OPSC Prelims 2022

Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct in respect of G20 Developing Nations? (1) It is a block of developing nations established on April 30, 2001 (2) This group emerged at the 5th Ministerial NATO Conference (3) The Headquarters of G20 developing Nations is at Patna (4) The Member States of G20 Developing Nations is 20 countries

During his visit to Australia PM Narendra Modi spelled about 3 Cs, 3 Ds, and 3 Es of India Australia friendship. Which one of the following is correct in respect of 3 Cs?

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of 'Sengol'? (1) 'Sengol' signifies the transfer of power from British to Indians (2) It symbolises the Marathi culture of transfer of power from one King to other King (3) The 'Sengol' has been reintroduced in the new Parliament Bhavan of India (4) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru accepted 'Sengol' at 10.45 PM on August 14, 1947 from Adhinam of Kerala

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of withdrawal of Rs. 2000 Currency Notes from circulation? (1) This move is a part of RBI's Compound Note Policy (2) It's aim is to provide the Public with high quality Currency Notes (3) Rs. 2000 Currency Notes were introduced in the year 2015 (4) Printing of Rs. 2000 Currency Notes were stopped in the year 2018-19

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding 'Forest-PLUS 2.0 Programme'? (1) This programme is a Five-year partnership between USAID and Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. (2) Forest-PLUS 2.0 Programme denotes 'Forest for Wealth and Health' (3) Tetra Tech is building capacity across landscapes in three States in India (4) The three States which come under this programme are; Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Bihar

Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of 'Euxine Sea'?

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of 'The First Ever Census of Water bodies in India-2023' released by Ministry of Jal Shakti? (1) The Census enumerated a total of 24,24,540 water bodies across the country (2) West Bengal has the highest number of Tanks (3) Tamil Nadu has the highest number of Lakes (4) Andhra Pradesh leads in water conservation schemes.

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Nomadic Elephant'? (1) It is an Indo-Mongolian joint military exercise (2) The Fourteenth Edition of this exercise took place in the year 2019 (3) This exercise is aimed to train Elephants in Defence activities (4) The First Edition of 'Nomadic Elephant' took place in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct in respect of 'Batagaika Crater'? (1) The Batagaika Crater is situated in Australia Far East (2) This region has become a focal point for studying the effects of climate change on permafrost. (3) The Batagaika Crater is affectionately referred as 'The Sky-in' (4) The permafrost thaws release enormous quantities of Organic Carbon.

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Talisman Sabre Exercise - 2023'? (1) USA and France have initiated the 'Talisman Sabre Exercise - 2023' (2) It is a joint military exercise of the two countries (3) This Exercise is held for every Four Years (4) India attended as an Observer to this military exercise

Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of 'Rajasthan Minimum Guaranteed Income Bill-2023' (1) Under this Scheme every family is entitled to guaranteed employment for 125 days per year. (2) This Scheme provides guaranteed minimum monthly Pension fixed at Rs. 2000/- per month for specific categories (3) This scheme encompasses the flagship of 'Jawahar Rozgar Yojana' for urban areas. (4) To implement this programme Government has estimated additional expenditure of Rs. 2,500 Crore annually.

Which of the following statements are not correct? According to the Second Edition of National Multidimensional Poverty Index-2023 released by NITI Aayog - (1) 13.5 Crore people escaped from multidimensional poverty (2) In rural areas there is rapid decline in poverty from 32.59% to 19.28% (3) Bihar registered the largest decline in the number of poor individuals. (4) This Report covered a comprehensive analysis of poverty across 1075 Administrative Districts

Which State Government in India has taken significant step to introduce an educational initiative called 'CM Rise Schools'?

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Agreement on use of Local Currencies for cross-border transactions'? (1) India and UAE have signed a memorandum in this Agreement. (2) This agreement enables a frame work for trade settlements in their respective national currencies. (3) This Agreement was signed by the Prime Ministers of India and UAE (4) Peekay Intermark Ltd. and Reserve Bank of India were the first users of this system

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Namda Project'? (1) This project is a part of 'Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana'. (2) Under this programme 2200 candidates from Assam were trained (3) The aim of this project is to preserve the endangered crafts of wool weaving. (4) This project works under public - private partnership

The Bhaumakaras started an era in the year 736 CE. What was the last known date mentioned in the Bhauma-kara records.

The Bhanjas of Khinjali-mandala initially had their capital at Dhritipura, but later on they shifted their capital to

With reference to Mahasivagupta Balarjuna consider the following: 1. He was the Panduvamsi king of South Kosala with is capital located at Sirpur. 2. He extended his dominion by capturing Suvarnapura, modern Sonepur. 3. He ruled for more than 57 years. How many statements given above are correct?

With reference to the creation of a separate province of Orissa consider the following statements. 1. The British Parliament's Constitution of Orissa order, 1936 got the approval of the king on 3 March 1936 and Orissa became a new province on 1 April 1936. 2. Sir John Austin Hubback was appointed as the first Governor of Orissa. 3. Sir Courtney Terel, the Chief Justice of Bihar and Orissa High Court, administered the oath of office to the new Governor. 4. The inaugural function was held in Ravenshaw College Hall at Cuttack. How many statements given above is/are correct?

Mahatma Gandhi visited Odisha in 1. March 1921 2. August 1925 3. December 1927 4. September 1930 Which of the above is not correct?

Kapilendradeva subdued many feudatory chiefs who rebelled against him. Which of the following did not belong to this category?

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

Where do we come across the madhavapura mahavihara?

What is not true about the Prajamandala movement in Odisha?

Subei, Kachela and Jamuda, the three sites in the undivided Koraput district of Odisha, are famous for?

Consider the following statements regarding the Rig Veda. 1. It mentions the Aryans as a cultural community. 2. It has many commonalities with Avesta. 3. It mentions Saraswati as naditarna. 4. It indicates that the dasyus kept cattle for dairy products. Which of the following are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Parthians. 1. They had migrated from Iran. 2. They set up a kingdom in East India. 3. Gondophernes was a Parthian king. 4. They are mentioned together with the Shakas in the Sanskrit texts. Which of the following are correct?

Consider the following statements about Sangam literature. 1. The narrative texts are called Melkanakku. 2. The didactic texts are called Kilkanakku. 3. Thirukkural is a major Sangam text. 4. Many Sangam texts were the works of brahmana scholars. Which of the following are correct?

Consider the following pairs 1. Amoghavarsha - A king and a Kannada poet. 2. Pampa - Kannada Poet under Jain Influence. 3. Nanniah - Began writing the Mahabharata in Telugu. 4. Ponna - Jain Poet, who wrote on Ramayana themes. Which of the pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements about Buddhism. 1. It was patronized by the Pala kings. 2. Buddha was worshipped as a God in Mahayana Buddhism. 3. Hinayana considers Buddha as an ordinary being who attained Nirvana. 4. Vajrayana focused on Hindu Practices. Which of the following are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding Alauddin Khalji. 1. He set up three distinct markets one for food grains, one for cloth and the third for horses. 2. A Shahna was posted in the market. 3. The Peasants had to pay land revenue in kind. 4. Slaves were transacted in market during his time. Which of the following are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Subsidiary Alliance in British India. 1. The Indian ruler signing the alliance would agree to the posting of a British Resident. 2. The Indian ruler could employ any European in his state. 3. The Indian ruler would cede a part of his territory for payment of subsidy. 4. Expenses of the British army in the state to be shared with the Company. Which of the following are correct?

Consider the following regarding the Revolt of 1857. 1. Indore troops had joined the Revolt against the wish of their king. 2. Mangal Pandey was executed at Meerut. 3. Tantia Tope was active both at Kanpur and Jhanshi. 4. Sindhia sought refuge from the British at Agra. Which of the following are correct?

Consider the statements regarding the nationalist Romesh Chunder Dutt. 1. He translated Ramayana and Mahabharata. 2. He was president of the Indian National Congress. 3. He qualified the ICS. 4. He was president of the Bongiya Sahitya Parishad. Which of the following statements are correct?

Consider the statements regarding the Home Rule League. 1. S. Subramaniya Ayer was on associate of Annie Besant. 2. It started on behalf of the Indian National Congress. 3. It changed its name to Swarajya sabha. 4. Its flag had the Union Flag on it. Which of the following are correct?

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I a. Faulting b. Wave erosion c. Ice Scouring d. Wind erosion List-II 1. Yardangs 2. Kettle Hole 3. Escarpment 4. Stacks Codes : a b c d

Carefully read the following assertion(A) and reason (R) and select the correct option from the codes : Assertion (A): Scandinavian countries have a regressive age-sex population structure Reason (R) : The population growth rate is negative in these countries. For selecting the correct answer, use the following code:

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Major cultural region of world) a. Arctic region b. Desert c. Latin-American Region d. Pacific Oceanic Region List-II (inhabitants) 1. Eskimos 2. The Indians, Negroes and Immigrants 3. Samoans, Tahitian, Tongan, etc. 4. Caravan Codes : a b c d

Match List-I with List-II according to Koppen's Climatic classification system and select the correct answer from the codes given: List-I (Climate Types) a. Af b. Aw c. Am d. As List-II (Characteristics) i. Humid Tropical Climate ii. Tropical Humid and Dry climate iii. Monsoon Climate iv. Dry Summers Codes : a b c d

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below: Assertion (A) : The Peru desert is recognised as a Cold Desert Reason (R) : The temperature of Humbolt current plays a dominant role in controlling the surface atmospheric conditions of the coastal areas.

Match the following with respect to the occurrence of races in List-II to the type of Races in List-I. List-I (Races) a. The Turko-Iranian b. The Indo-Aryan c. The Scytho-Dravidian d. The Mongolo-Dravidian List-II (Area of Existence) 1. Rajasthan and Punjab 2. Odisha and Assam 3. West India (Gujarat to Karnataka) 4. North Western Frontier Agency Codes : a b c d

India is an agricultural country, where most of the population directly or indirectly involved in this sector. Regarding agriculture in India, which one of the following statements is/are not correct? 1. Bajra is a Kharif crop, which requires 25°-31°C temperature and 40-50 cm rainfall. 2. Cotton is categorized into three groups long-staple, medium staple and short-staple. 3. Currently, India accounts for about 50% of the world's total jute production. 4. India is the second-largest producer of silk and the largest consumer of silk in the world. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Match important projects in List-I with the area of implementation in List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Multipurpose Projects in India) a. Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project b. The Sardar Sarovar Project c. Nagarjuna Sagar Project d. Bhakra Nangal Project List-II (Area/ Place of implementation) 1. Lower Narmada Valley, Gujarat 2. Nalgonda district, Telangana 3. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka 4. Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan Codes : a b c d

Among the following options which mountain pass doesn't belongs to the correct state?

Which of the following factors are responsible for breaks in the monsoon? I. Origin of tropical cyclones in Bay of Bengal II. Erratic behavior of 2nd equatorial troughs III. Inadequate heating of Tibetan Plateau IV. Southern Branch of South West Tropical Jet re-establish over northern India Choose the correct options from below:

Which of the following river / rivers are exhibiting the antecedent drainage pattern in Odisha?

Black Earth soil has been developed in which region of Odisha?

Match the morphological units of Rolling uplands (List-I) with the correct river basin (List-II) List-I (Morphological Units) a. The Rajgangpur - Panposh Uplands b. The Jharsuguda Uplands c. The Balangir - Titlagarh - Patnagarh uplands d. The Malakanagiri Uplands List-II (Basin Associated) 1. Ib Basin 2. Northern Tel Basin 3. The Sabari Basin 4. Koel and the Sankh Rivers Codes : a b c d

Which of the following is associated with Chilika lake? I. First Indian wetland under the Ramsar Convention. II. Irrawaddy dolphins III. Lacustrine plain Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Odisha experiences which types of climates according to Koppen's climatic classification?

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Objective Resolution' of Indian Constitution? (1) The Author of this Resolution was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (2) It was adopted by Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947 (3) The goal of this Resolution was to declare India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic Republic (4) This Resolution later framed as the Preamble of Indian Constitution

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Constituent Assembly'? (1) The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme of 'Cabinet Mission Plan' (2) The total strength of Constituent Assembly originally was 369 (3) 296 seats were allotted to British India (4) 73 seats to Princely States

Consider the following pairs in respect of 'Sources of Indian Constitution' and pick up the right matchings. Item – Source (1) Office of Governor – England (2) Public Service Commission – Govt. of India Act-1935 (3) Freedom of Trade & Commerce – USA (4) The Language of Preamble of Constitution – Australia

Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution are not related to each other? (1) Art. 12 and Art. 36 (2) Art. 13 and Art. 368 (3) Art. 22 and Art. 32(2) (4) Art. 141 and Art. 214

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Lame Duck Politician? (1) Having lost a re-election bid (2) Choosing not to seek another term after expiration of his/her term. (3) No term limit running for particular office again (4) Abolition of Office after his/her official term

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Basic Structure of Indian Constitution? (1) It is a form of Judicial Review (2) It is used to test the legality of any legislation by the Courts (3) The Doctrine of Basic Structure of Constitution gave free hand to Parliament to amend any part of Constitution (4) The Constitution of India defines 'basic structure' in terms of Federalism, Secularism, Fundamental Rights and Socialism.

Entry 5 of List II of Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with -

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Art. 243 of Indian Constitution? (1) Art. 243(C) provides representation of chairpersons of Panchayats at the Village level in the Panchayats at the District level. (2) Art. 243(D) provides representation for women to the offices of chairperson in Panchayats at village level. (3) Art 243(I) is related to power to levy taxes by Panchayats (4) Art 243(J) is related to bar on the courts to call in question the election of Panchayats

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the Election Commission of India? (1) It is an autonomous Legal Body (2) Part XV of Indian Constitution deals with the Elections and the Election Commission (3) The Election Commission was established on January 25, 1950 (4) Art. 328 provides bar on the interference of Courts in electoral matters.

Which of the following Committees recommended for the creation of 'Nyaya Panchayats' at village level?

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Attorney General of India'? (1) Attorney General of India is a part of Indian Judiciary (2) Attorney General of India is appointed by President on the advice of Chief Justice of India (3) The term of office of Attorney General of India is not fixed by the Constitution (4) Attorney General of India has right to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament.

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Bills introduced in Parliament? (1) If a Government Bill is rejected by the House in Parliament it amounts 'vote of confidence' in the Government (2) The Government's Bill introduction in the House necessitates a fifteen-day notice (3) The 'Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill 2021' comes under the category of Money Bill (4) The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill 2021 comes under Ordinary Bill.

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Types of Majority in Parliament'? (1) Absolute Majority - More than 50% of the House's total Strength (2) Simple Majority - The majority of more than 50% of those present and voting (3) Effective Majority : Majority of the House's effective strength. (4) Effective Strength : means total strength excluding number of vacancies (5) Special Majority : Majority of 2/3 members of total strength of the House

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Sittings of Parliament'? (1) In the year 1955 a Lok Sabha Committee had proposed a time-table for parliamentary sessions with three times a year (2) It suggested Budget Session from February 1, to May 7 (3) It suggested Monsoon Session from July 1 to September 10 (4) It suggested Winter Session from November 15 to December 15

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Procedure established by Law' and 'Due process of Law'? (I) Under the principle of 'Procedure established by Law', as long as the government follows the procedures it has established, it's actions are considered valid, even if they may appear unfair, or unjust to individuals (II) 'Due Process of Law' doctrine not only checks if there is a Law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also sees if the Law made is fair, just and not arbitrary. (III) 'Procedure established by Law' is an American doctrine and 'Due Process of Law' is Indian constitutional doctrine.

Which of the following while pursuing common interests of their Groups, attempt to influence the Public Policy making?

During which part of the 'public policy cycle' does the government explore potential policy responses?

The final six months of the Election cycle, when the government announces popular government initiatives is known as -

Which of the following are the features of 'Good Governance'? (1) Accountability (2) Conservatism (3) Rigidity (4) Transparency (5) Integrity (6) Micro Management

Which of the following are true about Public Policy? (1) It is a way of doing things including rules and regulations (2) It is a means of 'authoritative allocation of values' (3) It is for Public Sector Organisations (4) 'What the Government choose to do or not to do'

Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Art. 21 of Indian Constitution? (1) It guarantees Right to Life and Personal Liberty (2) In the case of Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs Union of India 2020, Supreme Court held that 'Right to Water' is not a Fundamental Right but Legal Right (3) Right to Water is inferred from the Right to Life (4) The Supreme Court also held that access to Clear Water is a Natural Right

From which Constitution 'Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency' was borrowed to Indian Constitution?

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Right to Education'? (1) Art. 21(A) of Indian Constitution provides Right to Education for free and compulsory education to all (2) Right to Education Act was passed by Indian Parliament on August 4, 2009 (3) Right to Education came in to force on November 14, 2009 (4) Art. 21 (A) was inserted in the Constitution by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2004

Which of the following are related to 'Right to Privacy? (1) Art. 21 of Indian Constitution (2) Art. 12 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (3) Art. 17 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. (4) Art. 8 of European Convention on Human Rights

Which Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights tells that the 'Right of Nationality' depends on one's wish. “Every one has the Right to a Nationality”?

With reference to inflation targeting by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements : 1. In May 2016, the RBI Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework. 2. Under Section 45ZA, the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI), once in five years. 3. On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target of 6 percent with the tolerance band of ± 2 percent for the next 5-year period - April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026. Which of the above statements are correct?

Which of the following statements are true in relation to the G20 New Delhi Declaration? 1. All 83 paragraphs of the 2023 G20 New Delhi Leaders' Declaration were unanimously approved. 2. It didn't feature the conflict in Ukraine and its subsequent implications. 3. The declaration stressed the urgency of mobilizing US$4 trillion per year for clean energy technologies by 2030.

MGNREGS is recognised as 'core of the core' scheme for achieving Sustainable Development Goals in India. MGNREGS was reported in the Voluntary National Review (VNR), 2017 by Government of India for its contribution to achieving which of the following SDGs directly? 1. SDG 1 - No Poverty 2. SDG 2 - Zero Hunger 3. SDG 5 - Gender Equality 4. SDG 10 - Reduced Inequalities

Consider the following statements : 1. Poverty line estimation in India has been based on the consumption expenditure and not on the income levels. 2. It is difficult to assess incomes of self-employed people, daily wage laborers etc., and there may be large fluctuations in income due to seasonal factors Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Which of the following terms are the components of forex reserves? 1. Foreign Currency Assets 2. Gold 3. Special Drawing Rights 4. The Reserve in the International Monetary Fund

Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to PM-VISHWAKARMA?

With reference to GST, which of the following statements are true? 1. GST is based on a system of concurrency of indirect taxes, where every transaction attracts central as well as state GST 2. GST replaced a production-based taxation system by a consumption-based tax system 3. It brings destination principle for cross-border trading for which the poorer and consuming states are benefiting at the expense of more affluent and industrialized ones

Which of the following statements is incorrect about Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme?

In discharging its role as a facilitator for rural prosperity, NABARD is entrusted with responsibilities of

India is one of the few countries experiencing falling child sex ratio. Which among the following statements could be the major reasons behind this phenomenon? 1. High female infant mortality (relative to male infant mortality). 2. Female foeticide.

Gases that trap heat in the atmosphere and cause global warming are called greenhouse gases. Which of the following combinations are not included under the greenhouse gases?

More than 90 percent of all nitrogen are fixed as ammonia, nitrites, and nitrates by soil microorganisms. Symbiotic bacteria associated with leguminous plants fix nitrogen by the formation of root nodules. In which of the following plant nitrogen fixation does not occur?

For protection of plants and animal species and to provide for the prevention and control of water pollution, air pollution and the environment, government of India has taken adequate steps and several prevention, control and protection Acts has been enacted. Which of the following combination of statements is correct?

Government of Odisha has declared the following Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) for the conservation of Biodiversity in the state. Which of the following pairs (Name of the BHS and district) are not correct?

Acknowledging the years of efforts of tribal people in conserving 130 varieties of indigenous cultivars of rice, Koraput district was declared as a Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System. Which one of the following pairs (Organisation: Year) is correct?

The Govt. of India had launched “Project Tiger”, the largest species conservation initiative of its kind in the world on 1st April 1973 to promote conservation of the tiger. Nine tiger reserves were established in different states of India in the year 1973. Which one of the following combinations does not include the Tiger Reserves established in the year 1973?

A marine protected area (MPA) is essentially a space in the ocean where human activities are strictly regulated and these places are given special protections for natural or historic marine resources by local, state, territorial, native, regional, or national authorities. Which one of the following is not a MPA?

The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the 'Earth Summit', was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from 3-14 June 1992. Which of the following combinations of statements about the conference is correct? i. This global conference was held on the occasion of 20th anniversary of the first human environment conference held in Stockholm, Sweden ii. It focused on the “impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment” iii. Representatives from 79 countries participated in the conference

Microsoft, the recipient of UN Global Action Award, is now committing to remove from the environment all the carbon the company has emitted either directly or by electrical consumption since it was founded in 1975 by 2050. From which year the company has adapted to be carbon neutral?

World Environment Day is the United Nations Day for encouraging worldwide awareness and action to protect our environment. In 1972, the UN General Assembly designated 5 June as World Environment Day (WED). The first celebration, under the theme “Only One Earth” took place in 1973. Thereafter every year the day is celebrated with a theme. Which of the following pairs (Year and Theme) is not correct? i. 2023 : “Solutions to Plastic Pollution” ii. 2022 : “Only one Earth” iii. 2021 : “Ecosystem Restoration” iv. 2020 : “Time for Environment”

One light year is equivalent to roughly how many kilometers?

Jet fuel used in turbine based aviation engine mainly consists of

The light emitting diode (LED) is made of

Meniscus rise in glass thermometer is due to the change in

A glass of (1) tap water, (2) distilled water and (3) sea water is cooled to its solidification. The order in which they will solidify first is

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 1 The global refugee crisis has reached alarming proportions, with millions of people fleeing their homes due to conflict, persecution and instability. Data and statistics underscore the magnitude of this crisis, shedding light on the immense challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. As of the most recent UNHCR report, there are over 82 million forcibly displaced people worldwide. This includes refugees, asylum seekers and internally displaced persons. The number of refugees alone has surpassed 26 million, with nearly 80% of them hosted by neighbouring countries in regions facing their own challenges. Syria remains one of the most significant contributors to the refugee crisis. Since the onset of its civil war in 2011, an estimated 6.7 million Syrians have fled their country. Afghanistan is another major source, with over 2.7 million refugees, driven by ongoing conflict and insecurity. Venezuela's political and economic turmoils have resulted in a staggering 5.4 million people seeking refuge in neighbouring countries. Developing nations shoulder a substantial burden in hosting refugees. Countries like Turkey, Pakistan and Uganda are among the top refugee-hosting nations. Turkey alone hosts more than 3.6 million refugees, primarily from Syria, placing significant strains on its resources and infrastructure. The international community faces a collective challenge in addressing this crisis. Providing humanitarian aid, ensuring access to education and healthcare and facilitating resettlement are vital components of a comprehensive response. However, strained resources, political complexities and the growing trend of anti-immigrant sentiment in some host countries present obstacles to find effective solutions. In conclusion, the current international refugee crisis is a complex issue with far-reaching implications. Data and statistics highlight the staggering numbers of displaced individuals and the significant challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. Addressing this crisis requires international cooperation, policy reforms and a commitment to upholding human rights in the face of adversity. 1. How many forcibly displaced people are there globally, according to the UNHCR report?

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 1 The global refugee crisis has reached alarming proportions, with millions of people fleeing their homes due to conflict, persecution and instability. Data and statistics underscore the magnitude of this crisis, shedding light on the immense challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. As of the most recent UNHCR report, there are over 82 million forcibly displaced people worldwide. This includes refugees, asylum seekers and internally displaced persons. The number of refugees alone has surpassed 26 million, with nearly 80% of them hosted by neighbouring countries in regions facing their own challenges. Syria remains one of the most significant contributors to the refugee crisis. Since the onset of its civil war in 2011, an estimated 6.7 million Syrians have fled their country. Afghanistan is another major source, with over 2.7 million refugees, driven by ongoing conflict and insecurity. Venezuela's political and economic turmoils have resulted in a staggering 5.4 million people seeking refuge in neighbouring countries. Developing nations shoulder a substantial burden in hosting refugees. Countries like Turkey, Pakistan and Uganda are among the top refugee-hosting nations. Turkey alone hosts more than 3.6 million refugees, primarily from Syria, placing significant strains on its resources and infrastructure. The international community faces a collective challenge in addressing this crisis. Providing humanitarian aid, ensuring access to education and healthcare and facilitating resettlement are vital components of a comprehensive response. However, strained resources, political complexities and the growing trend of anti-immigrant sentiment in some host countries present obstacles to find effective solutions. In conclusion, the current international refugee crisis is a complex issue with far-reaching implications. Data and statistics highlight the staggering numbers of displaced individuals and the significant challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. Addressing this crisis requires international cooperation, policy reforms and a commitment to upholding human rights in the face of adversity. 2. Which country has hosted the largest number of refugees from Syria?

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 1 The global refugee crisis has reached alarming proportions, with millions of people fleeing their homes due to conflict, persecution and instability. Data and statistics underscore the magnitude of this crisis, shedding light on the immense challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. As of the most recent UNHCR report, there are over 82 million forcibly displaced people worldwide. This includes refugees, asylum seekers and internally displaced persons. The number of refugees alone has surpassed 26 million, with nearly 80% of them hosted by neighbouring countries in regions facing their own challenges. Syria remains one of the most significant contributors to the refugee crisis. Since the onset of its civil war in 2011, an estimated 6.7 million Syrians have fled their country. Afghanistan is another major source, with over 2.7 million refugees, driven by ongoing conflict and insecurity. Venezuela's political and economic turmoils have resulted in a staggering 5.4 million people seeking refuge in neighbouring countries. Developing nations shoulder a substantial burden in hosting refugees. Countries like Turkey, Pakistan and Uganda are among the top refugee-hosting nations. Turkey alone hosts more than 3.6 million refugees, primarily from Syria, placing significant strains on its resources and infrastructure. The international community faces a collective challenge in addressing this crisis. Providing humanitarian aid, ensuring access to education and healthcare and facilitating resettlement are vital components of a comprehensive response. However, strained resources, political complexities and the growing trend of anti-immigrant sentiment in some host countries present obstacles to find effective solutions. In conclusion, the current international refugee crisis is a complex issue with far-reaching implications. Data and statistics highlight the staggering numbers of displaced individuals and the significant challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. Addressing this crisis requires international cooperation, policy reforms and a commitment to upholding human rights in the face of adversity. 3. What is a major driver of the refugee crisis in Afghanistan?

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 1 The global refugee crisis has reached alarming proportions, with millions of people fleeing their homes due to conflict, persecution and instability. Data and statistics underscore the magnitude of this crisis, shedding light on the immense challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. As of the most recent UNHCR report, there are over 82 million forcibly displaced people worldwide. This includes refugees, asylum seekers and internally displaced persons. The number of refugees alone has surpassed 26 million, with nearly 80% of them hosted by neighbouring countries in regions facing their own challenges. Syria remains one of the most significant contributors to the refugee crisis. Since the onset of its civil war in 2011, an estimated 6.7 million Syrians have fled their country. Afghanistan is another major source, with over 2.7 million refugees, driven by ongoing conflict and insecurity. Venezuela's political and economic turmoils have resulted in a staggering 5.4 million people seeking refuge in neighbouring countries. Developing nations shoulder a substantial burden in hosting refugees. Countries like Turkey, Pakistan and Uganda are among the top refugee-hosting nations. Turkey alone hosts more than 3.6 million refugees, primarily from Syria, placing significant strains on its resources and infrastructure. The international community faces a collective challenge in addressing this crisis. Providing humanitarian aid, ensuring access to education and healthcare and facilitating resettlement are vital components of a comprehensive response. However, strained resources, political complexities and the growing trend of anti-immigrant sentiment in some host countries present obstacles to find effective solutions. In conclusion, the current international refugee crisis is a complex issue with far-reaching implications. Data and statistics highlight the staggering numbers of displaced individuals and the significant challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. Addressing this crisis requires international cooperation, policy reforms and a commitment to upholding human rights in the face of adversity. 4. Among the listed countries, which one hosts the most refugees?

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 1 The global refugee crisis has reached alarming proportions, with millions of people fleeing their homes due to conflict, persecution and instability. Data and statistics underscore the magnitude of this crisis, shedding light on the immense challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. As of the most recent UNHCR report, there are over 82 million forcibly displaced people worldwide. This includes refugees, asylum seekers and internally displaced persons. The number of refugees alone has surpassed 26 million, with nearly 80% of them hosted by neighbouring countries in regions facing their own challenges. Syria remains one of the most significant contributors to the refugee crisis. Since the onset of its civil war in 2011, an estimated 6.7 million Syrians have fled their country. Afghanistan is another major source, with over 2.7 million refugees, driven by ongoing conflict and insecurity. Venezuela's political and economic turmoils have resulted in a staggering 5.4 million people seeking refuge in neighbouring countries. Developing nations shoulder a substantial burden in hosting refugees. Countries like Turkey, Pakistan and Uganda are among the top refugee-hosting nations. Turkey alone hosts more than 3.6 million refugees, primarily from Syria, placing significant strains on its resources and infrastructure. The international community faces a collective challenge in addressing this crisis. Providing humanitarian aid, ensuring access to education and healthcare and facilitating resettlement are vital components of a comprehensive response. However, strained resources, political complexities and the growing trend of anti-immigrant sentiment in some host countries present obstacles to find effective solutions. In conclusion, the current international refugee crisis is a complex issue with far-reaching implications. Data and statistics highlight the staggering numbers of displaced individuals and the significant challenges faced by both refugees and host countries. Addressing this crisis requires international cooperation, policy reforms and a commitment to upholding human rights in the face of adversity. 5. What challenge is faced by host countries in addressing the refugee crisis?

Direction (Q. Nos. 6-10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 2 Genetic engineering, a revolutionary branch of biotechnology, continues to evolve rapidly, transforming the way we approach medicine, agriculture and various scientific endeavours. Recent developments in this field highlight both the immense potential and ethical considerations that come with the power to manipulate DNA. In the medical realm, gene editing technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 have gained prominence. These tools offer unprecedented precision in modifying genes, holding promise for treating genetic disorders. In a groundbreaking clinical trial, researchers successfully used gene editing to treat sickle cell anaemia. The patient's own modified cells were reintroduced into their body, resulting in reduced symptoms and an improved quality of life. In agriculture, genetic engineering is driving advancements in crop production and food security. The development of Genetically Modified (GM) crops has enabled plants to resist pests, withstand harsh climates and improve nutritional content. For instance, GM rice has been biofortified to contain higher levels of essential vitamins, potentially combating malnutrition in regions where rice is a staple food. However, these advancements also raise ethical concerns. The potential for creating “designer babies” through gene editing has sparked debates about the boundaries of genetic manipulation. The question of whether it's ethical to alter human DNA to enhance physical or cognitive traits continues to challenge bioethicists, policymakers and society at large. Data indicates the exponential growth of genetic engineering research. In the past decade, the number of scientific publications related to CRISPR technology has multiplied significantly. In 2010, there were approximately 150 CRISPR-related publications; by 2020, that number had soared to over 9,000. This surge demonstrates the profound impact of genetic engineering on the scientific community. As we navigate this brave new world of genetic engineering, striking a balance between innovation and ethical considerations remains paramount. The potential to cure genetic diseases, enhance food security and make leaps in scientific understanding is immense. However, careful consideration and collaboration are necessary to ensure that the benefits are realized while addressing the ethical complexities that accompany these technological breakthroughs. 6. Which gene editing technology has gained prominence recently?

Direction (Q. Nos. 6-10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 2 Genetic engineering, a revolutionary branch of biotechnology, continues to evolve rapidly, transforming the way we approach medicine, agriculture and various scientific endeavours. Recent developments in this field highlight both the immense potential and ethical considerations that come with the power to manipulate DNA. In the medical realm, gene editing technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 have gained prominence. These tools offer unprecedented precision in modifying genes, holding promise for treating genetic disorders. In a groundbreaking clinical trial, researchers successfully used gene editing to treat sickle cell anaemia. The patient's own modified cells were reintroduced into their body, resulting in reduced symptoms and an improved quality of life. In agriculture, genetic engineering is driving advancements in crop production and food security. The development of Genetically Modified (GM) crops has enabled plants to resist pests, withstand harsh climates and improve nutritional content. For instance, GM rice has been biofortified to contain higher levels of essential vitamins, potentially combating malnutrition in regions where rice is a staple food. However, these advancements also raise ethical concerns. The potential for creating “designer babies” through gene editing has sparked debates about the boundaries of genetic manipulation. The question of whether it's ethical to alter human DNA to enhance physical or cognitive traits continues to challenge bioethicists, policymakers and society at large. Data indicates the exponential growth of genetic engineering research. In the past decade, the number of scientific publications related to CRISPR technology has multiplied significantly. In 2010, there were approximately 150 CRISPR-related publications; by 2020, that number had soared to over 9,000. This surge demonstrates the profound impact of genetic engineering on the scientific community. As we navigate this brave new world of genetic engineering, striking a balance between innovation and ethical considerations remains paramount. The potential to cure genetic diseases, enhance food security and make leaps in scientific understanding is immense. However, careful consideration and collaboration are necessary to ensure that the benefits are realized while addressing the ethical complexities that accompany these technological breakthroughs. 7. In a clinical trial, gene editing was successfully used to treat which genetic disorder?

Direction (Q. Nos. 6-10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 2 Genetic engineering, a revolutionary branch of biotechnology, continues to evolve rapidly, transforming the way we approach medicine, agriculture and various scientific endeavours. Recent developments in this field highlight both the immense potential and ethical considerations that come with the power to manipulate DNA. In the medical realm, gene editing technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 have gained prominence. These tools offer unprecedented precision in modifying genes, holding promise for treating genetic disorders. In a groundbreaking clinical trial, researchers successfully used gene editing to treat sickle cell anaemia. The patient's own modified cells were reintroduced into their body, resulting in reduced symptoms and an improved quality of life. In agriculture, genetic engineering is driving advancements in crop production and food security. The development of Genetically Modified (GM) crops has enabled plants to resist pests, withstand harsh climates and improve nutritional content. For instance, GM rice has been biofortified to contain higher levels of essential vitamins, potentially combating malnutrition in regions where rice is a staple food. However, these advancements also raise ethical concerns. The potential for creating “designer babies” through gene editing has sparked debates about the boundaries of genetic manipulation. The question of whether it's ethical to alter human DNA to enhance physical or cognitive traits continues to challenge bioethicists, policymakers and society at large. Data indicates the exponential growth of genetic engineering research. In the past decade, the number of scientific publications related to CRISPR technology has multiplied significantly. In 2010, there were approximately 150 CRISPR-related publications; by 2020, that number had soared to over 9,000. This surge demonstrates the profound impact of genetic engineering on the scientific community. As we navigate this brave new world of genetic engineering, striking a balance between innovation and ethical considerations remains paramount. The potential to cure genetic diseases, enhance food security and make leaps in scientific understanding is immense. However, careful consideration and collaboration are necessary to ensure that the benefits are realized while addressing the ethical complexities that accompany these technological breakthroughs. 8. What is one of the benefits of Genetically Modified (GM) crops?

Direction (Q. Nos. 6-10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 2 Genetic engineering, a revolutionary branch of biotechnology, continues to evolve rapidly, transforming the way we approach medicine, agriculture and various scientific endeavours. Recent developments in this field highlight both the immense potential and ethical considerations that come with the power to manipulate DNA. In the medical realm, gene editing technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 have gained prominence. These tools offer unprecedented precision in modifying genes, holding promise for treating genetic disorders. In a groundbreaking clinical trial, researchers successfully used gene editing to treat sickle cell anaemia. The patient's own modified cells were reintroduced into their body, resulting in reduced symptoms and an improved quality of life. In agriculture, genetic engineering is driving advancements in crop production and food security. The development of Genetically Modified (GM) crops has enabled plants to resist pests, withstand harsh climates and improve nutritional content. For instance, GM rice has been biofortified to contain higher levels of essential vitamins, potentially combating malnutrition in regions where rice is a staple food. However, these advancements also raise ethical concerns. The potential for creating “designer babies” through gene editing has sparked debates about the boundaries of genetic manipulation. The question of whether it's ethical to alter human DNA to enhance physical or cognitive traits continues to challenge bioethicists, policymakers and society at large. Data indicates the exponential growth of genetic engineering research. In the past decade, the number of scientific publications related to CRISPR technology has multiplied significantly. In 2010, there were approximately 150 CRISPR-related publications; by 2020, that number had soared to over 9,000. This surge demonstrates the profound impact of genetic engineering on the scientific community. As we navigate this brave new world of genetic engineering, striking a balance between innovation and ethical considerations remains paramount. The potential to cure genetic diseases, enhance food security and make leaps in scientific understanding is immense. However, careful consideration and collaboration are necessary to ensure that the benefits are realized while addressing the ethical complexities that accompany these technological breakthroughs. 9. What ethical concern is associated with genetic engineering?

Direction (Q. Nos. 6-10) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based only on the passage given. Passage 2 Genetic engineering, a revolutionary branch of biotechnology, continues to evolve rapidly, transforming the way we approach medicine, agriculture and various scientific endeavours. Recent developments in this field highlight both the immense potential and ethical considerations that come with the power to manipulate DNA. In the medical realm, gene editing technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 have gained prominence. These tools offer unprecedented precision in modifying genes, holding promise for treating genetic disorders. In a groundbreaking clinical trial, researchers successfully used gene editing to treat sickle cell anaemia. The patient's own modified cells were reintroduced into their body, resulting in reduced symptoms and an improved quality of life. In agriculture, genetic engineering is driving advancements in crop production and food security. The development of Genetically Modified (GM) crops has enabled plants to resist pests, withstand harsh climates and improve nutritional content. For instance, GM rice has been biofortified to contain higher levels of essential vitamins, potentially combating malnutrition in regions where rice is a staple food. However, these advancements also raise ethical concerns. The potential for creating “designer babies” through gene editing has sparked debates about the boundaries of genetic manipulation. The question of whether it's ethical to alter human DNA to enhance physical or cognitive traits continues to challenge bioethicists, policymakers and society at large. Data indicates the exponential growth of genetic engineering research. In the past decade, the number of scientific publications related to CRISPR technology has multiplied significantly. In 2010, there were approximately 150 CRISPR-related publications; by 2020, that number had soared to over 9,000. This surge demonstrates the profound impact of genetic engineering on the scientific community. As we navigate this brave new world of genetic engineering, striking a balance between innovation and ethical considerations remains paramount. The potential to cure genetic diseases, enhance food security and make leaps in scientific understanding is immense. However, careful consideration and collaboration are necessary to ensure that the benefits are realized while addressing the ethical complexities that accompany these technological breakthroughs. 10. How has the number of CRISPR-related scientific publications changed over the past decade?

11. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them. (Identify the correct alternative for the underlined phrase "hell bent at getting")

12. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them. (Identify the correct alternative for the underlined phrase "at crushing")

13. In the following question, choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given word : ENORMOUS

14. Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom : To keep one's temper

15. Find the correctly spelt word.

Direction (Q. Nos. 16-18) : Read the paragraph and answer the following : I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my earphones. Almost simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a warning light on. Fleeting but spectacular sights snapped into and out of view, the snow, the shower of debris, the moon, looming close and big, the dazzling sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve hours before re-entry were particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up into command module. Even after the fiery re-entry splashing down in 81° water in South Pacific, we could still see our frosty breath inside the command module. 16. The word 'Command Module' used twice in the given passage indicates perhaps that it deals with

Direction (Q. Nos. 16-18) : Read the paragraph and answer the following : I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my earphones. Almost simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a warning light on. Fleeting but spectacular sights snapped into and out of view, the snow, the shower of debris, the moon, looming close and big, the dazzling sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve hours before re-entry were particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up into command module. Even after the fiery re-entry splashing down in 81° water in South Pacific, we could still see our frosty breath inside the command module. 17. Which one of the following reasons would one consider as more as possible for the warning lights to be on?

Direction (Q. Nos. 16-18) : Read the paragraph and answer the following : I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my earphones. Almost simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a warning light on. Fleeting but spectacular sights snapped into and out of view, the snow, the shower of debris, the moon, looming close and big, the dazzling sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve hours before re-entry were particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up into command module. Even after the fiery re-entry splashing down in 81° water in South Pacific, we could still see our frosty breath inside the command module. 18. The statement that the dazzling sunshine was “for once unfiltered by layers of air” means

19. In the question given below, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence : Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool.

20. In the following question, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word : EMBEZZLE

21. Direction : Choose the correct option considering the statements followed by the conclusions : Statements : (a) Some panthers are cats. (b) All cats are mammals. (c) Some mammals are not panthers. Conclusions : (i) Some mammals are panthers. (ii) All panthers are mammals. (iii) All cats are panthers. (iv) All mammals are panthers.

22. Divayabh gave an application for a new passport to the clerk on Monday afternoon. Next day was a holiday. So, the clerk cleared the papers on the next working day on resumption of duty. The senior clerk checked it on the same day but forwarded it to the head clerk on the next day. The head clerk decided to dispose the case on the subsequent day. On which of the following days was the case put up to the head clerk by the senior clerk?

23. Direction : Choose the correct option considering the statements followed by the conclusions. Statements : (a) Some desks are apartments. (b) All apartments are cars. (c) Some cars are trucks. Conclusions : (i) Some desks are trucks. (ii) Some desks are cars. (iii) Some cars are apartments. (iv) No truck is a desk.

24. Complete the following series : E-5, G-7, I-9, K-11, ?

25. In a row of children, Bali is seventh from the left and Moti is fourth from the right. When Bali and Moti exchange positions, Bali will be the fifteenth from the left. What will be Moti's position from the right?

26. A woman presents a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?

27. Facing a man in the eye, Nero said, “Your son is my son's uncle.” How is the man related to Nero?

28. If “!” denotes “added to”, “@” denotes “divided by”, “%” denotes “multiplied by” and “^” denotes “subtracted from”, then 13 ! 102 @ 6 % 2 ^ 41 = ?

31. If the marked price of 30 articles is equal to the selling price of 40 articles, then find the % discount.

32. A student scores 36% marks and he fails by 32 marks. But if he scores 48% marks then he will get 64 marks more than the passing marks. Find the pass percentage.

33. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4:3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3:2. However, each saves ₹ 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly income?

34. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R work together on a job, then in what ratio should they share the earnings?

35. 8 men can do a piece of work in 12 days while 20 women can do it in 10 days. In how many days 12 men and 15 women together can complete the same work?

Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (i), (ii) and (iii). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing : 36. Statement : A heavy unseasonal downpour during last two days has paralysed the normal life in the State in which five persons were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the State. Courses of action : (i) The State Government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation. (ii) The State Government should immediately remove all the restrictions, on use of potable water in all the major cities in the State. (iii) The State Government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the State.

Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (i), (ii) and (iii). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing : 37. Statement : A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employees in view of the huge losses incurred by it during the past three quarters. Courses of action : (i) The Government should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all transactions with the bank. (ii) The Government should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees. (iii) The Government should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the bank's activities and submit its report.

Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (i), (ii) and (iii). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing : 38. Statement : Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block traffic movement in the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in the prices of essential commodities. Courses of action : (i) The Government should immediately ban all forms of agitations in the country. (ii) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help traffic movement in the city. (iii) The State administration should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals staying in the city.

Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (i), (ii) and (iii). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing : 39. Statement : The school dropout rate in many districts in the State has increased sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by others to earn enough for them to get at least one meal a day. Courses of action : (i) The Government should put up a mechanism to provide food grains to the poor people in these districts through public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to school. (ii) The Government should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers of these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools. (iii) The Government should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in fields instead of attending classes.

Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (i), (ii) and (iii). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing : 40. Statement : One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a recruitment drive of police constables. Courses of action : (i) The officials in-charge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended. (ii) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the aspirant and submit its report within a week. (iii) The Government should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more number of days to avoid such incidents in future.

Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank : The candidate must (i) have secured at least 60 percent marks in std. XII (ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline (iii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Postgraduate degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics (iv) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 01-03-2010 (v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank (vi) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the personal interview. In case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (iii) above but has secured at least 60 percent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to the VP-Recruitment. (b) at (vi) above but has secured at least 65 percent marks in the written examination and at least 35 percent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to the President-Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these are given to you as on 01-03-2010 : 41. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November, 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in std. XII and 60 percent marks in Graduation. He has secured 58 percent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 percent in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as a Generalist Officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 percent marks in the written examination and 45 percent marks in the personal interview.

Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank : The candidate must (i) have secured at least 60 percent marks in std. XII (ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline (iii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Postgraduate degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics (iv) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 01-03-2010 (v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank (vi) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the personal interview. In case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (iii) above but has secured at least 60 percent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to the VP-Recruitment. (b) at (vi) above but has secured at least 65 percent marks in the written examination and at least 35 percent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to the President-Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these are given to you as on 01-03-2010 : 42. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as a Generalist Officer for the past four years after completing his Postgraduate Diploma in Management with 60 percent marks. He has secured 50 percent marks in the written examination and 40 percent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 percent marks in std. XII. He was born on 25th February, 1975.

Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank : The candidate must (i) have secured at least 60 percent marks in std. XII (ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline (iii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Postgraduate degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics (iv) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 01-03-2010 (v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank (vi) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the personal interview. In case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (iii) above but has secured at least 60 percent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to the VP-Recruitment. (b) at (vi) above but has secured at least 65 percent marks in the written examination and at least 35 percent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to the President-Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these are given to you as on 01-03-2010 : 43. Sohan Majhi has secured 65 percent marks in B.Sc. and 70 percent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as Generalist Officer for the past three years after completing his Postgraduation. He has secured 55 percent marks in the written examination and 50 percent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July, 1982.

Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank : The candidate must (i) have secured at least 60 percent marks in std. XII (ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline (iii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Postgraduate degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics (iv) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 01-03-2010 (v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank (vi) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the personal interview. In case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (iii) above but has secured at least 60 percent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to the VP-Recruitment. (b) at (vi) above but has secured at least 65 percent marks in the written examination and at least 35 percent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to the President-Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these are given to you as on 01-03-2010 : 44. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as a Generalist Officer for the past four years after completing her Postgraduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 60 percent marks in both Graduation and std. XII. She was born on 24th August, 1979. She has secured 70 percent marks in the written examination and 38 percent marks in the personal interview.

Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank : The candidate must (i) have secured at least 60 percent marks in std. XII (ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline (iii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Postgraduate degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics (iv) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 01-03-2010 (v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank (vi) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the personal interview. In case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (iii) above but has secured at least 60 percent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to the VP-Recruitment. (b) at (vi) above but has secured at least 65 percent marks in the written examination and at least 35 percent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to the President-Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these are given to you as on 01-03-2010 : 45. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd of June, 1980. She has been working in a bank as a Generalist Officer for the past three years after completing her Postgraduation degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68 percent marks in H.Sc. and 58 percent marks in B.Com. She has also secured 50 percent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.

46. Keeping in mind the relation between numbers of the first pair, find the possible number for the 2nd pair from the options given below : 43 : 12 :: 84 : ?

47. Three words are given in the following question which have common feature. Four options are given below the three words, one of which has that same common feature. Find the word : Fruit, Flower, Stem

48. Three words are given in the following question. Four options are given below, one of which is representative of the three words. Find that option : Cheetah, Lion, Tiger

49. Raj travelled from a point X straight to Y at a distance of 80 metres. He turned right and walked 50 metres, then again turned right and walked 70 metres. Finally, he turned right and walked 50 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

50. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his friend, “She is the granddaughter of the elder brother of my father.” How is the girl in the photograph related to this man?

Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle and are facing the centre. (ii) G is second to the left of C, who is to the immediate left of F. (iii) A is third to the left of E. (iv) B is between D and E. 56. Which of the following is false?

Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle and are facing the centre. (ii) G is second to the left of C, who is to the immediate left of F. (iii) A is third to the left of E. (iv) B is between D and E. 57. Which of the following is true?

Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle and are facing the centre. (ii) G is second to the left of C, who is to the immediate left of F. (iii) A is third to the left of E. (iv) B is between D and E. 58. Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person?

Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle and are facing the centre. (ii) G is second to the left of C, who is to the immediate left of F. (iii) A is third to the left of E. (iv) B is between D and E. 59. Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the remaining two?

Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle and are facing the centre. (ii) G is second to the left of C, who is to the immediate left of F. (iii) A is third to the left of E. (iv) B is between D and E. 60. Which of the following is the position of F?

61. Find the greatest 6-digit number among the following which is exactly divisible by 24, 15 and 36.

62. Which of the following is/are true for x = 7, y = 5, z = 3? (A) xyz + 3 is composite (B) xyz - 4 is prime (C) x + y + z +10 is a perfect square (D) All of the above

63. What is the least positive integer by which 750 should be multiplied so that the product is a perfect cube?

64. A perfect square number can never have the digit ______ at the unit's place.

65. The value of √0.00059049 is

66. Which of the following statements is true?

67. 12×(15+34) = (12×15)+(12×34), this is known as

68. In the following series, how many such odd numbers are there which are divisible by 3 or 5, then followed by odd numbers and then also followed by even numbers : 12, 19, 21, 3, 25, 18, 35, 20, 22, 21, 45, 46, 47, 48, 9, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56

69. Aaradhya, Reyansh and Akshit start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. Aaradhya completes one round in 252 seconds, Reyansh in 308 seconds and Akshit in 198 seconds. After what time will they meet again at the starting point?

70. Let the positions of the first two digits in each number of the following set be reversed : 738 359 456 342 986 Find the difference between the first digits of the highest number and lowest number.

72. Which of the following statements is sufficient to answer the question? Question : Find the total number of students in a class if the class has some boys and some girls. Statements : (i) The number of boys in a class is 10. (ii) The number of girls in a class is 2 more than the number of boys.

Direction : The table below shows the daily income (in ₹) of 50 persons. Study the table carefully and answer the question given below : Income (₹) – No. of persons : Less than 300 – 12; Less than 350 – 26; Less than 400 – 34; Less than 450 – 40; Less than 500 – 50. 73. How many persons earn ₹ 300 or more but less than ₹ 400?