HPPSC Prelims 2021

Which of the following statements is correct? (i) 'Dhauladhar Range' branches off from the Great Himalayan Range near Badrinath (ii) The Pir-Panjal range separates the drainage of the river Spiti from that of the river Beas. (iii) The Zanskar range is the easternmost range which separates Spiti and Kashmir from Tibet. (iv) The 'Gumrang and Sholarang' passes connect the basin of the river Chandrabhaga with its basin in Tibet.

Select the incorrect combination from the following : (i) Bahadurpur and Bandla ranges : Demi valley (ii) Markanda and Dharti ranges : Dun and Sproon valleys (iii) Chandertal lake : Kunzam range (iv) Source of Parvati river : Mantilai lake

Which of the following statements is correct ? (i) According to G.A. Grierson, Kehluri is an offshoot of rude Punjabi. (ii) Kinnauri-Jangram mixture is the dilect used in Rakcham and Chitkul villages of Sangla Tehsil. (iii) The dialect spoken in the Rampur Bushehr, Kumarsain and Kotgarh regions and in the nearby parts of the Satluj valley is called Kochi. (iv) According to Dr. Bholanath Tiwari, Pahari language originated from 'Dardi and Pishchi'.

Select the incorrect statement from the following : (i) The 'Khunds' are the martial people of Kangra. (ii) The most popular dance of Kinnaur is 'Kayang'. (iii) 'Burah' is a famous group dance of Mandi. (iv) The Buddhist people of Lahaul-Spiti and Kinnaur perform mask dances.

Which of the following statements about 'Jal-Jeevan-Mission' is not correct ? (i) In H.P. it is targeted to include every rural household in providing 'Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every family by June, 2022. (ii) Out of 17.28 lakh households, 15.80 lakh were provided FHTC upto December, 2021. (iii) In Himachal Pradesh 91% of the households have been provided with domestic connection against a national average of 45.50 percent. (iv) Himachal Pradesh places at 8th position in the country for providing FHTC.

Select the correct statements from the following : (i) Supreme Court of India has allowed the State for silviculture green felling of three species on experimental basis. (ii) Forests in H.P. cover an area of 37947 sq. kms of total geographical area of the state (iii) In H.P. presently 30% of the total geographical areas support forest cover. (iv) The aim of the forest department is to enhance the forest cover in the state to 35% of its geographical area by 2030.

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I: (i) Total geographical area of H.P. (ii) Total area of operational holding (iii) Area operated by number of farmers (iv) Average holding size List-II: (a) 55.67 lakh hectare (b) 4.95 lakh hectare (c) 0.95 hectare (d) 9.97 lakh (e) 9.44 lakh hactare

Which of the following statements is not correct ? (i) The foodgrain production in 2020-21 in H.P. was 15.28 lakh M.T. (ii) The production of potato in the year 2020-21 in H.P. was 1.97 lakh M.T. (iii) The production of vegetables in H.P. during the year 2020-21 was 18.61 lakh M.T. (iv) The target of foodgrain production in H.P. for 2020-21 was 16.35 lakh metric tonnes.

Which of the following statements about tea production in H.P. is correct ? (i) There are 5900 tea growers in the state. (ii) Total area under tea cultivation in H.P. is 2500 hectares (iii) In 2020-21 tea production in H.P. was 11.45 lakh kilograms. (iv) Small and marginal farmers are provided agriculture inputs on 50% subsidy basis.

Select the incorrect statements from the following : (i) H.P. has been assessed second top performer in terms of Human Resource Development and Public Infrastructure among Hill States during 2020-21. (ii) Bilaspur district has been ranked at number one on the basis of District Good Governance Index (DGGI)-2020. (iii) Shimla district ranked fifth in DGGI-2020. (iv) Hamirpur has improved its position to the fourth in terms of Transparency and Accountability Index.

Select the correct statement/s about banking in H.P. : (i) As per 2011 census, the average population per branch in the state was 4059. (ii) The state has a network of 4422 bank branches. (iii) Shimla is the only urban centre in the state classified by RBI. (iv) PNB has the largest network of 530 branches in H.P.

Which of the following is not the main objective of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana – Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR) ? (i) To strengthen the farmer's efforts through creation of required pre- and post-harvest agri-infrastructure that increases access to quality inputs, storage, market facilities etc. and enable farmers to make informed choices. (ii) To promote value chain addition linked production modules that will help farmers increase their income as well as encourage production/productivity. (iii) To attend national priorities through several sub-schemes. (iv) To empower youth through skill development, innovation and agri-entrepreneurship based agri-business models that attract them to agriculture.

Match List-I and List-II with regard to plan outlays (2021-22) and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I: (i) Agriculture and Allied Services (ii) Energy (iii) Transport (iv) Social services List-II: (a) 3221.49 crore (b) 903.57 crore (c) 2724.32 crore (d) 929.31 crore (e) 773.30 crore

Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) The traditional council of Khampas is known as 'Shuzam Chungi'. (ii) The common term for widow re-marriage used by Pangwals is 'Doghri'. (iii) The 'Bushehr State' was also known as 'Maon' or 'Mone'. (iv) According to Bhagawant Puran, 'Kinner' trace their origin from the shadow of 'Brahma'.

Read the following sentences and select the incorrect one : (i) St. Andrew's Church in Chamba carries the influence of Scottish architecture. (ii) The architecture of 'Manimahesh Lakshana Devi temple' is 'Indo-Aryan Nagar style (Shikhar)'. (iii) 'Champavati temple' in Chamba is built in 'Graeco Buddhist art of Gandhara'. (iv) The brass idol of the Goddess at Chatrari Shakti Devi temple in Chamba district is in the 'Kashmiri style'.

Choose the incorrect answer from the following : (i) Abode of Goddess Mathi is 'Chitkul'. (ii) A living geographical museum is 'Lingti valley'. (iii) Chasak Bhatori is the highest village in 'Lahaul valley' (iv) The highest peak of the Kinner Kailash massif is 'Jorkanden'.

Select the correct statement/s from the following : (i) Mahmud of Ghazni, made a raid on Nagarkot (Kangra) in 1008-09 A.D. (ii) Hiuen-Tsang stayed for sometime at Sirmaur with the monk Jaya Guptam. (iii) Prince Nasir-ud-Din ascended the throne of Kangra under the name of Muhammad Tughlaq. (iv) The Nagarkot fort remained under the possession of Timur-e-Lang till AD 1043.

Which of the following statements is/are not correct ? (i) The battle of Nadaun was fought between Raja Bhim Chand of Kahlur and the Mughals. (ii) In the battle of 'Dhalog' Raja Janardhan of Chamba was defeated. (iii) Raja of Hindur, Hari Chand was killed by Guru Govind Singh in the battle of 'Bhangani'. (iv) The Gurkhas defeated the Kangra forces at 'Mahal Morian' in 1806.

Select the correct statement/s from the following : (i) Khoksar is located on the old trade route from Indian plains to the West Asia. (ii) The coins of Adumbras shows that the tribe was worshipers of Lord Vishnu. (iii) In Mahabharata, it is mentioned that the Adumbra is the name of the sage Vyas. (iv) The tribal republics of H.P. were 'Sangha Janapadas'.

Which of the following statement/s about Kullu is/are not correct ? (i) Kullu remained part of Punjab state till 31st October, 1966. (ii) Kullu was a sub-division of Kangra district since 1846. (iii) Alexander Cunningham and A.T. Banon were the first Europeans to visit Kullu in 1820 A.D. (iv) The idol of 'Raghunath ji' was brought from Ayodhya to Kullu during the reign of Raja Jagat Singh.

Consider the following statements : (1) Bajrang Punia has become the first Indian to win 4 medals at World Wrestling Chamionships. (2) Ujjain has been nominated as the first ever SCO Tourism and Culture Capital during 2022-2023. (3) Indian Army has decided to shift the Army Day Parade of 2023 to Central Command. (4) Chhello Show film has been announced as India's official entry to Oscars 2023. Which of the above statements are correct ?

Consider the following statements : (1) Global Fintech Conference in 2022 was held in Mumbai. (2) Tripura State has launched 'CM da Haisi' web portal. (3) Rohit Sharma has surpassed Pakistan Captain Babar Azam in the recently ICC T-20 rankings. (4) District Disability Rehabilitation Centre is an initiative of Union Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry. Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

Consider the following statements : (1) Telangana State has announced India's first Breakfast scheme for government school students. (2) The term Prompt Corrective Action is related to framework under which Banks with weak financial ratios are watched by RBI. (3) Amongst Union Territories Puducherry has become India's first Swachh Sujal Pradesh. (4) Prime Minister has launched national logistics policy. Which of the above statements are correct ?

Consider the following statements : (1) Reliance has been conferred with the 'Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar' for 2021-22. (2) Satish Adiga has been conferred with top French civilian honour. (3) 'Chandler Wobble' is related to Black Hole. (4) The new Naval Ensign features the national emblem inside blue Octagon shape. Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

Which of the following statement/s about 'State Food Safety Index' for the year 2021-22 is/are correct ? (1) Among the large states Himachal Pradesh got 4th rank. (2) Among the small states Goa got 2nd rank. (3) Among Union Territories Delhi & Chandigarh got 1st and 2nd ranks.

Consider the following statements : (1) Tamil Nadu State is in the process of developing a Dugong (Sea Cow) reserve. (2) “Blue Book” is the manual of National Security Guard. (3) 'CiSS application' under Baal Swaraj portal is used in the context of rehabilitation of children. (4) Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) is located in Madhya Pradesh. Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

Consider the following statements : (1) Bangladesh will host Women's Twenty-20 Asia Cup 2022. (2) China has successfully cloned the wild Arctic wolf for the first time in the world. (3) In 2023 BRICS summit will be held in Brazil. (4) Equal Pay International Coalition is an initiative of G-20. Which of the above statements are correct ?

Consider the following statements : (1) Giorgia Meloni became the first female Prime Minister of Italy. (2) Tajikistan hosted the Shanghai Cooperation Organization Summit, 2022. (3) UAE has signed an MOU with China's space agency to work together on moon missions. (4) Devastating storm Nanmadol had struck Laos Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

Ukraine shares borders with which of the following countries ? (1) Belarus (2) Romania (3) Hungary (4) Georgia Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Consider the following statements : (1) UNICEF appointed Vanessa Nakate of Uganda, climate activist, as the Goodwill Ambassador of the UN Children's Fund. (2) 'Meritorious Service Medal' to Admiral Sunil Lanba, former Navy Chief of India was awarded by Singapore. (3) Germany is the host of the World Water Congress and Exhibition 2022. (4) Qimingxing-50 is the name of the first fully solar-powered UAV of South Korea. Which of the above statements are correct ?

Consider the following statements : (1) U.N. Secretary-General Antonio Guterres appointed Roza Otunbayeva a former President of Kazakhstan as his new special envoy for Afghanistan. (2) Russia has become the first country to approve the world's first needle-free, inhaled version of the COVID-19 vaccine. (3) As per the latest figures from the IMF (September 2022), France economy is the fifth largest economy in the world. (4) China is the President of the G-20 in 2022. Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

Match List-I with List-II : List-I (Winter Olympics Games Beijing, 2022-Country): (a) China (b) Germany (c) Norway (d) United States of America List-II (Medals won): (i) 37 (ii) 25 (iii) 27 (iv) 15 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

The Airavateshwara temple at Darasuram was built by :

Which among the following Drama/Book was not written by famous poet Bhasa ?

Which pair is not correctly matched ? Foreign Traveller : Country associated (A) Pietro Della Valle : French (France) (B) John Fryer : England (C) Niccolao Manucci : Italy (D) Joannes-De-Laet : Dutch

Who was the author of the book “Tarikh-i-Rashidi” ?

Who was the founder of “Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science” (1876) ?

Who said, “Lord Ripon, the savior of India and his rule–the beginning of a Golden age in India” ?

Who said, “Raja Rammohan was the only person in his time to realise completely the significance of the modern age” ?

Which among the following books was not written by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?

Which pair is not correctly matched ? Education Commission/Committee : Year (A) Sadler University Commission : 1917 (B) Hunter Education Commission : 1887 (C) The Hartog Committee : 1929 (D) Indian Universities Act : 1904

Where was the “Indian Independence Committee” set up by Lala Hardayal and his friends ?

Milam glacier is located in :

Zojila pass is located in :

Vadinar oil refinery is managed by :

Which of the following countries is landlocked ?

Where are the Balearic islands located ?

Turkey is located between :

Flemish are the tribes of :

Make a sequence of the following countries from North to South : (1) Romania (2) Bulgaria (3) Ukraine (4) Greece Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Match List I with List II : List I (Sea): (a) Black Sea (b) Red Sea (c) Yellow Sea (d) Caspian Sea List II (Country): (i) Bulgaria (ii) China (iii) Eritrea (iv) Kazakhstan Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II : List I (Mineral): (a) Mica (b) Bauxite (c) Manganese (d) Copper List II (Place): (i) Khetri (ii) Hazaribagh (iii) Palamau (iv) Keonjhar Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II : List I (Dam): (a) Nagarjun Sagar (b) Matatila (c) Maithon (d) Hirakud List II (River): (i) Mahanadi (ii) Barakar (iii) Krishna (iv) Betwa Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Who decides the matter of disqualification of MLA for matters other than those given in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution ?

Which Article of the Constitution of India bars a Member of Parliament from holding an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State ?

What is the object of cut motion ?

Through 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1/3 seats for the women are reserved in the Panchayats under which Article ?

When any official does not perform his duty, High Court/Supreme Court can issue which writ ?

Which Articles have been inserted to provide reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in 2019 ?

The purpose of an adjournment motion is to :

Judiciary in India enjoys the power of Judicial Review on the principle of “procedure established by law” which means :

Regarding the Interim Government of 1946 which of the following is not correct ?

What do you understand by 'Zero Hour' in the Indian Parliamentary Procedure ?

What constitute definition of Money Bill under Article 110 of Indian Constitution ?

What is the current position of representation of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha ?

Given below are two statements : Statement I : According to a World Bank working paper, extreme poverty in India dropped to 10.2% in the pre-Covid year of 2019 from as much as 22.5% in 2011. Statement II : The paper uses the Consumer Pyramids Household Survey (CPHS) to provide estimates of how poverty and inequality in India have evolved since 2011. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Development expenditure of the Central Government does not include defense expenditure and grants to states. Statement II : Non-development expenditure involves Interest payments and Subsidies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Deficit financing cannot create inflation in an economy. Statement II : If RBI reduces the cash reserve ratio, the credit creation will decline. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Low-income countries (LICs) and lower-middle-income countries (LMICs) have high prospective growth rates and high marginal productivities of capital. Statement II : They should borrow, and borrow heavily, in order to finance a broad-based increase in investments on human capital (education and health), public infrastructure (power, digital, water and sanitation, transport) and environmental protection. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Given below are two statements : Statement I : The average SDG Index score declined in 2021 as compared to 2020, partly due to slow or non-existent recovery in poor and vulnerable countries. Statement II : Among G20 member states, the United States, Brazil and the Russian Federation exhibit most support for the 2030 Agenda and the SDGs. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Consider the following statements : (1) If Indian economy is in equilibrium at the point where plans to save and to invest are equal, then govrnment expenditure must be equal to government income (2) In pursuance with the recommendations of Narsimham Committee, the RBI has framed new guidelines to setup more foreign exchange banks (3) Redistribution policies geared to reduce economic inequalities include progressive tax policies (4) The currency convertibility concept in its original form originated in Taylors Agreement Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Consider the following statements : (1) Gross capital formation consists of outlays on additions to the fixed assets of the economy plus gross changes in the level of inventories (2) Net value added at factor cost is the sum total of all the factor payments (3) The National Income is the total amount of income accruing to a country from economic and non-economic activities in a year time (4) In moving from national income to personal income we must subtract the incomes earned but not received and add incomes received but not currently earned Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Consider the following statements : (1) The green economy could add more than 54 million jobs worldwide by 2030 (2) World over the additional investment to avoid future pandemics is estimated to be only $15 billion a year (3) Over 90 percent of countries saw their HDI value drop in either 2020 or 2021 (4) The economic gains from phasing out coal could amount to as much as 1.7 percent of global GDP every year Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Consider the following statements : (1) The Positive Peace Index measures the positive peace of 143 countries (2) It covers 59.6 percent of the world population (3) Positive peace is defined as the attitudes, institutions and structures that create sustain peaceful societies (4) It is based on more than 45,700 data series Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Consider the following statements : (1) The Global Health Security Index is a measure of pandemic (COVID-19) preparedness (2) Compared with the rest of the world, a higher percentage of people in OECD countries tend to be covered by public or mandatory private health insurance (3) "30 × 30" target relates to poverty eradication (4) World over, cities and other urban areas are home to around 25 percent of humanity Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Match List I with List II : : List I: (a) Gini coefficient (b) PISA score (c) Human Trophic Level (d) Palma ratio List II: (i) a measure of the energy intensity of diet composition (ii) assesses how far students near the end of compulsory education have acquired some of the knowledge and skills that are essential for full participation in society (iii) measures the extent to which the distribution of income among individuals or households within an economy deviates from a perfectly equal distribution (iv) The share of all income received by the 10% people with highest disposable income divided by the share of all income received by the 40% people with the lowest disposable income Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II : List I: (a) Conglomerate (b) Golden handshake (c) Blue Chip (d) Laissez Faire List II: (i) The company that has acquired interest in different industries by taking over or merging with other companies (ii) an economic system in which transactions between private groups of people are free from any form of economic interventionism (iii) an employment agreement which states that the employer will provide a significant severance package if the employees loses their job (iv) stock in a stock corporation with a national reputation for quality reliability, and the ability to operate profitably in good and bad times Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

'Day Zero' refers to which city as South Africa ?

ECOLEX is controlled by :

Most of the air pollution that we experience is located in :

Deep underground reservoir of water are called as :

Who gave the concept of biodiversity hotspots ?

Which of the following sanctuaries is not known for tigers ?

When was the process of identifying the key Biodiversity Areas started in India ?

Match List I with List II : : List I (Air Pollution Incident): (a) Meuse (1930) (b) Donora (1948) (c) Bhopal (1984) (d) London (1952) List II (Country): (i) England (ii) India (iii) USA (iv) Belgium Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II : : List I (Plant Name Local): (a) Toona (b) Khejri (c) Alder (d) Jammi List II (State): (i) Telangana (ii) Manipur (iii) Rajasthan (iv) Nagaland Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II : : List I (Sanctuary): (a) Bhadra (b) Dalma (c) Gumti (d) Jaldapara List II (Location): (i) Jharkhand (ii) Tripura (iii) West Bengal (iv) Karnataka Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II : : List I (Wetland): (a) Deepor Beel (b) Asthamudi (c) Loktak (d) Kanjali List II (State): (i) Kerala (ii) Assam (iii) Punjab (iv) Manipur Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II : : List I (Policy): (a) Wildlife (b) Forest (c) Environment (d) Pollution List II (Year): (i) 1992 (ii) 1972 (iii) 1988 (iv) 2006 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Fats are made from edible oils using the process of :

The main precursors of winter smog are :

Most kidney stones are composed of :

There are two statements given below : Statement I : A traveler crossing the international date line from east to west loses a day. Statement II : A traveler crossing the international date line from west to east gains a day. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

There are two statements given below : Statement I : Steam produces less severe burns than water at the same temperature. Statement II : Dry ice is colder than regular ice. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Arrange the following electromagnetic waves according to the increasing frequency : (1) Gamma rays (2) X-rays (3) Radio waves (4) Microwaves

Arrange the following atmospheric layers in the correct order from the surface of the earth : (1) Mesosphere (2) Troposphere (3) Thermosphere (4) Stratosphere

Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options : (1) A concave mirror is a diverging mirror (2) Image formed by a concave mirror is generally real and inverted (3) A convex mirror is a converging mirror (4) Image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual, erect and diminished

Consider the given four statements about ethanol and choose the correct answer from the given options : (1) It is the main constituent of all alcoholic drinks (2) It is not a good solvent (3) It is soluble in water in all proportions (4) It cannot be used as an additive in petrol

Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options : List I (Acid): (a) Ascorbic acid (b) Malic acid (c) Formic acid (d) Tartaric acid List II (Source): (i) Apples and pears (ii) Ant stings (iii) Tamarind and grapes (iv) All citrus fruits Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options : List I: (a) Hydrophone (b) Megaphone (c) Anemometer (d) Tachometer List II: (i) An instrument measuring the rotation speed of a shaft or disk (ii) An instrument that measures wind speed (iii) An instrument that spreads sound to far-off places (iv) An underwater device that detects and records ocean sounds from all directions Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Read the passage carefully and attempt Question Nos. by choosing the most appropriate option: At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought into close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character. Q: According to the author "Mentality" of a nation is mainly product of its:

Read the passage carefully and attempt Question Nos. by choosing the most appropriate option: At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought into close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character. Q: According to the author, the need for a greater understanding between nations:

Read the passage carefully and attempt Question Nos. by choosing the most appropriate option: At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought into close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character. Q: According to the author, the character of a nation is the result of its:

Read the passage carefully and attempt Question Nos. by choosing the most appropriate option: At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought into close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character. Q: According to the author his countrymen should:

Read the passage carefully and attempt Question Nos. by choosing the most appropriate option: At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought into close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character. Q: Englishmen like others to react to political situations like:

Read the passage carefully and attempt Question Nos. by choosing the most appropriate option: At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought into close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character. Q: The appropriate antonym of the word "vital" is:

गद्यांश को ध्यान से पढ़ें और सबसे अच्छा उत्तर चुनें जो अनुसरण करता है : मध्य युग के यूरोपीय लोग चर्च और महल के महान निर्माता थे। इमारतों के इन दो वर्गों ने मध्यकालीन जीवन पर शासन करने वाले विचारों को व्यक्त किया। गाँव आमतौर पर नम और गंदी परिस्थितियों से भरा था। शहर घरों का एक पागल झुंड, प्लेग के लिए उपयुक्त प्रजनन स्थान, महल मुख्य रूप से एक किला और दूसरा एक अंधेरा, ठंडा, असुविधाजनक आवास था। लेकिन चर्च को अच्छी तरह से बनाया गया था और स्थानीय प्रयास के रूप में भव्य रूप से सजाया गया था। स्थानीय लोगों का मानना था कि भगवान सुंदर स्थानों को पसंद करते हैं। इसकी खिड़कियाँ कांच की थीं और इसकी दीवारों को चमकीले रंगों में चित्रों से रंगा गया था। यह टॉवर, ऊपर की ओर इशारा करते हुए, ग्रामीणों और नागरिकों को सांसारिक जीवन की असंतोषजनक स्थिति से दूर कल्पना की भूमि की ओर निर्देशित करता है। 7. मध्य युग के दौरान निम्नलिखित में से किस पर विशेष ध्यान दिया गया था ?

गद्यांश को ध्यान से पढ़ें और सबसे अच्छा उत्तर चुनें जो अनुसरण करता है : मध्य युग के यूरोपीय लोग चर्च और महल के महान निर्माता थे। इमारतों के इन दो वर्गों ने मध्यकालीन जीवन पर शासन करने वाले विचारों को व्यक्त किया। गाँव आमतौर पर नम और गंदी परिस्थितियों से भरा था। शहर घरों का एक पागल झुंड, प्लेग के लिए उपयुक्त प्रजनन स्थान, महल मुख्य रूप से एक किला और दूसरा एक अंधेरा, ठंडा, असुविधाजनक आवास था। लेकिन चर्च को अच्छी तरह से बनाया गया था और स्थानीय प्रयास के रूप में भव्य रूप से सजाया गया था। स्थानीय लोगों का मानना था कि भगवान सुंदर स्थानों को पसंद करते हैं। इसकी खिड़कियाँ कांच की थीं और इसकी दीवारों को चमकीले रंगों में चित्रों से रंगा गया था। यह टॉवर, ऊपर की ओर इशारा करते हुए, ग्रामीणों और नागरिकों को सांसारिक जीवन की असंतोषजनक स्थिति से दूर कल्पना की भूमि की ओर निर्देशित करता है। 8. किस वजह से मध्यकालीन शहर प्लेग के प्रजनन के लिए उपयुक्त स्थान बन गए ?

गद्यांश को ध्यान से पढ़ें और सबसे अच्छा उत्तर चुनें जो अनुसरण करता है : मध्य युग के यूरोपीय लोग चर्च और महल के महान निर्माता थे। इमारतों के इन दो वर्गों ने मध्यकालीन जीवन पर शासन करने वाले विचारों को व्यक्त किया। गाँव आमतौर पर नम और गंदी परिस्थितियों से भरा था। शहर घरों का एक पागल झुंड, प्लेग के लिए उपयुक्त प्रजनन स्थान, महल मुख्य रूप से एक किला और दूसरा एक अंधेरा, ठंडा, असुविधाजनक आवास था। लेकिन चर्च को अच्छी तरह से बनाया गया था और स्थानीय प्रयास के रूप में भव्य रूप से सजाया गया था। स्थानीय लोगों का मानना था कि भगवान सुंदर स्थानों को पसंद करते हैं। इसकी खिड़कियाँ कांच की थीं और इसकी दीवारों को चमकीले रंगों में चित्रों से रंगा गया था। यह टॉवर, ऊपर की ओर इशारा करते हुए, ग्रामीणों और नागरिकों को सांसारिक जीवन की असंतोषजनक स्थिति से दूर कल्पना की भूमि की ओर निर्देशित करता है। 9. मध्यकालीन महल रहने के लिए असहज जगह क्यों थी ?

गद्यांश को ध्यान से पढ़ें और सबसे अच्छा उत्तर चुनें जो अनुसरण करता है : मध्य युग के यूरोपीय लोग चर्च और महल के महान निर्माता थे। इमारतों के इन दो वर्गों ने मध्यकालीन जीवन पर शासन करने वाले विचारों को व्यक्त किया। गाँव आमतौर पर नम और गंदी परिस्थितियों से भरा था। शहर घरों का एक पागल झुंड, प्लेग के लिए उपयुक्त प्रजनन स्थान, महल मुख्य रूप से एक किला और दूसरा एक अंधेरा, ठंडा, असुविधाजनक आवास था। लेकिन चर्च को अच्छी तरह से बनाया गया था और स्थानीय प्रयास के रूप में भव्य रूप से सजाया गया था। स्थानीय लोगों का मानना था कि भगवान सुंदर स्थानों को पसंद करते हैं। इसकी खिड़कियाँ कांच की थीं और इसकी दीवारों को चमकीले रंगों में चित्रों से रंगा गया था। यह टॉवर, ऊपर की ओर इशारा करते हुए, ग्रामीणों और नागरिकों को सांसारिक जीवन की असंतोषजनक स्थिति से दूर कल्पना की भूमि की ओर निर्देशित करता है। 10. मध्य युग में चर्चों को विशेष रूप से सुंदर बनाया गया था क्योंकि लोगों का विश्वास था :

गद्यांश को ध्यान से पढ़ें और सबसे अच्छा उत्तर चुनें जो अनुसरण करता है : मध्य युग के यूरोपीय लोग चर्च और महल के महान निर्माता थे। इमारतों के इन दो वर्गों ने मध्यकालीन जीवन पर शासन करने वाले विचारों को व्यक्त किया। गाँव आमतौर पर नम और गंदी परिस्थितियों से भरा था। शहर घरों का एक पागल झुंड, प्लेग के लिए उपयुक्त प्रजनन स्थान, महल मुख्य रूप से एक किला और दूसरा एक अंधेरा, ठंडा, असुविधाजनक आवास था। लेकिन चर्च को अच्छी तरह से बनाया गया था और स्थानीय प्रयास के रूप में भव्य रूप से सजाया गया था। स्थानीय लोगों का मानना था कि भगवान सुंदर स्थानों को पसंद करते हैं। इसकी खिड़कियाँ कांच की थीं और इसकी दीवारों को चमकीले रंगों में चित्रों से रंगा गया था। यह टॉवर, ऊपर की ओर इशारा करते हुए, ग्रामीणों और नागरिकों को सांसारिक जीवन की असंतोषजनक स्थिति से दूर कल्पना की भूमि की ओर निर्देशित करता है। 11. मध्य युग के प्रति लेखक के रवैये को आप कैसे निरूपित करेंगे ?

गद्यांश को ध्यान से पढ़ें और सबसे अच्छा उत्तर चुनें जो अनुसरण करता है : मध्य युग के यूरोपीय लोग चर्च और महल के महान निर्माता थे। इमारतों के इन दो वर्गों ने मध्यकालीन जीवन पर शासन करने वाले विचारों को व्यक्त किया। गाँव आमतौर पर नम और गंदी परिस्थितियों से भरा था। शहर घरों का एक पागल झुंड, प्लेग के लिए उपयुक्त प्रजनन स्थान, महल मुख्य रूप से एक किला और दूसरा एक अंधेरा, ठंडा, असुविधाजनक आवास था। लेकिन चर्च को अच्छी तरह से बनाया गया था और स्थानीय प्रयास के रूप में भव्य रूप से सजाया गया था। स्थानीय लोगों का मानना था कि भगवान सुंदर स्थानों को पसंद करते हैं। इसकी खिड़कियाँ कांच की थीं और इसकी दीवारों को चमकीले रंगों में चित्रों से रंगा गया था। यह टॉवर, ऊपर की ओर इशारा करते हुए, ग्रामीणों और नागरिकों को सांसारिक जीवन की असंतोषजनक स्थिति से दूर कल्पना की भूमि की ओर निर्देशित करता है। 12. “टकटकी” का उपयुक्त पर्यायवाची शब्द है :

Fill in the blanks with the correct option. The angry Director called ..................... an explanation from the student.

The Government is .................... to deal with the increasing corruption.

I understood exactly what you ..................... .

More than sixty houses were ..................... in fire.

The study of the origin of words is called ..................... .

An enclosure or structure adapted or prepared for keeping animals under semi-natural conditions for observation or study or even as pets is called ............... .

I'm not going to buy ..................... vegetables.

The Plane ..................... before they reached the airport.

Dr. Manoj ......................... for thirty years in our college before he retired.

The Lawyer was sure .................. would die ...................... his money would go to his son.

There were ..................... students in the class ................... expected.

Either my brother ..................... held responsible for the theft.

Answer the questions based on the following graph. (Q. Nos. 25 to 27) Production of P, Q, R & S (1990-95), in Tonnes (read from bar chart): 1990: P=15, Q=35, R=95, S=105. 1991: P=25, Q=35, R=85, S=155. 1992: P=30, Q=105, R=100, S=165. 1993: P=25, Q=55, R=65, S=130. 1994: P=65, Q=35, R=120, S=80. 1995: P=45, Q=55, R=90, S=75. Q: In which year the growth rate of total production (of all products) is highest over the previous years?

Answer the questions based on the following graph. (Q. Nos. 25 to 27) Production of P, Q, R & S (1990-95), in Tonnes (read from bar chart): 1990: P=15, Q=35, R=95, S=105. 1991: P=25, Q=35, R=85, S=155. 1992: P=30, Q=105, R=100, S=165. 1993: P=25, Q=55, R=65, S=130. 1994: P=65, Q=35, R=120, S=80. 1995: P=45, Q=55, R=90, S=75. Q: If four products P, Q, R and S are sold at price of Rs. 9, Rs. 4, Rs. 13 and Rs. 3 respectively during 1990-1995, then the total revenue of all the products is lowest in which year?

Answer the questions based on the following graph. (Q. Nos. 25 to 27) Production of P, Q, R & S (1990-95), in Tonnes (read from bar chart): 1990: P=15, Q=35, R=95, S=105. 1991: P=25, Q=35, R=85, S=155. 1992: P=30, Q=105, R=100, S=165. 1993: P=25, Q=55, R=65, S=130. 1994: P=65, Q=35, R=120, S=80. 1995: P=45, Q=55, R=90, S=75. Q: Individual revenue of P, Q, R and S for the entire period (1990-1995) is calculated based on the price of Rs. 9, Rs. 4, Rs. 13 and Rs. 3 respectively. Which product fetches the lowest revenue?

Read the passage below and solve the questions based on it. (Q. Nos. 28 to 30) Number of taxi drivers and auto drivers working in three shifts are given below: Vehicle, Shift, Number of drivers, Working hours, Total collection (Rs. thousands): Taxi M1: 425 drivers, 10 hrs, 132.1. Taxi M2: 672 drivers, 8 hrs, 240.2. Taxi M3: 135 drivers, 6 hrs, 42.3. Auto M1: 350 drivers, 9 hrs, 57.3. Auto M2: 425 drivers, 8 hrs, 100.8. Auto M3: 95 drivers, 7 hrs, 18.9. A taxi driver charges Rs. 13 for every 1.6 km, while an auto driver charges Rs. 8 for every 1.3 km. For the night shift, charges are 1.5 times the normal rate. In case of Auto, M3 is the night shift. Q: By what percentage is the average collection per taxi driver more during the M2 shift than during the M1 shift?

Read the passage below and solve the questions based on it. (Q. Nos. 28 to 30) Number of taxi drivers and auto drivers working in three shifts are given below: Vehicle, Shift, Number of drivers, Working hours, Total collection (Rs. thousands): Taxi M1: 425 drivers, 10 hrs, 132.1. Taxi M2: 672 drivers, 8 hrs, 240.2. Taxi M3: 135 drivers, 6 hrs, 42.3. Auto M1: 350 drivers, 9 hrs, 57.3. Auto M2: 425 drivers, 8 hrs, 100.8. Auto M3: 95 drivers, 7 hrs, 18.9. A taxi driver charges Rs. 13 for every 1.6 km, while an auto driver charges Rs. 8 for every 1.3 km. For the night shift, charges are 1.5 times the normal rate. In case of Auto, M3 is the night shift. Q: Who get the highest returns for their efforts with respect to work hours?

Read the passage below and solve the questions based on it. (Q. Nos. 28 to 30) Number of taxi drivers and auto drivers working in three shifts are given below: Vehicle, Shift, Number of drivers, Working hours, Total collection (Rs. thousands): Taxi M1: 425 drivers, 10 hrs, 132.1. Taxi M2: 672 drivers, 8 hrs, 240.2. Taxi M3: 135 drivers, 6 hrs, 42.3. Auto M1: 350 drivers, 9 hrs, 57.3. Auto M2: 425 drivers, 8 hrs, 100.8. Auto M3: 95 drivers, 7 hrs, 18.9. A taxi driver charges Rs. 13 for every 1.6 km, while an auto driver charges Rs. 8 for every 1.3 km. For the night shift, charges are 1.5 times the normal rate. In case of Auto, M3 is the night shift. Q: Which of the following is *false*?

Go through the data set given below and solve the questions based on it. (Q. Nos. 31 to 33) The following pie chart gives the percentage of employees working in different departments of an organization. Total number of employees is 2500. Pie chart: HR 16%, Accounts 8%, Administration 12%, Printing 6%, Logistics 11%, Operations 18%, IT 14%, Marketing 15%. The following table gives the ratio of male and female employees in different departments: Department -- Male : Female ratio numbers -- Administration 7:5, Accounts 2:3, HR 5:3, Marketing 7:8, IT 3:4, Operations 5:4, Logistics 6:5, Printing 2:1. Q: What is the ratio between male employees in Administration and Printing Departments respectively?

Go through the data set given below and solve the questions based on it. (Q. Nos. 31 to 33) The following pie chart gives the percentage of employees working in different departments of an organization. Total number of employees is 2500. Pie chart: HR 16%, Accounts 8%, Administration 12%, Printing 6%, Logistics 11%, Operations 18%, IT 14%, Marketing 15%. The following table gives the ratio of male and female employees in different departments: Department -- Male : Female ratio numbers -- Administration 7:5, Accounts 2:3, HR 5:3, Marketing 7:8, IT 3:4, Operations 5:4, Logistics 6:5, Printing 2:1. Q: What is the ratio between total number of males in HR and Marketing and the total number of females in these two departments respectively?

Go through the data set given below and solve the questions based on it. (Q. Nos. 31 to 33) The following pie chart gives the percentage of employees working in different departments of an organization. Total number of employees is 2500. Pie chart: HR 16%, Accounts 8%, Administration 12%, Printing 6%, Logistics 11%, Operations 18%, IT 14%, Marketing 15%. The following table gives the ratio of male and female employees in different departments: Department -- Male : Female ratio numbers -- Administration 7:5, Accounts 2:3, HR 5:3, Marketing 7:8, IT 3:4, Operations 5:4, Logistics 6:5, Printing 2:1. Q: How many female employees are there in HR Department?

Refer to the table given below and answer the questions. (Q. Nos. 34 to 37) The following table gives some incomplete information on the marks obtained by four persons Amit, Binit, Charu and Dilip in four different subjects. Person -- Physics, Chemistry, Maths, English, Total: Amit: 80, 70, --, 80, --. Binit: 60, --, 60, --, --. Charu: --, --, 60, --, 220. Dilip: 90, --, 70, 60, --. Additional information: Amit's average marks were 72.5 in all the four subjects. The average marks in Physics for all four persons were 67.5. Binit's average marks for all four subjects were 1.5 times Charu's marks in Physics. Binit and Dilip scored the same marks in English. The average English marks were the same as the average Physics marks. The total marks in Chemistry were 10 less than the total marks in Physics for all four persons. Q: Who scored the lowest total?

Refer to the table given below and answer the questions. (Q. Nos. 34 to 37) The following table gives some incomplete information on the marks obtained by four persons Amit, Binit, Charu and Dilip in four different subjects. Person -- Physics, Chemistry, Maths, English, Total: Amit: 80, 70, --, 80, --. Binit: 60, --, 60, --, --. Charu: --, --, 60, --, 220. Dilip: 90, --, 70, 60, --. Additional information: Amit's average marks were 72.5 in all the four subjects. The average marks in Physics for all four persons were 67.5. Binit's average marks for all four subjects were 1.5 times Charu's marks in Physics. Binit and Dilip scored the same marks in English. The average English marks were the same as the average Physics marks. The total marks in Chemistry were 10 less than the total marks in Physics for all four persons. Q: The average marks for all four persons (for all the four subjects) are (approx.):

Refer to the table given below and answer the questions. (Q. Nos. 34 to 37) The following table gives some incomplete information on the marks obtained by four persons Amit, Binit, Charu and Dilip in four different subjects. Person -- Physics, Chemistry, Maths, English, Total: Amit: 80, 70, --, 80, --. Binit: 60, --, 60, --, --. Charu: --, --, 60, --, 220. Dilip: 90, --, 70, 60, --. Additional information: Amit's average marks were 72.5 in all the four subjects. The average marks in Physics for all four persons were 67.5. Binit's average marks for all four subjects were 1.5 times Charu's marks in Physics. Binit and Dilip scored the same marks in English. The average English marks were the same as the average Physics marks. The total marks in Chemistry were 10 less than the total marks in Physics for all four persons. Q: Who is the highest scorer in Chemistry?

Refer to the table given below and answer the questions. (Q. Nos. 34 to 37) The following table gives some incomplete information on the marks obtained by four persons Amit, Binit, Charu and Dilip in four different subjects. Person -- Physics, Chemistry, Maths, English, Total: Amit: 80, 70, --, 80, --. Binit: 60, --, 60, --, --. Charu: --, --, 60, --, 220. Dilip: 90, --, 70, 60, --. Additional information: Amit's average marks were 72.5 in all the four subjects. The average marks in Physics for all four persons were 67.5. Binit's average marks for all four subjects were 1.5 times Charu's marks in Physics. Binit and Dilip scored the same marks in English. The average English marks were the same as the average Physics marks. The total marks in Chemistry were 10 less than the total marks in Physics for all four persons. Q: Who is the lowest scorer in Physics?

The greatest number that divides 148, 246, 263 leaving remainders of 4, 6, 11 respectively, is:

If HCF and LCM of two numbers is 16 and 240 respectively and one of the number is 48, then the other number is:

Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 kms. Their speeds are 4, 5½ and 8 kms per hour respectively. When will they meet at the starting point?

A man spends 2/5 of his salary on food, 3/10 of his salary on house rent and 1/8 of the salary on clothes. He still has Rs. 1,400 left with him. His salary is:

Oil is now being sold at Rs. 27 per kg. During last month its cost was Rs. 24 per kg. How much % a family reduces its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed.

A discount of 16% on the marked price of a book enables a man to buy a pen which costs Rs. 80. The amount he paid for the book is:

What sum of money lent out at compound interest will amount to Rs. 968 in 2 years at 10% p.a., interest being charged annually?

A train is scheduled to cover the distance between two stations 46 kg apart in one hour. If it travels 25 km at a speed of 40 km/h, the speed for the remaining journey to complete it in schedule time is:

Five litres of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk costing Rs. 3 per litre. If by selling the mixture at the same price as before, a profit of 20% is made. What is the amount of pure milk in the mixture?

Kamal can row a certain distance downstream in 12 h and can return the same distance in 18 h. If the stream flows at the rate of 6 km/h, then the speed of Kamal in still water is:

The ratio of alcohol and water in a mixture of 44 L is 6 : 5. How much water should be added to the mixture to make the ratio of alcohol and water 2 : 3?

The average age of all the students in a class is 20 years. The average age of boys is 25 years while the average age of girls is 15 years. If the number of girls in the class is 10, then the number of boys in the class is: