OPSC Prelims 2025

Consider the following statements with respect to doctrine of "procedure established by law" as provided in the Constitution of India. I. It protects against executive action. II. It protects against legislative action. III. Article 22 was incorporated to the Constitution as additional safeguards after debate in the Constituent Assembly. IV. In the Bank Nationalisation Case, the Supreme Court adopted its strict interpretation. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Which of the following initiatives launched recently by the Government of India is NOT directly associated with carbon trading or emissions reduction mechanism?

Consider the following statements regarding desert climate and soils: 1. Aridisols show significant leaching due to rainfall. 2. Desert soils are often coarse-textured and well-drained. 3. Entisols are highly developed soils with multiple horizons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with respect to IPCC assessment. I. IPCC was established by UNEP and WMO II. IPCC directly enforces emission reductions III. Fifth Assessment Report highlights rapid warming since 1950s IV. IPCC provides a scientific basis for policymaking How many of the above statement(s) is/are true?

Consider the following statements with respect to Prashast 2.0? I. A mobile App launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. II. To screen school children with respect to 20 types of disabilities under the RPwD Act, 2016. III. Aims at early screening and intervention in integrating the identified children to the social, behavioural and mainstream educational environment. IV. Its integration with UDISE+ is pending. How many of the above statement(s) is/are true?

Consider the following match with respect to "Aapki Poonji, Aapka Adhikar" campaign to reclaim the unclaimed financial assets. I. Bank Deposit - UDGAM Portal II. Insurance Proceeds - Bima Kiran Portal III. Mutual Fund Investment - MITRA Portal IV. Dividends and shares - SEBI Portal How many of the above is/are correctly matched?

Match the following Biosphere Reserves with their corresponding State (List-I) and year for national designation of India (List-II): List-I (Biosphere Reserve and State): (a) Panna, Madhya Pradesh (b) Nanda Devi, Uttarakhand (c) Agasthyamalai, Tamil Nadu and Kerala (d) Cold Desert, Himachal Pradesh List-II (Year of designation): 1. 1988 2. 2011 3. 2009 4. 2001 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

With reference to pipeline transportation of oil, consider the following statements: I. In regions such as Europe, Russia, West Asia and India, pipelines are widely used to transport crude oil from oil wells to refineries and ports. II. Pipeline networks are generally absent in Central Asian countries due to difficult terrain and political constraints. III. Turkmenistan has developed pipeline connectivity extending to Iran and parts of China. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the World Trade Organisation (WTO), consider the following statements: I. Its headquarters are located in Geneva, Switzerland. II. As of December 2024, it has 166 member countries. III. India is a founding member of the organisation. IV. It was established in 1945 along with the United Nations system. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following major Ports of the World (List-I) and match them with their correct functional classification (List-II): List-I (Port): (a) Maracaibo, Venezuela (b) Rotterdam, Europe (c) Kochi, India (d) Aden, Yemen List-II (Functional Type): 1. Entrepot Port 2. Oil Port 3. Ports of Call 4. Naval Port Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following statements about education policy and learning outcomes in India and Odisha: I. NEP 2020 recommends home language/mother tongue as medium of instruction until at least Grade 5, but Odisha faces challenges due to multiplicity of tribal languages. II. Odisha's "Mo School Abhiyan" has been successful in mobilizing alumni funds for infrastructure, but studies show weak correlation between infrastructure and learning outcomes without pedagogical reform. III. ASER 2023 for Odisha shows that while enrollment remains high (>95%), the proportion of Class 3 children who can read a Class 2 level text has declined compared to pre-COVID levels. IV. Odisha's "Siksha Sahayata Yojana" provides scholarships for higher education to SC/ST/OBC students, but renewal requires 75% attendance, which is difficult for wage laborers. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Who said "The Arab invasion of Sindh is a triumph without results"?

Who confessed: The defeats of many Billies and Braithwaites will not destroy them. I can ruin their resources by land, but I cannot dry up the sea?

The Mahalwari system in Odisha was introduced in which district?

The opening of College in Cuttack took place in which year?

Examine the following statements. Statement-I: The Courts are prohibited to inquire to the advice given by the Ministers to the Governor Statement-II: The Ministers have no legal responsibility as per the constitutional provision. In the above context, which one of the following is correct?

Consider the following statements regarding aquatic organisms: 1. Plankton are small organisms that float in water. 2. Nekton includes organisms that actively swim in water. 3. Benthos are organisms that live suspended in the water column. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to cyclones, consider: 1. Cyclones form when sea temperature exceeds -27°C 2. High-pressure zones initiate cyclones 3. Wind spirals inward towards low-pressure centre 4. Cyclones move toward regions of higher pressure 5. Cyclones derive energy from ocean heat Which of the above are true?

Consider the following statements regarding outcomes of COP30: 1. The Belém Package focuses primarily on setting new binding emission targets. 2. The Global Mutirão Agreement prioritises implementation over ambition. 3. The Just Transition Mechanism includes legally guaranteed financial commitments. 4. The Global Implementation Tracker is intended to assess alignment with the 1.5°C pathway. Which of the statements given above are correct?

India integrates biodiversity finance with development planning. Question: This best reflects:

Which of the two Articles of Indian Constitution override Fundamental Rights in respect of Article 14 Right to Equality and State level Economic Redistribution ________?

In which Article of Indian Constitution the 'Doctrine of Estoppel' is found ________?

Under whose Prime Ministership the nomenclature of 'Prime Minister's Secretariat' was changed to 'Prime Minister's Office'?

Consider the following with respect to pygmy hog (porcula salvania). I. It is the rarest species of wild pig. II. It inhabits in the tall, dense, wet alluvial grasslands of Himalayan Southern foothills. III. It is a critically endangered species as per IUCN Red List. IV. Their conservation was started by the trust founded by Gerald Durrell. How many of the above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Mpemba effect. I. Freezing of hotter water faster than colder water under specific conditions. II. JLN Advanced Scientific Research has used supercomputers to develop the first simulation of ice formation proving the Mpemba effect of water. III. Named after Nigerian scientist Erasto Mpemba, who rediscovered it in 1969. IV. Aristotle, Robert Hooke and Descartes have noted about this experiment earlier. V. Relaxation of materials due to sudden temperature changes is technically called out-of-equilibrium phenomena. How many of the above statements are true?

Presently a 9-Judges Bench of the Supreme Court is hearing the Sabarimala reference. Consider the following statements relevant to the 9-Judges Bench of the Supreme Court. I. It is as per the Article 145(3) of the Constitution. II. KS Puttaswamy vs. UOI case III. Indra Sawhney & Ors vs. UOI & Ors case IV. S.R. Bommai & Ors vs. UOI & Ors case How many of the above are correct?

Which of the following statements about the Children's Booker Prize is NOT correct: 1) It will be awarded annually from 2027 2) It will be awarded annually from 2028 3) The founding partner and principal funder of it is the AKO Foundation 4) The founding partner and principal funder of it is the TVS Foundation Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Which one of the following processes involves a decrease in entropy?

With reference to the geomorphological evolution of the Peninsular Plateau of India, match the following hill ranges (List-I) with their corresponding geomorphological origin and characteristics (List-II): List-I (Hill Range): (a) Aravalli Range (b) Nallamala Hills (c) Javadi Hills (d) Mahendragiri Hills List-II (Type/Characteristic): 1. Highly denuded remnant of an ancient fold mountain system (residual mountain) 2. Structural hill range forming a major segment of the Eastern Ghats 3. Dissected plateau remnant representing fragmented Eastern Ghats 4. North-eastern discontinuous extension of the Eastern Ghats near the coastal plain Codes:

Consider the following statements regarding the statutory definition of "disaster" as provided under the Disaster Management Act, 2005: 1. It covers events arising from both natural and anthropogenic causes, including those due to accidents or negligence. 2. It necessarily entails a large-scale loss of human life for an event to be classified as a disaster. 3. It includes damage to property, the environment and resultant human suffering. 4. It is characterised by an occurrence of such nature or magnitude that it exceeds the coping capacity of the affected community. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to oilseeds in India, consider the following statements: I. Oilseeds are cultivated primarily for the extraction of edible oils. II. Dryland regions such as Malwa Plateau, Marathwada, Gujarat and Rajasthan are important oilseed-growing areas. III. Oilseeds occupy about one-third of the total cropped area in India. IV. Groundnut, rapeseed and mustard, soybean and sunflower are major oilseed crops in India. How many of the above is/are CORRECT?

Which one of the following correctly describes the geographical behaviour of Bahuda, Vansadhara and Nagavali rivers?

With reference to the power sector in Odisha, the Odisha Power Generation Corporation (OPGC) plays a significant role in thermal power generation in the state. In this context, OPGC was incorporated on:

Consider the following description of a demographic trend in India: "Between 1971 and 2021, India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) declined from 5.2 to 2.0. During the same period, the proportion of the population aged 60 years and above increased from 5% to over 10%. The working-age population (15-59 years) peaked around 2020 and is projected to begin declining after 2040." Based on this description, which of the following statements is most accurate?

Consider the following statements about targeting and leakage in poverty alleviation programs in India and Odisha: I. Aadhaar-based biometric authentication for PDS in Odisha has reduced duplicate ration cards, but studies show increased exclusion errors for elderly and tribal populations. II. Odisha's "One Nation One Ration Card" (ONORC) implementation allows migrant workers from Odisha to access subsidized grains in destination states. III. DBT for MGNREGS wages in Odisha has reduced corruption but not significantly reduced delays, as fund release remains sequential. IV. SECC 2011 data, still used for targeting, has not been updated, leading to inclusion of households that have exited poverty and exclusion of new poor. How many of the above statement is/are correct?

Population distribution between rural and urban areas is best represented using which of the following graphical methods?

Match the correct pair for List-I and List-II List-I: a. Monetarism b. Employment Multiplier c. Multiplier effect of balanced budget d. Rational expectation Hypothesis List-II: I. R. F Kahn II. T. Havelmo III. John Muth IV. Milton Friedman Codes:

Consider the following pairs: I. Mudrarakshasa: Narrates the ascent of Samudragupta to power II. Malavikagnimitram: Drama by Kalidasa about the Sunga ruler Agnimitra III. Milindapanho: Conversation between Menander and Nagasena IV. Dathavamsa: A Buddhist Ceylonese Chronicle of Tooth Relic How many pair(s) is/are WRONGLY matched?

Match the columns: I: I. Annie Besant II. Badruddin Tyabji III. Mahatma Gandhi IV. Syed Ahmed Khan II: First Indian woman to become Congress President in 1925 First Muslim President of Congress in 1887 Presided over the Belgaum session of Congress in 1924 Earned the knighthood in 1888 How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Match List-I with List-II with respect to language of Indus Valley civilisation and select the answer using the codes given below the lists. List-I: i) Mahadevan ii) SR Rao iii) Kinnier-Wilson iv) Parpola v) Soviet Scholars List-II: (a) Language was Dravidian and Script relied upon homophones (b) Language is closer to Dravidian than to any other language. (c) Accept the Dravidian hypothesis and published an impressive computer concordance (d) Attempt to read the contents of the inscriptions in terms of analogies between Harappan and Sumerian signs. (e) Attempt to read the script as containing a pre-Indo-Aryan language of the Indo-European family Codes:

Consider the following statements in the speech of Canadian Prime Minister Mark Carney at the World Economic Forum at Davos. Statement-I: The middle powers must act together. Statement-II: We are neither at the table nor on the menu.

Which of the following cities acted as the meeting point for trade routes from east to west and from north to south from historical perspective?

With reference to the temple architecture of Odisha, consider the following. I. The Vaidyanath temple near Sonepur has a lofty gateway. II. The Vaital temple at Bhubaneswar is designed in Khakhara style. III. The Sun temple at Konark is a living temple. IV. The Chausath Yogini temple at Hirapur is circular in plan. How many statements mentioned above are correct?

With reference to Jayi Rajaguru, consider the following statements. I. His full name was Jayakrushna Rajaguru Mahapatra. II. He was the royal preceptor to Mukundadeva II. III. He mobilized an army of Paiks and revolted against the British East India Company in 1804. IV. On 6 December 1806 he was executed at Midnapore. How many statement(s) mentioned above is/are correct?

Which literary source mentions Kalinga and Odra along with the sacred river Baitarani and Goddess Viraja?

Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT correct in respect of the number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers ______? (1) The total number of Ministers excluding Prime Minister should not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of Lok Sabha (2) The 91st Constitution Amendment Act introduced a cap on the number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers (3) The principle of 15% of the total strength of Legislative Assemblies also applicable to States in Indian Union (4) The ceiling on the numerical strength of Council of Ministers is limited to 15% of the strength of both the Houses of Parliament

Who advanced the slogan, "Ek desh mein do Vidhan, do Pradhan aur Do Nishan nahi chalenge"?

Consider the following Statement(s) and Explanation (E) Statement (S): The Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be restricted. Explanation (E): The state can impose reasonable restrictions on certain rights in the interest of sovereignty, security and public order. Options:

The concept of Judicial Review in India is primarily derived from the Constitution of ________ while the concept of Parliamentary Sovereignty is influenced by ________. Options:

A data protection law restricts sharing of personal data, but RTI activists argue it weakens transparency. Question: This scenario highlights:

Statement (S): Digital governance can enhance inclusion. Explanation (E): It eliminates all forms of exclusion. Options:

Consider the following statements regarding the Departmentally Related Parliamentary Standing Committee. I. Permanent regular panels to frame legislations. II. They also examine the "Demand for Grants" for various departments during the budget process and review policies and performance of departments. III. There are 22 such Committees consisting 31 members each. IV. The Estimate Committee and Public Accounts Committee are the two most important amongst such Committees. How many of the above is/are true?

Consider the following statements regarding Blue Flag beaches in India: I. Blue Flag certification is awarded to coastal sites that meet international standards of cleanliness, water quality, safety and sustainable management. II. The certification is granted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). III. In India, the Blue Flag programme is implemented under the Integrated Coastal Zone Management programme. IV. India has achieved Blue Flag certification for 18 beaches across 7 coastal states and 4 Union Territories as of the 2025-26 How many statements above is/are correct?

Assertion (A): Increasing atmospheric CO2 reduces carbonate ion availability in seawater. Reason (R): Dissolved CO2 forms carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions that bind with carbonate ions.

The HPV Vaccination drive launched by the Prime Minister in February, 2026. I. It is aimed at combating cervical cancer, the foremost common cancer in Indian women. II. The target group is girls of 14 years of age. III. Gardasil 9 is a HPV vaccine. IV. Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance provided US $250 million in funding for vaccinating children. How many of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

Consider the following: I. The Hindu muhurta is of approximately 48 minutes duration. II. Each muhurta is divided into 30 kala. III. Nakshatra is the Sun's asterism. IV. Karana is half of tithi. How many of the above is/are true?

Consider the following statements: I. Originally the Constitution provided for the CJI and 7 Judges. II. The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act 1956 was enacted to increase the number of Judges to 10 excluding CJI. III. The Act has been amended five times in the past to increase the strength of the Judges. IV. The maximum increase in strength of Judges was by the Amendment Act, 2008. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Which of the following statements about NATO is NOT correct?

Consider the following statements about Passive Euthanasia; 1) The Supreme Court never allowed passive euthanasia in India. 2) The Supreme Court of India allowed passive euthanasia under strict guidelines. 3) Passive euthanasia was legalised in India by the Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India case. 4) Article 21 is associated with the right to die with dignity. Select the correct answer from the codes given below;

Which of the following is an oviparous animal?

Consider the following statements regarding the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): I. It is a zone of high pressure where trade winds diverge near the equator. II. The convergence of trade winds and rising air currents characterise it. III. During July, it shifts northwards over the Indian subcontinent. IV. It is associated with intense convective activity and cloud formation How many statement(s) is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the ecological and geographical settings of lakes in Odisha: I. Kanjia Lake is associated with the Nandankanan Wildlife Sanctuary region near Bhubaneswar. II. Sara Lake lies in the coastal district of Puri and is influenced by littoral geomorphology. III. Ansupa Lake is an inland freshwater lake located in the Mahanadi deltaic region. IV. Pata lake in a fresh water lake in Gajapati District Surrounded by Mahendragiri hill ranges. How many of the above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding demographic transitions and their economic implications for India and Odisha: 1. Odisha has already reached replacement-level fertility (TFR below 2.1), which implies that its working-age population share will peak earlier than in states like Uttar Pradesh. 2. The demographic dividend in Odisha is contingent on labor force participation rates (LFPR), which for women in Odisha are significantly lower than the national average. 3. The ageing index in Odisha is projected to increase sharply by 2041, increasing the burden on social security and healthcare systems. 4. Migration from Odisha to other states is predominantly circular and male-dominated, leading to feminization of agriculture in source districts. Which of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements about tribal demography and policy implications in Odisha: I. Odisha has the highest number of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) (13 out of 75 nationally) and several PVTGs have shown population decline in the last two decadal censuses. II. Reverse migration during COVID-19 resulted in a temporary increase in the dependency ratio in source districts of Odisha. III. Odisha's policy of "PVTG development through habitat approach" has been criticized for ignoring migrant PVTG members who move seasonally for work. IV. The decadal growth rate of the ST population in Odisha (2011-2021 provisional) is higher than the non-ST population due to improved enumeration. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

For which of the following purposes is Indian currency fully convertible? Select the correct code. i. Repatriation of remittances ii. Interest payment of foreign loans iii. Direct foreign investment iv. Indirect foreign investment v. Trade Code:

Consider the pairs and choose the INCORRECT one.

Which one of the following Vedic texts expounds the pranagnihotra, the fire oblation through breath, as a substitute for the basic rite?

All the information concerning the so-called "Black Hole Episode" is found in a single-sided account of it by an Englishman. What is the name of this Englishman?

Consider the following statements. I. Anantavarman Chodagangadeva shifted the capital from Kalinganagara (Mukhalingam) to Kataka (modern Cuttack). II. Anangabhimadeva III defeated the Kalachuris and captured a major part of western Odisha. III. Narasimhadeva I defeated Tughril Tughan Khan, the Muslim governor of Bengal. IV. Bhanudeva II erected the Ananta-Vasudeva temple at Bhubaneswar. How many of the above statements are true?

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Consider the following personalities with respect to Praja Mandal Movement. (I) Sarangadhar Das (II) Pabitra Mohan Pradhan (III) Rajendra Narayan Bhanja Deo (IV) Harekrushna Mahatab How many of then was/were NOT associated with the movement.

What is the Pupil-Teacher Ratio (PTR) at the Primary School level as mandated by 'Right to Education' Act, 2009?

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in respect of 'Triple Test Formula'?

With reference to then Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements: 1. It has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Centre and the States. 2. It can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 3. It acts as a court of appeal. 4. It can amend the Constitution. Which of the above are correct?

A Panchayat denies forest access to a community citing conservation laws, despite traditional usage rights. Question: Which principle is violated?

Statement (S): Not all rights-based laws lead to equitable outcomes. Explanation (E): Structural inequalities affect access to these rights. Options:

The Assam State Assembly Election was held recently with newly delimited constituencies. Consider the following statement with respect to this delimitation process. I. The delimitation was conducted by the Election Commission of India in 2022-23 on the basis of the 2001 census figure. II. Prior to this, the Constituencies were constituted as per the Delimitation Order of 1976. III. Section 8A of the Representation People's Act, 1950 provides for special provision for delimitation for Assembly Constituencies of Assam, Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh. IV. SC assembly seats have increased from 8 to 9 and ST assembly seats have increased from 16 to 19. How many of the above statement(s) is/are true?

With reference to fly ash management and utilisation in India, consider the following statements: I. Unscientific disposal of fly ash can lead to land degradation and ecological risks due to toxic elements and particulate matter. II. Thermal power plants in India are mandated to achieve 100% fly ash utilisation within a specified timeframe. III. The majority of fly ash in India is utilised in the cement industry. IV. More than 300 million tonnes of fly ash was gainfully used in 2024-25. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. Biodiversity includes diversity at genetic, species and ecosystem levels. 2. The term biodiversity was popularised by Edward Wilson. 3. Biodiversity refers only to species diversity. Which of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statement about King Rajendra Chola I. I. He assumed the title of Kadaram Kondan. II. He conquered the Khmer Empire. III. He promoted local self governance. IV. He was succeeded by son Rajendra II. How many of the above is/are true?

Maiden salvo launch of Naval Anti-ship Missile-Short Range (NASM-SR) was conducted at ITR Chandipur recently. Which of the following is NOT true about the launch? I. Two missiles were launched in quick succession from the same fighter jet. II. Developed by Tata Advance System in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories. III. It has a Jet-vane control system developed indigenously.

"Forum shopping" refers to

With reference to the thematic coverage of the Seven Chakras of India-AI Impact Summit 2026, consider the following statements: 1. Human capital is one of the key themes. 2. Social good is part of the Chakras. 3. Inclusion, trust and resilience are central to the Chakras. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Astronomers observe that the Sun "wobbles" or moves in a complex path rather than remaining perfectly stationary in our solar system. What is the primary reason for this motion?

PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate) bottles are widely used for carbonated drinks and water. Why are these bottles generally intended for 'single-use' rather than long-term refilling?

Consider the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select the correct option using the codes given below: Assertion (A): El Niño events are often associated with weaker southwest monsoon rainfall over India. Reason (R): El Niño leads to warming of sea surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific, which disturbs the normal Walker circulation.

Consider the following statements regarding Footloose Industries: I. They are highly dependent on the availability of bulky raw materials at specific locations. II. They can be located over a wide range of regions due to minimal locational constraints. III. Access to transport and communication networks influences their locational choice. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Consider the following statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and select the correct option using the codes given below: Assertion (A): The Eastern Ghats region of Odisha is part of the ancient Gondwanaland landmass and represents a stable peninsular shield structure. Reason (R): The region is predominantly composed of Precambrian crystalline and metamorphic rocks that have undergone limited tectonic disturbance. Which of the following is correct?

With reference to the import profile of Odisha (2023-2024), particularly in relation to its industrial and energy requirements, match List-I with List-II: List-I (Import Category): (a) Coking Coal (b) Crude Oil and Petroleum (c) Heavy Machinery and Electronics (d) Fertilisers List-II (Major Source Regions/Countries): 1. West Asian countries such as UAE, Saudi Arabia and Iraq 2. Australia, Indonesia and South Africa 3. China, Germany, Japan and the United States of America 4. China, Russia and Oman Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Finance Commission's (FC 16) recommendations for the period 2026-31: 1. FC 16 retained the vertical share of states in the divisible pool of central taxes at 41%, the same as recommended by the 15th Finance Commission. 2. The Commission introduced a new "Contribution to GDP" criterion with a weight of 10%, replacing the "tax and fiscal efforts" criterion used by the 15th Finance Commission. 3. FC 16 discontinued revenue deficit grants (also known as revenue need grants) under Article 275, which were recommended by previous Finance Commissions. 4. The Commission recommended that states should reduce the fiscal deficit to 2.5% of GSDP by 2030-31, while the Centre should target 3.5% of GDP. Which of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements about affirmative action and reservation policies in India and Odisha: I. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and Odisha has implemented this with a creamy layer exclusion based on annual income (₹8 lakh). II. The Supreme Court's judgement in Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2022) upheld EWS reservation but held that it cannot be applied as a sub-quota within SC/ST reservations. III. Odisha's State Reservation Policy of OBCs uses the "double creamy layer" concept (income + occupation), excluding certain professional categories regardless of income. IV. Reservation for persons with disabilities in Odisha's panchayat elections is calculated as a percentage of total seats, not population, leading to under-representation. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Arrange the following events of the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq chronologically. I. Increased the taxes of the Doab region II. Shifted the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad III. Planned the expedition of Khorasan IV. Introduction of token currency Choose the correct answer from the following.

The Mughal school of painting is characterised by (i) Miniature paintings (ii) Excellency in portrait painting and color composition (iii) Keen appreciation of nature (iv) Democratic and popular in content (v) Courtly and aristocratic in content (vi) Secular and materialistic (vii) Spiritual and mystic Choose the answer from the codes below:

When did Ganjam come under the British control?

Harishpur, the region of the first British settlement, is located in:

Consider the following statements with respect to privileges of members of Parliament. I. Privileges would not be fettered by Art. 19 (1) (a) of Indian Constitution. II. Privileges must be read subject to the Articles 20-22 and Art. 32 of the Constitution III. Immunity is available in relation to both Civil and Criminal prosecution IV. Immunity is available in relation to Freedom of Speech even in his/her private or personal capacity How many of the above statement(s) is/are true?

In respect of Anti-defection Law, which of the following statements are NOT correct _____? 1. Anti-defection Law is found in the 9th Schedule of the Indian Constitution 2. Elected Members who were not initially set up by a Party but later join one Party face disqualification 3. Nominated members face disqualification if they join a Political Party after Six months from the date they take their seat 4. The Supreme Court is empowered to make rules for giving effect to the Anti-defection Law.

Which type of public policy is when individual self-interest and rational choice shape political decisions and policy outcomes ________?

Match the following (Panchayati Raj - Committees & Acts): Column I: a. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee b. Ashok Mehta Committee c. 73rd Constitutional Amendment d. L.M. Singhvi Committee Column II: 1. Recommended three-tier system 2. Suggested two-tier system 3. Constitutional status to Panchayats 4. Recommended Gram Sabha importance Options:

Consider the following with regard to India's biodiversity conservation. 1. India uses market-based instruments 2. Biodiversity conservation is linked to livelihoods 3. Environmental policies ignore global frameworks 4. Climate finance involves international cooperation Which of the above are correct? Options:

How many total number of digits is used in numbering the book having 129 pages?

What price should an antique shop mark on an antique piece which costs ₹ 1,260 so as to gain 12% after allowing a discount of 16%?

Direction (Q. Nos. 3-6): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only: Passage Despite how closely the problem is related to the Pythagorean theorem, which has infinite solutions and hundreds of proofs, Fermat's subtle variation is much more difficult to prove. The 17th-century mathematician Pierre de Fermat wrote in 1637 in his copy of Claude Gaspar Bachet's translation of the famous Arithmetica of Diophantus: "I have a truly marvellous proof of this proposition which this margin is too narrow to contain." However, no correct proof was found for 357 years, until it was finally proven using very deep methods by Andrew Wiles in 1995 (after a failed attempt a year before). All the other theorems proposed by Fermat before and after this were eventually proven or disproven, either in his own proofs or by other mathematicians, in the two centuries following their proposition. The theorem was not the last that Fermat conjectured, but the last to be proven. According to the passage, why did Pierre de Fermat not provide the proof for his proposition in his copy of Arithmetica?

(passage given above Q3) Which of the following best describes the timeline of Fermat's Last Theorem compared to his other conjectures?

(passage given above Q3) The passage draws a contrast between the Pythagorean theorem and Fermat's proposition. What is the primary basis of this contrast?

(passage given above Q3) Based on the text, what can be inferred about the mathematical community's progress between 1637 and 1995?

Direction (Q. Nos. 7 and 8): The table below shows the annual expenditure (₹ in Lakhs) of a manufacturing company under various heads for four financial years. Study the table and answer the questions. Company Annual Expenditure (₹ in Lakhs) Expenditure Head | 2019-2020 | 2020-2021 | 2021-2022 | 2022-2023 | Total Salaries | 42 | 48 | 54 | 58 | 202 Raw material | 65 | 72 | 80 | 91 | 308 R & D | 18 | 22 | 25 | 28 | 93 Marketing | 12 | 15 | 18 | 22 | 67 Overheads | 23 | 25 | 27 | 30 | 105 Which expenditure head showed the highest percentage increase from 2019-20 to 2022-23?

(see table in Q7) What is the ratio of total R & D expenditure to total marketing expenditure over all four years?

Five friends J, K, L, M and N are sitting in a straight line facing north. J sits next to M but not N. K is sitting next to L, who sits on the extreme right corner. N does not sit next to K. Who sits to the right of M?

How many dots lie opposite the face having 3 dots, when the given figure is folded to form a cube? [Net of a cube, zigzag arrangement of 6 squares: Square 1 (top) has 6 dots; Square 2 (directly below square 1) has 1 dot; Square 3 (directly below square 2) has 3 dots; Square 4 (to the right of square 3, same row) has 4 dots; Square 5 (directly below square 4) has 2 dots; Square 6 (directly below square 5) has 5 dots.]

Direction (Q. Nos. 11 and 12): Study the following informations (i), (ii) and (iii) and answer the questions below. (i) P is the son of Q. (ii) R, who is the sister of Q, has a son S and a daughter X. (iii) Y is the maternal uncle of S. How is P related to S?

(see Q11) How is X related to Y?

Direction: Read the following information and answer Question No. 13. There are 70 male and female teachers employed in a school, of whom 30 teachers are females. (i) 30 teachers are married. (ii) 24 teachers are above 25 years of age. (iii) 19 married teachers are above 25 years of age; among them 7 are male teachers. (iv) 12 male teachers are above 25 years of age. (v) 15 male teachers are married. How many unmarried female teachers are there?

In a group of 100 students, 60 study Mathematics, 50 study Physics and 30 study both subjects. A student is selected at random. What is the probability that the student studies neither subjects?

Assertion (A): In a race, if X is faster than Y and Y is faster than Z, then X will always finish before Z. Reason (R): Transitivity holds in comparative relations of speed. Which of the following options is correct?

Match Column-I (Paradox) with Column-II (Description): Column-I (Paradox): (P) Zeno's Paradox (Q) Liar Paradox (R) Russell's Paradox (S) Sorites Paradox Column-II (Description): (i) 'This statement is false' - self-referential contradiction (ii) A heap minus one grain is still a heap - vagueness (iii) The set of all sets not containing themselves (iv) Achilles can never overtake a tortoise - infinite divisibility

Ram is older than Shyam. Shyam is older than Mohan. Gopal is younger than Ram but older than Shyam. Hari is younger than Shyam. What is the correct descending order of their ages?

A ball is dropped from a height of 80 m and rebounds to half the height after each bounce. What will be the total distance after 3 bounces?

Match List-I (Types of Communication Barriers) with List-II (Examples in Administration): List-I (Types of Communication Barriers): (a) Semantic Barrier (b) Psychological Barrier (c) Physical Barrier (d) Organizational Barrier List-II (Examples in Administration): (i) A loud generator running outside the Sub-Collector's office (ii) Strict hierarchical rules preventing a clerk from communicating with the District Magistrate (iii) An officer using highly technical legal jargon while explaining a scheme to a rural farmer (iv) A citizen unable to explain his issue clearly due to extreme fear of authority figures Select the correct code:

Empathetic listening primarily requires the listener to

In the fundamental process of communication, what is the primary function of 'Feedback'?

You are the head of a tender evaluation committee. The company that submitted the lowest, most cost-effective bid is owned by your first cousin. Which is the most ethically sound decision?

Direction (Q. Nos. 23 and 24): Study the following informations carefully and answer the questions that follow: Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager of a company. The candidate must — I. be a graduate in any discipline with 55% marks. II. have secured at least 40% marks in the interview. III. have post-qualification work experience of at least five years in the Marketing division of any organisation. IV. have secured at least 45% marks in the selection examination. V. have a postgraduate degree or diploma in marketing management with at least 60% marks. In case of any candidate who satisfies all the conditions, except (i) II, but has secured at least 60% marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to the VP, Marketing. (ii) III, but has post-qualification work experience of at least three years as Deputy Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to the GM, Marketing. Pranita has secured 56% marks in BBA. She has been working in the marketing division of a company for the past seven years after completing her postgraduate degree in marketing management with 62% marks. She has secured 62% marks in the selection examination and 38% marks in the interview. How should her case be considered?

Direction (Q. Nos. 23 and 24): (see conditions given above Q23) Pravat has secured 59% marks in BA. He has secured 60% marks in the interview and 40% marks in the selection examination. He has been working in the marketing division of a company for the past eight years after completing his postgraduate degree in marketing management with 65% marks. How should his case be considered?

If the day before yesterday was Friday, what day will two days after the day after tomorrow be?

Direction (Q. Nos. 26-28): Read the passage below and answer the questions. Your response should be based on the passage only. Passage The leaders of the disability rights movement adopted many of their policy goals from other movements. Local, State and National statutes prohibiting discrimination on the basis of handicapping conditions frequently borrowed language from laws concerning racial, religious or gender discrimination. Existing anti-discrimination statutes were amended to add disability as a category. The first major attempt to protect disabled people from bias occurred in 1972 when Representative Charles Vanik and Senator Hubert Humphrey proposed to amend the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to include handicapping conditions. Their bills were defeated in the committee, partly because of opposition from supporters of black civil rights, who feared that attention and resources would be diverted from their cause. According to the passage, what was the primary method used to create early legal protections for people with disabilities?

(passage given above Q26) Why did the 1972 proposal by Vanik and Humphrey fail to pass in the committee?

(passage given above Q26) Which of the following movements is not mentioned as a source of legal language for disability rights statutes?

A bank lends a sum of ₹ 1,500 partly at 3% and partly at 5% per annum simple interest to a person. Total interest received after 3 years was ₹ 180. Find the ratio of the money lent at 3% to that lent at 5%.

Find the remainder when 12 divides 1! + 2! + 3! + ..... + 100!

The speed of a boat in still water is 11 km per hour. It can go 12 km upstream and return downstream to the original point in 2 hours and 45 minutes. Find the speed of the stream.

Direction (Q. Nos. 32-34): The bar graph below shows quarterly sales (in Units) of three products A, B and C for a company during a financial year. Answer the questions based on this data. Quarterly Sales (Units): Product A — Q1: 120, Q2: 150, Q3: 180, Q4: 200. Product B — Q1: 90, Q2: 110, Q3: 130, Q4: 160. Product C — Q1: 70, Q2: 85, Q3: 100, Q4: 120. Which product showed the highest percentage increase in sales from Q1 to Q4?

(see graph data in Q32) By what percentage did the combined sales of all three products increase from Q1 to Q4?

(see graph data in Q32) The total sales of all three products in Q3 is

Fill in the blank in the middle of the series. BAP, CEQ, EIR, _____, KUT

In the word 'DISTURBANCE', the first letter is interchanged with the eleventh letter, the second letter is interchanged with tenth letter and so on. Which letter will come after the letter 'T' in the newly formed word?

Find the number of blocks when the given stack of blocks is separated. [Stepped/staircase pyramid built from unit cubes, 5 layers tall, isometric view: from top to bottom, each layer is a square arrangement one unit larger per side than the layer above it (a terraced square pyramid), with the front and side faces of each layer's cubes visible.]

Complete the series by replacing the question mark(?). 10, 9, 16, 45, ?

Read the following scenario and answer the question: Five friends - Arjun, Bharat, Chetan, Dinesh and Eshaan are seated in a row. Arjun is not at either end. Bharat is to the immediate left of Chetan. Dinesh is at one of the ends. Eshaan is not adjacent to Arjun. Who is seated in the middle position?

Which of the following is the most effective initial interpersonal strategy while communicating with an emotionally agitated individual?

Consider the following elements of communication: (i) Tone of voice (ii) Pitch and volume (iii) Rate of speech (iv) The specific vocabulary used in an official memo Which of the above constitute 'Paralanguage' (the vocal but non-verbal elements of communication)?

Which of the following describes the 'Sunk Cost Fallacy' in administrative decision-making?

Assertion (A): Intuitive decision-making is entirely random guessing and has no place in public administration. Reason (R): Intuition often draws upon a decision maker's subconscious processing of deep, accumulated past experiences and pattern recognition, especially useful in crisis situations. Choose the correct option:

Direction (Q. Nos. 45 and 46): Each of the following problems has a question and two statements S1 and S2. You have to decide whether Statements S1 and S2 are sufficient or not to answer the questions. Your choices will be A1: If you get the answer from S1 alone but not from S2 alone. A2: If you get the answer from S2 alone but not from S1 alone. A3: If you get the answer from S1 and S2 together although neither statement in itself is sufficient to answer the question. A4: If S1 alone is sufficient in itself and S2 alone is sufficient in itself to get the answer. A5: If you do not get the answer from S1 and S2 together and some more information is required to get the answer. Is a three-digit number divisible by 8? S1: Digit in unit's place is higher than digit in ten's place. S2: The number is divisible by 2 and 4.

Direction (Q. Nos. 45 and 46): (see Q45 for A1-A5 code definitions) What is the minimum percentage to pass the examination? S1: Amar obtained 25% marks in the examination and Mukund obtained 200 marks which is 40 more than Amar. S2: Amar obtained 64 marks less than the minimum pass marks.

Direction (Q. Nos. 47-49): Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions. Your answer should be based on the passage only. Passage Acquiring enough fissile material for a critical mass is challenging. U-235 exists in very tiny amounts in nature. It has to be separated from a much more common isotope of uranium (U-238) and concentrated (enriched) and processed into a quantity large enough to make a nuclear weapon. Natural uranium is about 0.7 percent U-235. Uranium that contains 20 percent or more of U-235 is known as Highly Enriched Uranium (HEU) and weapons-grade uranium usually contains at least 90 percent of this isotope. Uranium enriched for use in most civil nuclear reactors is enriched between 3 and 20 percent (Low-Enriched Uranium or LEU). The amount of HEU needed to make a nuclear fission weapon depends on the enrichment level of the HEU and the sophistication of the weapon. According to the text, what is the standard concentration of U-235 found in uranium in its natural state?

(passage given above Q47) Uranium that has been enriched to a level between 3 and 20 percent for use in civil nuclear reactors is categorized as

(passage given above Q47) Why is the acquisition of enough fissile material for a critical mass described as 'challenging'?

Sum of the present ages of Ali and Saad is 48 years. If the age of Ali is thrice the age of Saad, then find the sum of their ages four years hence.

If boys and girls can together complete a work in 20 days. Both worked together for 15 days and then girls had to leave. After another 10 days, boys finished the remaining work. In how many days boys alone can finish the work?