateral Naval Exercise being held from 19th to 27th February, 2024 under the aegis of Southern Naval Command. II. The Harbour phase of MILAN 2024 is from 19th to 25th February, 2024 and is aimed towards building upon the experience of multilateral forces operating together at sea. III. The Sea phase of MILAN 2024 is being conducted from 22nd to 27th February, 2024 and provides a platform for participating navies to discuss maritime subjects of common interest and share solutions. Which among the above given statements are correct ?
Which country has officially declared the 'Snow Leopard' as its national symbol, underscoring its commitment to conservation and ecological balance ?
The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) was launched on 9th September, 2023 during the G20 Summit. Which among the following non-G20 countries are supporting the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) ? I. Paraguay II. Sri Lanka III. Guyana IV. Seychelles V. Chile VI. Finland
The Government of Gujarat is set to launch the country's first Submarine tourism in collaboration with :
A German-based company, Pepper Motion is set to invest Rs.4,640 crores in its EV Bus and Truck manufacturing unit in 800 acres at :
In which state was the law guaranteeing 75% reservation for their local residents in the private sector struck down by the High Court stating the law is unconstitutional ?
Consider the following statements : I. The Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) led by National Mission for Clean Ganga under the Ministry of Jal Shakti was launched at COP28 in New Delhi. II. The Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) is a unique alliance covering 275+ global river cities in 11 countries. III. The Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) is the first of its kind in the world. Which of the above given statements is/are correct ?
Which among the following is incorrectly paired ?
The Centre of Excellence for Vegetables and Spices under the Indo-Israel Agriculture Project was proposed to be set up in :
Consider the following statements : I. Vijayawada Railway Station was awarded the 'Green Railway Station' certification with the highest rating of Platinum by Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED), USA. II. Vijayawada Railway Station is the first in the South-Central Railway (SCR) Zone to have bagged the Platinum ring. Which among the above given statements is/are correct ?
Which among the following countries got membership into BRICS bloc with effect from 1st January, 2024 ? I. Egypt II. Argentina III. Indonesia IV. Ethiopia V. Saudi Arabia
Identify the incorrect statement regarding 'PM Vishwakarma Yojana' Scheme : I. The Government of India launched the 'PM Vishwakarma Yojana' Scheme to provide end-to-end support to fishermen with non-mechanized boats. II. 'PM Vishwakarma Yojana' Scheme provides collateral free enterprise development loan up to Rs.6 lakhs in two tranches.
Consider the following statements : I. Dr. Tallavajhala Patanjali Sastri was conferred with Sahitya Akademi Award 2023 in Telugu Language for his poetry and poetry collections. II. D.K. Chaduvula Babu was conferred with the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2023 in Telugu Language for his short stories 'Vajrala Vaana'. III. Johny Takkedasila was conferred with the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2023 in Telugu Language for his book 'Devara Kotishu'. Which of the above given statements are incorrect ?
Identify the incorrect statements among the following : I. Man Singh is the second Indian to win a gold medal at the Asian Marathon Championships. II. Hardik Singh was named as Men's FIH Player of the Year at the International Hockey Federation Hockey Star Awards 2023. III. Indian women's hockey captain Sushila Chanu won the FIH 'Best Goalkeeper of the Year Award' at the International Hockey Federation Hockey Star Awards 2023. IV. Shubman Gill has been selected as 'Emerging Player of the Year' at International Cricket Council (ICC) Awards 2023.
In which part of Andhra Pradesh is India's first largest private gold mine located ?
Consider the following statements about the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2023 : I. Daniel Barenboim was announced as winner of the Indira Gandhi Prize 2023 for his efforts to solve economic crisis and his contribution in the development of Sri Lanka. II. Ali Abu Awwad was announced as winner of the Indira Gandhi Prize 2023 for his efforts towards a non-violent resolution of the Israel-Palestine conflict. III. The International Jury of the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2023 was chaired by former Chief Justice of India, R.M. Lodha. Which among the above given statements are incorrect ?
Which among the following rare natural phenomenon is going to happen in 2024, after 221 years, in the United States of America ?
Which among the following are incorrectly paired with regard to Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023 ? I. Best SafaiMitra Suraksha Sheher : Prayagraj II. Cleanest Ganga Town rank 2 : Varanasi III. Cleanest Cantonment Board : Mhow Cantonment Board IV. All India Cleanest City rank 3 : Navi Mumbai
Consider the following statements with regard to India Skills Report 2024 : I. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Kerala are the top three states with the highest availability of talent with computer skills. II. Karnataka is the most preferred state to work for both male and female employable talent. III. Telangana has the highest concentration of employable talent in the age group of 18 to 21 years. IV. Andhra Pradesh is one among the states with the largest concentration of highly employable resources. Which of the above given statements are correct ?
Pick out the odd pairs with regard to newly elected Presidents of that respective country : I. Fernando Perez Molina : Guatemala II. Abdel Fattah El-Sisi : Egypt III. Felix Tshisekedi : Democratic Republic of the Congo IV. Sierra Leone : Liberia
Which is the first South Asian Nation to formally register same sex marriage ?
Study the following arrangement carefully : DE*9E$P#6+U0$H1A2D&#AS2ΩA3DS9ALM# What should be in the place of question mark (?) in the following sequence based on the above arrangement ? DE* 9$P 60$ A#A ?
Rajesh codes the alphabets as numbers such as a=1, b=2, c=3 and so on. Then what is the value that Rajesh gets by adding all the letters (according to the code given to that letter) in the word 'pneumonoultramicroscopicsilicovolcanoconiosis' ?
Directions for question nos. 123 to 125 : YSR Kadapa team has to play cricket matches with Visakhapatnam team as a part of 'Aadudam Andhra' organized by the Government of Andhra Pradesh. The number of players in each team must be 5 only. Both the teams have to choose 5 players from the eight players given below. Player (Role, Money to be paid per Match): A (Batsman, Rs.5,000), B (Batsman, Rs.5,500), C (Batsman/Part time Wicketkeeper, Rs.6,500), D (Specialist Wicketkeeper, Rs.5,500), E (Bowler-Spin, Rs.5,000), F (Bowler-Fast, Rs.6,000), G (Bowler-Spin, Rs.5,500), H (Bowler-Fast, Rs.5,500). Conditions : 1. B and C cannot be selected together. 2. Wicketkeeper is a must in the team. 3. E and G cannot be selected together. 4. Among E, F, G and H, only two persons are to be selected. 5. If A is selected, H must be selected. 6. There must be at least two batsmen and two bowlers in the team. 7. C is considered as both a batsman and a wicketkeeper. YSR Kadapa team decides to compose the team with one fast bowler and one spinner and has a budget of only Rs.26,500 to form a team. Then who among the following is not a member of that team satisfying all the conditions ?
(Same directions and data as Q.123.) If it is known that the stadium is favourable to spin bowling and YSR Kadapa team decided to select C and G compulsorily in the team, then what is the total amount spent by the team on selected players satisfying all the conditions ?
(Same directions and data as Q.123.) If it is known that the stadium is favourable to fast bowling and YSR Kadapa team decided to compose the team with two fast bowlers, then what would be the least amount that can be spent to form a team satisfying all the conditions ?
Read the following instructions : A$D means 'A is to the North of D' A&D means 'A is to the East of D' A*D means 'D is to the West of A' A%D means 'D is to the South of A' A@DR means 'A stands exactly in the middle of the horizontal line of DR' A!DR means 'A stands exactly in the middle of the vertical line of DR' It should be noted that 'A6m$D' means 'A is 6 meters to the north of D' and so on. Find the shortest distance between S and T in the following expression : 'B12m$S5m*R3m&J6m%K!JT'
Ramana was born on 29th February, 2016 which happened to be a Monday. If he lives till 2099, how many birthdays would he celebrate on a Monday ? [Question Deleted]
The speeds of Rohit and Lalith are 30 km/h and 40 km/h. Initially, Lalith is at place X and Rohit is at place Y. The distance between X and Y is 650 kms. Rohit started his journey 3 hours earlier than Lalith to meet him. If they both meet each other at a place Z somewhere between X and Y and the distance between Y and Z is P, then what is the value of P divided by 2 ?
If in a certain code language 'CONSERVE' is written as 'BDNPMORTDFQSUWDF', then how will 'NUMEROUS' be written in that code ?
R and S are friends. R lives in USA and S lives in India. One day R asked S that 'if the time now in USA is T hours, then what is the time now in India' and S replied that 'India is 9 hours 30 minutes ahead of USA'. Then what time will it be 18 hours from now in India, if in the USA it is 4:15 AM ? [Question Deleted]
In the month of January, the students of Chaitanya Bharathi Public School visited M/s Swaminathan Farm, where they saw rabbits and pigeons. One student started counting. If the heads are counted, there are 340 heads and if legs are counted there are 1060 legs. He also observed that 3 pigeons (out of the total pigeons present there) were dead. Then how many live pigeons are there on that farm ?
The sum of the present ages of Ramu and his son Jagadeesh is 60 years. Six years ago, Ramu's age was five times the age of Jagadeesh. After 6 years, Jagadeesh's age will be :
If 2X4X6X8X10X12X14X16X18=18579XYZ0, what is the value of X + Y + Z ?
Directions for question nos. 134 and 135 : On the occasion of unveiling of Statue of Social Justice, the Government of Andhra Pradesh had set up exhibition and stalls at PWD grounds, Vijayawada. Raghu went to the exhibition to visit 8 stalls, Stall-1, Stall-2, Stall-3, Stall-4, Stall-5, Stall-6, Stall-7, Stall-8, but not necessarily in the same order. He started from Stall-1 and walked towards Stall-3 which is at distance of 24 m towards East. He then turned left and walked 16 m to reach Stall-5. Then he walked 57 m Southwest to visit Stall-2, which is towards the South of Stall-1, crossing the path which goes through the midpoint of the line joining Stall-1 and Stall-3. After visiting Stall-2, he walked 40 m in the East direction and reached Stall-7. He then walked 50 m left to reach Stall-8 and then 16 m right to reach Stall-4 and to reach the last stall, he walked 35 m towards the right. What is the shortest distance between Stall-3 and Stall-6 ?
(Same directions and data as Q.134.) What is the direction of Stall-1 with respect to Stall-2 and the shortest distance between them ?
If AB x DED = AB AB, AB x DEDED = AB AB AB, ABC x DEED = ABC ABC, and DED + DEDED + DEED = DDFEG, where A, B, C, D, E, F and G are different digits, what is the value of F x G ?
Suneetha is working as a Deputy Collector and gets a monthly salary of Rs.74,000. She used to spend it on three heads : i.e., Personal and family expenses (P), Medical (M) and Charity (C) and rest were her savings. P was 70% of her salary, M was 20% of P and C was 15% of M. When she gets a salary hike, her salary is 60% higher than in the past. She maintained the same percentage of P, but M became 25% of P and C became 20% of M. The difference between the two savings is :
Vijay invested a sum of Rs.8,192 at 15% per annum in State Bank of India. What is the compound interest for the sum invested by Vijay for 1 1/4 years, if interest is compounded 5 monthly ?
Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain rule. Following the same rule find out the missing number (?) : 2 [4] 3 = 14, 4 [6] 5 = 32, 5 [7] 6 = 44, 6 [8] 7 = ?
Arun finds the letters to be placed in the place of '?' and '!' in the figure given and by combining and arranging those four letters in the figure given, he finds the name of a country. The Capital city of that country is : [3x3 grid figure with corner numbers 9,5,7,4 / 7,U,?,5 / 2,E,!,6 / 1,2,9,3]
Siva defines a number as 'connected with 9' if it is divisible by 9, or if the sum of its digits is 9, or if 9 is one of the digits of the number, and other numbers are all 'not connected with 9'. As per his definition, the number of integers from 1 to 90 (both included) which are not connected with 9 is :
Read the following instructions : A3B means 'A is the Mother of B' A11B means 'A is the Brother of B' A9B means 'A is the Father of B' A12B means 'A is the Sister of B' Which of the following expressions means that P is the maternal uncle of Q ?
Find out the odd one in the following series : 2, 4, 7, 11.5, 18.25, 28.375, 42.5625
Priyanka brought 20 plates and 12 teacups. She marked up the plates by 15% on the cost price of each and the teacups by Rs.20 on the cost price of each. She sold 75% of the plates and 8 teacups and made a profit of Rs.385. If the cost of a teacup is 60% the cost of a plate and she got no returns on unsold items, what was her overall profit or loss ? [Question Deleted]
Mahesh and Krishna are engaged to do a work. Mahesh working alone takes 8 hours more to complete the job than if both worked together. If Krishna worked alone, he would need 4 1/2 hours more to complete the job than if they both worked together. How much time would they both take to do the work together ?
Find the number of triangles and squares in the following figure : [pyramid-shaped figure formed of nested triangles, a central diamond and squares]
Statement : Two industrialists, Shyam and Manoj, have industries right next to each other. They have been working hard for their industries' development and both of them manufacture the same product. Both spend equal amount of time, use the same materials and are equally hardworking. During the sales period, Shyam had better product sale in comparison to Manoj's product. Conclusion I : The quality of material used by Manoj was not good. Conclusion II : Power cuts ruined the quality of Manoj's product.
Statement : The civic authority has decided that all the factories located inside the city limits be shifted outside to reduce the level of environmental pollution in the city. Assumption I : The pollution level in the city in future may reduce after these factories are shifted outside the city limits. Assumption II : Enough usable land is available outside the city limit for these factories. Assumption III : Many of these factories may shift to some other smaller towns to remain profitable.