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200 MCQs · GS + GS-II
Who was the author of the book ‘Gulamgiri”?
In which year ‘The Indian Universities Act’ was passed?
In which Governor General’s tenure, the Brishers conquered ‘Sindh’?
Shifting cultivation in Jharkhand State is known as:
Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
Which of the following glaciers is located in Karakoram ranges of Himalayan region?
Which leader was not the member of Constitutional Draft Committee?
Which of the following officers can be removed from his office by the Governor?
By which time Governor has to return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislative Assembly for re-consideration?
The sustainable Development Goal “Good Health and Well being’ has shown improvement in India due to:
‘National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture’ has been launched to:
The government has released a new four-color classification scheme for industries based on their pollution potential. Which is not correct in this regard?
What is the minimum calorie requirement in rural areas for measuring poverty?
The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country is related to:
According to FRBM Act, India’s fiscal deficit should not exceed:
Which of the following statement is not correct?
Which of the following statement is correct?
Which of the following statement is not correct?
Which of the following statement is correct?
What was the name of chariot of Lord Jagannath during recent Rath Yatra?
What is true about Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) card scheme?
Which foreign country’s contingent took part in Republic Day Parade, 2021?
Which is the latest country with whom India has established 2+2 dialogue recently?
Who is appointed as new Prime Minister of Italy in February 2021?
Which of these countries became members of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) in 2017? 1. India 2. Afghanistan 3. Turkey 4. Pakistan
Arrange the following Gandhi Peace Prize award winner personalities / institutions in chronological order on the basis of the year awards were conferred on them: 1. Yohel Sasakawa 2. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman 3. Ekal Abhiyan Trust 4. Qaboos bin Said Al Said
Statement 1: There was a provision in the Charter Act of 1833 to abolish slavery. Statement 2: In 1855, the British merged the Riyasat of Awadh with their kingdom, accusing them of misrule.
Statement 1: Young Bengal Movement was started by Sisir Kumar Ghosh. Statement 2: Prarthna Samaj was established in Bombay in 1865.
Statement 1: Container Corporation of India Limited is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. Statement 2: Dedicated Goods Transport Corridor Corporation Limited is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways.
Statement 1: Quepem and Canacona are chief bauxite deposits areas in Goa. Statement 2: Most of the bauxite deposits in India are associated with laterites and occur generally as sheets.
Statement 1: Mahatma Gandhi gave slogan of ‘Do or Die’ during Quit India Movement. Statement 2: Subhash Chandra Bose established Forward Bloc Party in 1939.
Statement 1: In 1942, S.N. Tagore established Indian Revolutionary Communist Party. Statement 2: Dr.B.R. Ambedkar moved ‘Objective Resolution’ in Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 1946.
Statement 1: Revenue Deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. Statement 2: Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between Revenue Deficit and Grants for Creation of Capital Assets.
Statement 1: The amount of usable energy remains constant as it is passed from one trophic level to another. Statement 2: The energy within an ecosystem is constant and never changes.
Statement 1: Ruhar Valley of Germany is the world’s greatest mining and industrial regions. Statement 2: Bostan is an important ship building centre in USA.
Statement 1: Malacca Strait is a shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean. Statement 2: Irrawaddy River system is related to Indonesia.
Arrange the following events in chronological order: 1. Death of C.R. Das 2. Simon Commission appointed 3. Death of revolutionary Jatin Das 4. Nehru Report
Arrange these later Mughal Badshahs chronologically: 1. Jahandar Shah 2. Farrukhsiyar 3. Ahmed Shah 4. Alamgir II
Arrange the following rivers from East to West direction: 1. Kosi river 2. Teesta river 3. Gandak river 4. Sharda river
Arrange the following countries from North to South : 1. Norway 2. Denmark 3. Austria 4. Spain
Arrange the following from South to North : 1. Arctic Ocean 2. Gulf of Mexico 3. Hudson Bay 4. Baffin Bay
Put these agrarian movements in chronological order with the date of their start : 1. Bardoli Peasants Movement 2. Khera Peasants Movement 3. Champaran Satyagrah 4. Mopla Peasants Movement
Arrange the following steps in relation to self-help groups in correct sequence : 1. Lending, repayment and maintaining accounts and records. 2. Arranging regular meetings with groups. 3. Identifying the area and forming a group of women with common interest. 4. Deciding on the amount for contribution and pooling the money.
Arrange the following four Indo-US defence agreements in chronological order on the basis of year of signing of these pacts: 1. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Association (LEMOA) 2. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) 3. General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) 4. Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA)
1. In 1865, High Courts were established at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay. 2. In 1791, Jonathan Duncan, started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi. 3. The first Telegraph line from Calcutta to Agra was opened in 1854. 4. The Pitt’s India Act was passed in 1785.
1. Haider Ali established a Modern arsenal in Dindigal in 1757 AD. 2. Haider Ali died in 1783 AD. 3. Tipu Sultan planted a ‘Tree of Liberty’ at Srirangapatnam. 4. Tipu Sultan was a member of a ‘Jacobin Club’.
1. Jute is used for making decorative items. 2. Sugarcane is a cereal crop. 3. Cotton requires clear sky during flowering stage. 4. Sugercane is a crop of temperate areas.
Which Indus Valley sites are in India? 1. Dholavira 2. Rakhigarhi 3. Mohen-jo-Daro 4. Ganweriwala
1. Bedouins are the wandering tribes of Central Asia. 2. Croats are inhabitants of Croatia. 3. Eskimos live in Philippines. 4. People of New Zealand are known as Kiwis.
1. Miami Beach is a centre for many world beauty contests. 2. Glasgow is known for diamond mining. 3. Honolulu is famous for textile industry. 4. Istanbul is formerly known as Constantinople.
1. Part IX has been created after the passing of 73rd constitutional amendment. 2. Part IXA has been created with the passing of 74th constitutional amendment. 3. Part X has been created with the approval of 73rd constitutional amendment. 4. Part XA has been created with the approval of 74th constitutional amendment.
1. Justice Deepak Misra has been instrumental in the creation of Public Interest Litigation (PIL). 2. Justice Ranjan Gogoi joined Rajya Sabha after retirement from Supreme Court. 3. Justice P.N. Bhagwati introduced PIL. 4. Justice V.K. Krishna Iyer resigned before time.
1. ‘Ease of Living Index’ is released by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. 2. This index was firstly released in August, 2019. 3. Citizen Participation survey is an important part of the Index assessment. 4. It captures quality of life based on Data collected on 6 parameters.
1. ‘Jaivik Kheti Portal’ is an initiative of Minstry of Agriculture, Department of Agriculture alongwith the Ministry of Science Technolgy and Climate change. 2. This portal is not an E-commerce platform. 3. This portal does not promote organic farming. 4. This portal provides price discovery mechanisms to help farmers.
1. Blood plasma contains significant amounts of antibodies to fight corona virus. 2. Blood plasma is a pale-yellow in colour. 3. Blood plasma contains hemoglobin. 4. Any person can donate blood plasma to any other person affected by corona virus.
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Delhi Darbar B. Second Anglo Afghan war C. Kuka Movement started D. Queen Victoria declared ‘Kaiser-i-Hind’ List II: 1. 1872 2. 1876 3. 1878 4. 1877
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Tropical savannah B. Hot desert C. Polar type D. Monsoon with dry summer List II: 1. Coromandel coast of Tamilnadu 2. Most of the peninsular plateaus 3. Western Rajasthan 4. Jammu and Kashmir
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. First amendment B. Forty fourth amendment C. Eighty sixth amendment D. One hundred and third amendment List II: 1. Right to Education 2. Reservation for EWS 3. Right to Property 4. Nineth Schedule
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Article 15 (4) and 16 (4) B. Article 15 (6) and 16 (6) C. Article 243 D D. Article 330 List II: 1. Lok Sabha Seats 2. Panchayati Raj Institutions 3. Other Backward Classes (OBCs) 4. Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Net Tax Revenue B. Non-Tax Revenue C. Gross Tax Revenue D. Non-debt capital Receipts List II: 1. 6% 2. 22.3% 3. 8.4% 4. – 2.5%
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Litmus B. Nitrogen C. Calcium Hydroxyapatite D. Hydrogen Peroxide List II: 1. Tooth enamel 2. Anti microbial agent 3. Chips sealed in packet 4. Lichen
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. S.I. unit of power of a lens B. S.I. unit of electric potential difference C. Potential difference between two points D. S.I. unit of electric charge List II: 1. V 2. Coulomb 3. Diopter 4. W/Q
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Peristaltic movement B. Gastric glands C. Amylase D. Bile juice List II: 1. Saliva 2. Alimentary canal 3. Inner lining of stomach 4. Liver
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Gregor Mendel B. Harold C. Urey C. Charles Darwin D. Dmitri-I-Mendeleev List II: 1. Role of earthworms in soil fertility 2. University of Vienna 3. Origin of organic molecules on earth 4. Periodic table
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. B.C.Roy Trophy B. Ezra Cup C. Murugappa Gold Cup D. Nehru Trophy List II: 1. Polo 2. Boat Race 3. Football 4. Hockey
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Jennifer Doudna B. Robert B. Wilson C. Andrea M. Ghez D. Louise Gluck List II: 1. Economics 2. Physics 3. Literature 4. Chemistry
According to 2019-20 (budget estimates) what percentage of total expenditure is to be spent on salary, pension, interst payments and subsidies in Himachal Pradesh?
Mian Jawahar Singh, Sh.Badri Nath and Sh.Jwala Singh were the leaders of which of the following revolutionary movement of H.P.?
The first ‘one day international’ cricket match was played beteen which the following teams in HPCA Stadium Dharamshala?
‘No scenery in my opinion presents such sublime and delightful contrasts’. This quote by G.C. Barnes is for which of the following district?
Match the following combinations and select the correct answer. 1. Koti state : Founded by descendants of Guler state. 2. Balsan state : An offshoot of ancient Sirmaur. 3. Dhami state : Founded by the descendants of Prithviraj Chauhan. 4. Darkoti state : Founder ruler was Durga Singh a scion of the house of Jaipur(Marwar).
‘Mundro’ and ‘Garu’ are known as the children of hypergamous union of which of the following tribe?
‘Kunchen’ form of marriage in Sikkim is exactly similar to which of the following marriage system of H.P.?
The Jad tribe of Himachal Pradesh are followers of which of the following religion?
1. Sultan Mahmud Ghaznavi attacked Nagarkot fort in 1009 A.D. 2. In 1339, the Nagarkot expedition was led personally by Sultan Muhammad Tugluq. 3. In 1348 A.D., Raja Purab Chand recovered Kangra fort. 4. After Amir Timur’s return, Hari Chand ascended the throne of Kangra in 1405 A.D.
1. Raja Sansar Chand of Kangra died in 1825 A.D. 2. Raja Sansar Chand of Kangra invaded the Bilaspur state in 1796. 3. In 1844, Sikh General Zorawar Singh annexed the territories of Lahaul Spiti to Sikh State. 4. On 24 August, 1809 Maharaja Ranjit Singh took over possession of Kangra fort.
Which of the following are not true about folk dances, fair and festivals of H.P.? 1. ‘Kharait’ and ‘Ujagjama’ are the famous sword dances. 2. ‘Bhunda’, ‘Shant’ and ‘Bhoj’ are given the importance of ‘Kumbha’ by the hill people. 3. ‘Minjar’ fair starts on the second Sunday of sawan. 4. ‘Chhamb’ is the sacred masked dance performed only by Lamas.
Which of the following statements is / are not true? 1. Parangla pass lies between Kinnaur and Lahaul. 2. Manirang is the highest peak of Chamba. 3. Kalichho is the famous lake of Chamba district. 4. Chobia pass lies between Ladakh and Lahaul.
Select the true statements from the following: 1. Chamba, Kullu and Kinnaur are considered the most susceptible of landslide threat. 2. Una, Bilaspur, Sirmaur, Shimla and Solan are considered as low vulnerable of disaster threats. 3. Hum valley of Una district has hardly any natural drinking water source. 4. As per the study of central water board, Kala Amb valley in Sirmaur district has exploited the least underground water.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not correct? 1. The per capita income at current prices as per first revised estimates for the year 2019-20 witnessed an increase of 6.2 percent. 2. As per the revised estimates, the contraction in the economy for 2020-21 was expected to be around -7.9 percent as on December 2020. 3. The Economic growth in the state (H.P.) is still governed by agriculture activities. 4. The smaller projects in the hydro-electric power sector up to 2MW have been reserved for the investors from Himachal Pradesh only.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not correct about the Social Welfare programs of Government of Himachal Pradesh? 1. e-Udyan portal: Where farmers can avail Horticulture farming service benefits while sitting in their home. 2. Vishesh Mahila Utthan Yojna: Scheme formulated for rehabilitation of physically and sexually abused women through technical and vocational training. 3. Medha Protsahan Yojna: Rupees one lakh is provided to the meritorious students to provide guidance at coaching centers. 4. Mukhya Mantri Ek Bigha Scheme: State Government will empower rural women by helping them become self-sufficient and get employment under MGNREGS.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct? 1. Himachal Pradesh is the first state to pioneer the Districts Good Governance Index (DGGI) for measuring Governance Performance on seven themes. 2. The idea of DGGI was obtained from the Public Affairs Centre, Bangaluru when Himachal Pradesh was ranked 1st among 12 small states on the Public Affair Index. 3. Government of Himachal Pradesh has decided that DGGI will be the regular exercise of the Department of Economic and Statistics. 4. Hamirpur district was awarded first Prize on the basis of DGGI-2019.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not correct about Banking System in Himachal Pradesh? 1. As per census 2011, the average population per branch in the state comes to 3129 people. 2. The Himachal Pradesh State Cooperative Bank Ltd. has 217 branches in Himachal Pradesh. 3. Kangra district has the highest number of 423 bank branches. 4. The State Bank of India has been given the responsibility of Lead Bank of two districts Chamba and Lahaul-Spiti.
NABARD consultancy services (NABCONS) was not involved in which of the following assignments during the financial year 2020-21? 1. Comprehensive study of Kisan Credit Card scheme and Handloom sector. 2. Third party survey of Toilets constructed by SJVN. 3. Third party inspection of Border Area Development Program. 4. NABCONS was now Central Technical Support Agency for Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushal Vikas Yojana (DDU-GKY) in the state.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct? 1. As per 2011 census, Himachal Pradesh is only state in the country where 89.96 % population lives in rural areas. 2. Agriculture / Horticulture provide direct employment to about 70 percent of total workers of the state. 3. About 15.72 percent of the total GSDP comes from Agriculture and its allied sectors. 4. Out of total geographical area of the state, the area of operational holdings is about 29.44 lakh hectares.
Select the incorrect sentence(s) from the following: 1. The state government has taken an initiative towards good governance by setting up the CM Dashboard. 2. Bharat Net is an initiative of Government of India to provide broadband services to the Municipalities. 3. HIMSWAN was set up in the state under state e-governance Plan (SeGP) in 2010. 4. Government of Himachal Pradesh has set up a ‘State Data Centre’ at Delhi in 2020.
Which of the following is / are correct about the Himachal Pradesh Town & Country Planning Act-1977? 1. It has been enforced in 55 Planning areas. 2. Planning area constitutes to 1.60 % of the total geographical area of the state. 3. The above act is enforced in 35 special areas of Himachal Pradesh. 4. 2.06% area of the total geographical area of the state comes under special area.
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Herman Goetz B. W.G. Archer C. M.S. Randhawa D. Joseph Charles French List II: 1. Himalyan Art 2. The Early Wooden Temples of Chamba 3. Kangra Valley Painting 4. Kangra Painting
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Bandli sanctuary B. Daranghati sanctuary C. Gamgul Siahbehi sanctuary D. Lippa-Asrang sanctuary List II: 1. Mandi 2. Upper catchment areas of Tirthan, Sainj and Jiva rivers 3. Shimla 4. Chamba 5. Kinnaur
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer. List I: A. Zungtee B. A scene of savage grandeur C. Mone D. Chhetpa List II: 1. Tidong 2. The historical village 3. A fine awarded by ‘Biradari Panchayat’ 4. Birth customs 5. Satluj
Read the passage carefully: Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramtic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a varicty of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid ‘green revolution’ areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities. Q: Desertification leads to decline in ______________.
Read the passage carefully: Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramtic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a varicty of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid ‘green revolution’ areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities. Q: Where are the level of erosion highest?
Read the passage carefully: Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramtic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a varicty of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid ‘green revolution’ areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities. Q: Deforestation adversely affects the ______________.
Read the passage carefully: Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramtic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a varicty of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid ‘green revolution’ areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities. Q: Desertifiction often occurs in ______________.
Read the passage carefully: Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramtic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a varicty of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid ‘green revolution’ areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities. Q: Accelerated erosion chiefly occurs in ______________.
Read the passage carefully: We Nigerians, who have been struggling for our rights and have finally achieved them, are correct to forget that a right by itself is incomplete and, in fact, cannot last long if the obligations which accompany that right are absent. We still think too much in terms of rights and privileges and too little in terms of obligations. That weakens a nation and we then become merely decriers and grumble without anything positive to contribute. That applies to the nation as a whole but much more so to the press. The press fought for its own freedom from governmental interference in the old days. Much that appears because of that freedom seems to be exceptionally dangerous. The freedom of the press is an indispensable feature of the democratic process. Undoubtedly, even if the government dislikes the liberties taken by the press and considers them dangerous, it is wrong to obstruct the freedom of press. By imposing restrictions you do not change anything, you merely suppress the public manifestation of certain things, thereby causing the idea and thought underlying them to spread further. Q: According to the writer, rights cannot last long
Read the passage carefully: We Nigerians, who have been struggling for our rights and have finally achieved them, are correct to forget that a right by itself is incomplete and, in fact, cannot last long if the obligations which accompany that right are absent. We still think too much in terms of rights and privileges and too little in terms of obligations. That weakens a nation and we then become merely decriers and grumble without anything positive to contribute. That applies to the nation as a whole but much more so to the press. The press fought for its own freedom from governmental interference in the old days. Much that appears because of that freedom seems to be exceptionally dangerous. The freedom of the press is an indispensable feature of the democratic process. Undoubtedly, even if the government dislikes the liberties taken by the press and considers them dangerous, it is wrong to obstruct the freedom of press. By imposing restrictions you do not change anything, you merely suppress the public manifestation of certain things, thereby causing the idea and thought underlying them to spread further. Q: According to the writer, if we think excessively in terms of rights and miserably in terms of obligation
Read the passage carefully: We Nigerians, who have been struggling for our rights and have finally achieved them, are correct to forget that a right by itself is incomplete and, in fact, cannot last long if the obligations which accompany that right are absent. We still think too much in terms of rights and privileges and too little in terms of obligations. That weakens a nation and we then become merely decriers and grumble without anything positive to contribute. That applies to the nation as a whole but much more so to the press. The press fought for its own freedom from governmental interference in the old days. Much that appears because of that freedom seems to be exceptionally dangerous. The freedom of the press is an indispensable feature of the democratic process. Undoubtedly, even if the government dislikes the liberties taken by the press and considers them dangerous, it is wrong to obstruct the freedom of press. By imposing restrictions you do not change anything, you merely suppress the public manifestation of certain things, thereby causing the idea and thought underlying them to spread further. Q: The writer believes that
Read the passage carefully: We Nigerians, who have been struggling for our rights and have finally achieved them, are correct to forget that a right by itself is incomplete and, in fact, cannot last long if the obligations which accompany that right are absent. We still think too much in terms of rights and privileges and too little in terms of obligations. That weakens a nation and we then become merely decriers and grumble without anything positive to contribute. That applies to the nation as a whole but much more so to the press. The press fought for its own freedom from governmental interference in the old days. Much that appears because of that freedom seems to be exceptionally dangerous. The freedom of the press is an indispensable feature of the democratic process. Undoubtedly, even if the government dislikes the liberties taken by the press and considers them dangerous, it is wrong to obstruct the freedom of press. By imposing restrictions you do not change anything, you merely suppress the public manifestation of certain things, thereby causing the idea and thought underlying them to spread further. Q: According to the writer, by imposing constraints
Fill in the blank with the correct option. The Government of India is concerned with the _________ digital literacy prevalent in India.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. Scarcely did Mohan step on the ladder _________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. Mendicant is _________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. Jaya is not well acquainted _________ me.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. Gesticulate is _________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. I don’t know _________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. Aisha’s work is superior _________ her brother’s, although he is senior _________ her at college.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. _________ his Uncle he has six other male relations.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. I, John , _________ an honest man.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. The aircrew _________ not come yet.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. Indian goods are _________ Chinese goods.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. No sooner had the fight begun _________ he ran away.
Go through the chart given below and solve the questions 17-21 based on it. Following bar chart presents supply as a percentage of demand of a product and demand as a percentage of capacity of the industry to produce the same product. All the values are multiples of 5. Bar chart data -- Year: Supply as % of demand, Demand as % of capacity: 2003: 65, 80 2004: 70, 90 2005: 60, 80 2006: 90, 65 Q: If product supply for the year 2005 is 6000 kg. then the total capacity of the product is (in kg):
Go through the chart given below and solve the questions 17-21 based on it. Following bar chart presents supply as a percentage of demand of a product and demand as a percentage of capacity of the industry to produce the same product. All the values are multiples of 5. Bar chart data -- Year: Supply as % of demand, Demand as % of capacity: 2003: 65, 80 2004: 70, 90 2005: 60, 80 2006: 90, 65 Q: If capacity of the industry to produce the product remains constant at 10000 kg. then the approximate average supply (in kg) for the given period is:
Go through the chart given below and solve the questions 17-21 based on it. Following bar chart presents supply as a percentage of demand of a product and demand as a percentage of capacity of the industry to produce the same product. All the values are multiples of 5. Bar chart data -- Year: Supply as % of demand, Demand as % of capacity: 2003: 65, 80 2004: 70, 90 2005: 60, 80 2006: 90, 65 Q: If the product supply remains unchanged for the given period, then the trend of industry capacity signify:
Go through the chart given below and solve the questions 17-21 based on it. Following bar chart presents supply as a percentage of demand of a product and demand as a percentage of capacity of the industry to produce the same product. All the values are multiples of 5. Bar chart data -- Year: Supply as % of demand, Demand as % of capacity: 2003: 65, 80 2004: 70, 90 2005: 60, 80 2006: 90, 65 Q: The year that shows the highest increase in the difference between the industry capacity and supply over the previous year, if demand for the product is 10000 kg for each of the given year is:
Go through the chart given below and solve the questions 17-21 based on it. Following bar chart presents supply as a percentage of demand of a product and demand as a percentage of capacity of the industry to produce the same product. All the values are multiples of 5. Bar chart data -- Year: Supply as % of demand, Demand as % of capacity: 2003: 65, 80 2004: 70, 90 2005: 60, 80 2006: 90, 65 Q: If supply is constant for each of the years given above, then the capacity is highest for the year:
Table given below gives the Estimated and Actual Sales Revenue and Cost Figures for three years (all figures in the same currency unit). Sales Revenue -- Estimated: 2007=1281, 2008=1452, 2009=1228; Actual: 2007=1326, 2008=1286, 2009=1452. Cost -- Estimated: 2007=986, 2008=1051, 2009=1024; Actual: 2007=988, 2008=1076, 2009=1068. Estimated Profit = Estimated Revenue – Estimated Cost. Actual Profit = Actual Revenue – Actual Cost. Q: For how many years, actual profit is more than estimated profit?
Table given below gives the Estimated and Actual Sales Revenue and Cost Figures for three years (all figures in the same currency unit). Sales Revenue -- Estimated: 2007=1281, 2008=1452, 2009=1228; Actual: 2007=1326, 2008=1286, 2009=1452. Cost -- Estimated: 2007=986, 2008=1051, 2009=1024; Actual: 2007=988, 2008=1076, 2009=1068. Estimated Profit = Estimated Revenue – Estimated Cost. Actual Profit = Actual Revenue – Actual Cost. Q: A measure of forecasting done by marketing team is the ratio of Estimated Sales to Actual Sales. Lower is this value, better is the forecasting. Which years forecasting is the best?
Table given below gives the Estimated and Actual Sales Revenue and Cost Figures for three years (all figures in the same currency unit). Sales Revenue -- Estimated: 2007=1281, 2008=1452, 2009=1228; Actual: 2007=1326, 2008=1286, 2009=1452. Cost -- Estimated: 2007=986, 2008=1051, 2009=1024; Actual: 2007=988, 2008=1076, 2009=1068. Estimated Profit = Estimated Revenue – Estimated Cost. Actual Profit = Actual Revenue – Actual Cost. Q: Company plans to use a different mechanism for forecasting of its maximum possible profit = Max (Estimate, Actual (Sales Revenue)) – Min (Estimate, Actual (Cost)). What is the maximum possible profit derived this way?
Read the information given below and solve the questions 25-29 based on it. Following table provides the data regarding the people who are seeking asylum in different countries. Asylum seekers: Share of top 15 receiving countries in total number of applications. All the data given in the table below are in percentages. For example, in 2007, USA received 15% applications out of total asylum seekers applications. Table (Country: 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011): USA: 15, 13, 13, 15, 17 France: 9, 9, 11, 13, 12 Germany: 6, 6, 7, 11, 10 Italy: 4, 8, 5, 3, 8 Sweden: 11, 6, 6, 9, 7 Belgium: 3, 3, 5, 6, 6 UK: 8, 8, 8, 6, 6 Canada: 8, 10, 9, 6, 6 Switzerland: 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 Turkey: 2, 3, 2, 3, 4 Austria: 4, 3, 4, 3, 3 Netherlands: 2, 4, 4, 4, 3 Australia: 1, 1, 2, 3, 3 Greece: 8, 5, 4, 3, 2 Norway: 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 Q: USA received 72800 applications in the year 2010. Then the total number of asylum seekers who didn’t apply to any to the countries mentioned in the table (approximately) are:
Read the information given below and solve the questions 25-29 based on it. Following table provides the data regarding the people who are seeking asylum in different countries. Asylum seekers: Share of top 15 receiving countries in total number of applications. All the data given in the table below are in percentages. For example, in 2007, USA received 15% applications out of total asylum seekers applications. Table (Country: 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011): USA: 15, 13, 13, 15, 17 France: 9, 9, 11, 13, 12 Germany: 6, 6, 7, 11, 10 Italy: 4, 8, 5, 3, 8 Sweden: 11, 6, 6, 9, 7 Belgium: 3, 3, 5, 6, 6 UK: 8, 8, 8, 6, 6 Canada: 8, 10, 9, 6, 6 Switzerland: 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 Turkey: 2, 3, 2, 3, 4 Austria: 4, 3, 4, 3, 3 Netherlands: 2, 4, 4, 4, 3 Australia: 1, 1, 2, 3, 3 Greece: 8, 5, 4, 3, 2 Norway: 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 Q: The sum of percentage of applications received by the top three rank countries is more than the sum of percentage of applications received by the remaining countries in the table, in number of years:
Read the information given below and solve the questions 25-29 based on it. Following table provides the data regarding the people who are seeking asylum in different countries. Asylum seekers: Share of top 15 receiving countries in total number of applications. All the data given in the table below are in percentages. For example, in 2007, USA received 15% applications out of total asylum seekers applications. Table (Country: 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011): USA: 15, 13, 13, 15, 17 France: 9, 9, 11, 13, 12 Germany: 6, 6, 7, 11, 10 Italy: 4, 8, 5, 3, 8 Sweden: 11, 6, 6, 9, 7 Belgium: 3, 3, 5, 6, 6 UK: 8, 8, 8, 6, 6 Canada: 8, 10, 9, 6, 6 Switzerland: 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 Turkey: 2, 3, 2, 3, 4 Austria: 4, 3, 4, 3, 3 Netherlands: 2, 4, 4, 4, 3 Australia: 1, 1, 2, 3, 3 Greece: 8, 5, 4, 3, 2 Norway: 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 Q: The sum of ranks of Germany across the given duration is:
Read the information given below and solve the questions 25-29 based on it. Following table provides the data regarding the people who are seeking asylum in different countries. Asylum seekers: Share of top 15 receiving countries in total number of applications. All the data given in the table below are in percentages. For example, in 2007, USA received 15% applications out of total asylum seekers applications. Table (Country: 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011): USA: 15, 13, 13, 15, 17 France: 9, 9, 11, 13, 12 Germany: 6, 6, 7, 11, 10 Italy: 4, 8, 5, 3, 8 Sweden: 11, 6, 6, 9, 7 Belgium: 3, 3, 5, 6, 6 UK: 8, 8, 8, 6, 6 Canada: 8, 10, 9, 6, 6 Switzerland: 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 Turkey: 2, 3, 2, 3, 4 Austria: 4, 3, 4, 3, 3 Netherlands: 2, 4, 4, 4, 3 Australia: 1, 1, 2, 3, 3 Greece: 8, 5, 4, 3, 2 Norway: 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 Q: Between 2007 and 2011, the United States of America received the largest number of asylum seekers = 278800 applications. Then the total number of asylum seekers applications received by France during the same period (approximately) is:
Read the information given below and solve the questions 25-29 based on it. Following table provides the data regarding the people who are seeking asylum in different countries. Asylum seekers: Share of top 15 receiving countries in total number of applications. All the data given in the table below are in percentages. For example, in 2007, USA received 15% applications out of total asylum seekers applications. Table (Country: 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011): USA: 15, 13, 13, 15, 17 France: 9, 9, 11, 13, 12 Germany: 6, 6, 7, 11, 10 Italy: 4, 8, 5, 3, 8 Sweden: 11, 6, 6, 9, 7 Belgium: 3, 3, 5, 6, 6 UK: 8, 8, 8, 6, 6 Canada: 8, 10, 9, 6, 6 Switzerland: 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 Turkey: 2, 3, 2, 3, 4 Austria: 4, 3, 4, 3, 3 Netherlands: 2, 4, 4, 4, 3 Australia: 1, 1, 2, 3, 3 Greece: 8, 5, 4, 3, 2 Norway: 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 Q: The country which has seen the minimum variation in 2011 over 2007 in the ranking as the destination for the asylum seekers is:
Go through the data set given below and solve the questions 30-32 based on it. Following pie chart provide the percentage compositions of students from a state enrolled in different faculty in 2001 and 2002 whereas bar chart provides total number of students between the years 2001-2004. Pie chart 2001 (% of that year's total students): Pharmacy 7%, Agriculture 8%, Science 16%, Commerce 24%, Engineering 20%, Arts 13%, Medicine 12%. Pie chart 2002 (% of that year's total students): Pharmacy 9%, Agriculture 5%, Science 22%, Commerce 24%, Engineering 19%, Arts 11%, Medicine 10%. Bar chart -- total number of students (approximate values read off the unlabelled bar chart against its gridlines): 2001=35000, 2002=40000, 2003=43000, 2004=48000. Q: In which faculty there was decrease in the number of students from 2001 to 2002?
Go through the data set given below and solve the questions 30-32 based on it. Following pie chart provide the percentage compositions of students from a state enrolled in different faculty in 2001 and 2002 whereas bar chart provides total number of students between the years 2001-2004. Pie chart 2001 (% of that year's total students): Pharmacy 7%, Agriculture 8%, Science 16%, Commerce 24%, Engineering 20%, Arts 13%, Medicine 12%. Pie chart 2002 (% of that year's total students): Pharmacy 9%, Agriculture 5%, Science 22%, Commerce 24%, Engineering 19%, Arts 11%, Medicine 10%. Bar chart -- total number of students (approximate values read off the unlabelled bar chart against its gridlines): 2001=35000, 2002=40000, 2003=43000, 2004=48000. Q: What is the ratio between the number of students studying pharmacy in the years 2001 and 2002 respectively?
Go through the data set given below and solve the questions 30-32 based on it. Following pie chart provide the percentage compositions of students from a state enrolled in different faculty in 2001 and 2002 whereas bar chart provides total number of students between the years 2001-2004. Pie chart 2001 (% of that year's total students): Pharmacy 7%, Agriculture 8%, Science 16%, Commerce 24%, Engineering 20%, Arts 13%, Medicine 12%. Pie chart 2002 (% of that year's total students): Pharmacy 9%, Agriculture 5%, Science 22%, Commerce 24%, Engineering 19%, Arts 11%, Medicine 10%. Bar chart -- total number of students (approximate values read off the unlabelled bar chart against its gridlines): 2001=35000, 2002=40000, 2003=43000, 2004=48000. Q: What was the approximate percentage increase in the number of students of Engineering from the year 2001 to 2002?
If x and y are positive integers such that (3x + 7y) is a multiple of 11, then the expression divisible by 11 is:
The Highest Comon Factor (HCF) of two numbers is 11 and their Least Common Factor (LCM) is 693. If one of the numbers is 77, then the other number is:
The product of the Least Common Factor (LCM) and Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two numbers is 24. The difference of two numbers is 2. Then the numbers are:
In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, 1/2 of the women are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men have children, then the part of workers without children are:
In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads, then the number of keepers are:
The number of students in each section of a school is 24. After admitting new students, three new sections were started. Now, the total number of sections is 16 and there are 21 students in each section. The number of new students admitted is:
A trader marked the price of his commodity so as to include a profit of 25%. He allowed discount of 16% on the marked price. His actual profit was:
The least square number which is exactly divisible by 10, 12, 15 and 18, is:
A can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each day and B can do it in 6 days of 7 hours each day. then how many days they will take to do it, working together 8 hours a day:
A train running at 54 kmph takes 20 seconds to pass a platform. Next it takes 12 seconds to pass a man walking at 6 kmph in the same direction in which the train is going. Then the length of the train and the length of the platform is:
A man can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream in 13 hours. Also, he can row 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. Then the speed of the man in still water and the speed of the current is:
A sum of money amounts to Rs.6690 after 3 years and to Rs.10035 after 6 years on compound interest. Then the sum of money is:
If a = b^x, b = c^y and c = a^z, then the value of xyz is equal to :
The cross-section of a canal is trapezium in shape. The canal is 12 m wide at the top and 8 m wide at the bottom. If the area of the cross-section is 840 sq. m, the depth of the canal is:
The radius of the base and height of a cone are 3 cm and 5 cm respectively whereas the radius of the base and height of a cylinder are 2 cm and 4 cm respectively. The ratio of the volume of cone to that of the cylinder is:
A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock looses 16 minutes in 24 hours. Then the true time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day will be:
Study the following information to answer the questions 49-53. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. - T is sitting fourth to the left of V. - W is sitting to the immediate left of T. - Q is sitting third to the right of W. - R is not an immediate neighbor of Q. - S is not an immediate neighbor of V. - V does not sit at an extreme end of the line. Q: Who amongst the following are sitting at the extreme ends of the line?
Study the following information to answer the questions 49-53. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. - T is sitting fourth to the left of V. - W is sitting to the immediate left of T. - Q is sitting third to the right of W. - R is not an immediate neighbor of Q. - S is not an immediate neighbor of V. - V does not sit at an extreme end of the line. Q: Who amongst the following is sitting second to the right of S?
Study the following information to answer the questions 49-53. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. - T is sitting fourth to the left of V. - W is sitting to the immediate left of T. - Q is sitting third to the right of W. - R is not an immediate neighbor of Q. - S is not an immediate neighbor of V. - V does not sit at an extreme end of the line. Q: Who amongst the following is sitting exactly between T and Q?
Study the following information to answer the questions 49-53. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. - T is sitting fourth to the left of V. - W is sitting to the immediate left of T. - Q is sitting third to the right of W. - R is not an immediate neighbor of Q. - S is not an immediate neighbor of V. - V does not sit at an extreme end of the line. Q: Who among the following has as many people sitting to this right, as to his left?
Study the following information to answer the questions 49-53. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. - T is sitting fourth to the left of V. - W is sitting to the immediate left of T. - Q is sitting third to the right of W. - R is not an immediate neighbor of Q. - S is not an immediate neighbor of V. - V does not sit at an extreme end of the line. Q: Who amongst the following is sitting third to the left of V?
30 persons are sitting in a row. Find the number of persons sitting between 9th person from left and 16th person from right.
Ramesh’s father says to Ramesh, “My father has a daughter, whose son is Amit.” How is Amit related to Ramesh?
Nandani is the only daughter of Madan’s sister Sangita’s brother. How is Nandani related to Madan?
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions 57-61 given below. In an examination, six subjects were available for a candidate of which only three had to be offered under the following conditions. (i) One who offered A had to offer B also and vice-versa. (ii) One who offered A could not offer E. (iii) One who offered C or D could not offer F. The distribution of the candidates over the subjects was as follows. A – 70; B – 70; C – 90; D – 85; E – 70; F – 35; Q: How many combinations were permitted?
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions 57-61 given below. In an examination, six subjects were available for a candidate of which only three had to be offered under the following conditions. (i) One who offered A had to offer B also and vice-versa. (ii) One who offered A could not offer E. (iii) One who offered C or D could not offer F. The distribution of the candidates over the subjects was as follows. A – 70; B – 70; C – 90; D – 85; E – 70; F – 35; Q: How many candidates in all appeared for the examination?
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions 57-61 given below. In an examination, six subjects were available for a candidate of which only three had to be offered under the following conditions. (i) One who offered A had to offer B also and vice-versa. (ii) One who offered A could not offer E. (iii) One who offered C or D could not offer F. The distribution of the candidates over the subjects was as follows. A – 70; B – 70; C – 90; D – 85; E – 70; F – 35; Q: How many candidates offered the combination A + B + C?
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions 57-61 given below. In an examination, six subjects were available for a candidate of which only three had to be offered under the following conditions. (i) One who offered A had to offer B also and vice-versa. (ii) One who offered A could not offer E. (iii) One who offered C or D could not offer F. The distribution of the candidates over the subjects was as follows. A – 70; B – 70; C – 90; D – 85; E – 70; F – 35; Q: How many candidates combined C with D?
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions 57-61 given below. In an examination, six subjects were available for a candidate of which only three had to be offered under the following conditions. (i) One who offered A had to offer B also and vice-versa. (ii) One who offered A could not offer E. (iii) One who offered C or D could not offer F. The distribution of the candidates over the subjects was as follows. A – 70; B – 70; C – 90; D – 85; E – 70; F – 35; Q: How many candidates offered B with F?
Study the information below to answer these questions (62-64): L, M, N, O and P are five important cities of our country out of which, three are industrial cities, two are port cities, one is a hill station and three cities have a university each. Every hill city has a university but has no port. ‘O’ is not a port city. No port city has a university. ‘M’ is a port city. Two industrial cities have universities and ‘N’ and ‘O’ are not industrial. The industrial cities with universities don’t have ports. None of the industrial cities is a hill station. ‘O’ is a hill station and ‘P’ has a university. Q: Which city has industries as well as a port but does not have a university?
Study the information below to answer these questions (62-64): L, M, N, O and P are five important cities of our country out of which, three are industrial cities, two are port cities, one is a hill station and three cities have a university each. Every hill city has a university but has no port. ‘O’ is not a port city. No port city has a university. ‘M’ is a port city. Two industrial cities have universities and ‘N’ and ‘O’ are not industrial. The industrial cities with universities don’t have ports. None of the industrial cities is a hill station. ‘O’ is a hill station and ‘P’ has a university. Q: Which city has neither industries nor a university nor a hill station?
Study the information below to answer these questions (62-64): L, M, N, O and P are five important cities of our country out of which, three are industrial cities, two are port cities, one is a hill station and three cities have a university each. Every hill city has a university but has no port. ‘O’ is not a port city. No port city has a university. ‘M’ is a port city. Two industrial cities have universities and ‘N’ and ‘O’ are not industrial. The industrial cities with universities don’t have ports. None of the industrial cities is a hill station. ‘O’ is a hill station and ‘P’ has a university. Q: Which two cities have ports?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions (65-71) given below it. Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant should: (i) Be an Indian by nationality. (ii) Be in the age group of 21-50 years on 5th September, 1997. (iii) Be minimum Matriculate or recognized equivalent. (iv) Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application. (v) Have family income of not more than Rs.50,000 annually. (vi) Not have any dealership in any oil company. (vii) Have no close relatives as a dealer / distributor of any oil company. (viii) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations, owned or controlled by state government, but the case shall be referred to the Managing Director. (ix) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (vi) and (vii) may be waived. (x) If a person belongs to SC / ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman. On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided against each applicant, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken. Mark answer (A) if the applicant is selected; (B) if the candidate is not selected; (C) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director; and (D) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman. Applicant: Amandeep is an unemployed graduate who has been living in Delhi since 1987. He is a citizen of India and his date of birth is 2nd February, 1974. His father is the only earner in the family drawing Rs.800 per month.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions (65-71) given below it. Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant should: (i) Be an Indian by nationality. (ii) Be in the age group of 21-50 years on 5th September, 1997. (iii) Be minimum Matriculate or recognized equivalent. (iv) Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application. (v) Have family income of not more than Rs.50,000 annually. (vi) Not have any dealership in any oil company. (vii) Have no close relatives as a dealer / distributor of any oil company. (viii) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations, owned or controlled by state government, but the case shall be referred to the Managing Director. (ix) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (vi) and (vii) may be waived. (x) If a person belongs to SC / ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman. On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided against each applicant, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken. Mark answer (A) if the applicant is selected; (B) if the candidate is not selected; (C) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director; and (D) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman. Applicant: Kishan Gopal born on 22nd January, 1967 is an Indian by nationality. He is a matriculate having dealership in Tamsha Oil Company. His family income is Rs.21000 per annum and he is a resident of Delhi since 1978. He has no close relatives as dealer / distributor in any oil Company.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions (65-71) given below it. Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant should: (i) Be an Indian by nationality. (ii) Be in the age group of 21-50 years on 5th September, 1997. (iii) Be minimum Matriculate or recognized equivalent. (iv) Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application. (v) Have family income of not more than Rs.50,000 annually. (vi) Not have any dealership in any oil company. (vii) Have no close relatives as a dealer / distributor of any oil company. (viii) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations, owned or controlled by state government, but the case shall be referred to the Managing Director. (ix) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (vi) and (vii) may be waived. (x) If a person belongs to SC / ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman. On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided against each applicant, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken. Mark answer (A) if the applicant is selected; (B) if the candidate is not selected; (C) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director; and (D) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman. Applicant: Balvinder Singh working in the State Corporation is an Indian by nationality and is 23 years of age. He is a graduate and his family income is Rs.60000 per annum. He has been in Delhi for 7 years. He does not himself nor has any of his relatives working as distributor or dealer in any oil Company.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions (65-71) given below it. Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant should: (i) Be an Indian by nationality. (ii) Be in the age group of 21-50 years on 5th September, 1997. (iii) Be minimum Matriculate or recognized equivalent. (iv) Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application. (v) Have family income of not more than Rs.50,000 annually. (vi) Not have any dealership in any oil company. (vii) Have no close relatives as a dealer / distributor of any oil company. (viii) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations, owned or controlled by state government, but the case shall be referred to the Managing Director. (ix) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (vi) and (vii) may be waived. (x) If a person belongs to SC / ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman. On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided against each applicant, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken. Mark answer (A) if the applicant is selected; (B) if the candidate is not selected; (C) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director; and (D) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman. Applicant: Chaluka, an Indian resident of Mumbai, is a matriculate with a family income of Rs.20000 per annum. His date of birth is 15.3.76. He does not have any dealership is any oil company nor has any close relative as dealer or distributor. He is an SC candidate.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions (65-71) given below it. Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant should: (i) Be an Indian by nationality. (ii) Be in the age group of 21-50 years on 5th September, 1997. (iii) Be minimum Matriculate or recognized equivalent. (iv) Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application. (v) Have family income of not more than Rs.50,000 annually. (vi) Not have any dealership in any oil company. (vii) Have no close relatives as a dealer / distributor of any oil company. (viii) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations, owned or controlled by state government, but the case shall be referred to the Managing Director. (ix) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (vi) and (vii) may be waived. (x) If a person belongs to SC / ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman. On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided against each applicant, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken. Mark answer (A) if the applicant is selected; (B) if the candidate is not selected; (C) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director; and (D) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman. Applicant: 27 years old Indian, Naresh Saini is an unemployed graduate and a resident of Delhi since 1988. He has a family income of Rs.16000 per annum.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions (65-71) given below it. Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant should: (i) Be an Indian by nationality. (ii) Be in the age group of 21-50 years on 5th September, 1997. (iii) Be minimum Matriculate or recognized equivalent. (iv) Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application. (v) Have family income of not more than Rs.50,000 annually. (vi) Not have any dealership in any oil company. (vii) Have no close relatives as a dealer / distributor of any oil company. (viii) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations, owned or controlled by state government, but the case shall be referred to the Managing Director. (ix) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (vi) and (vii) may be waived. (x) If a person belongs to SC / ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman. On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided against each applicant, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken. Mark answer (A) if the applicant is selected; (B) if the candidate is not selected; (C) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director; and (D) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman. Applicant: Pran Chaturvedi working in Haryana State Corporation, has been living in Delhi for 5 years and has passed Senior Secondary. He is a citizen of India born on 13th June, 1973. His family’s annual income is Rs.75000. Neither he nor any of his relatives has a dealership or distributorship of any oil company.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions (65-71) given below it. Following are the conditions to appoint a Distributor for petroleum gas throughout Delhi. The applicant should: (i) Be an Indian by nationality. (ii) Be in the age group of 21-50 years on 5th September, 1997. (iii) Be minimum Matriculate or recognized equivalent. (iv) Be a resident of Delhi for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the date of application. (v) Have family income of not more than Rs.50,000 annually. (vi) Not have any dealership in any oil company. (vii) Have no close relatives as a dealer / distributor of any oil company. (viii) Restrictions relating to annual income, would not be applicable to persons working in corporations, owned or controlled by state government, but the case shall be referred to the Managing Director. (ix) For unemployed graduates, conditions at (vi) and (vii) may be waived. (x) If a person belongs to SC / ST but is not a resident of Delhi, the case may be referred to the Chairman. On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided against each applicant, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken. Mark answer (A) if the applicant is selected; (B) if the candidate is not selected; (C) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director; and (D) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman. Applicant: Maninder Vohra, aged 33 years, is an unemployed graduate and an Indian by nationality. His family income is Rs.55000 annually and he has been living in Delhi for 12 years now.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (72-76) based on the given information. Following are the criterion for admitting a student in a Medical course. The student must: (i) Have passed XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology and have secured at least 60% marks. (ii) Be of 18 years of age as on September 1, 1994. (iii) Have obtained 70% marks in the entrance test. (iv) Be able to pay Rs.20000 at the time of admission. (v) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iii) above, but has obtained 90% marks in the XIIth Std. Science examination, should be referred to the Principal. (vi) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iv) above, but can pay Rs.10000 at the time of admission, can be provisionally admitted. You are given the following cases as on September 1, 1994. Depending upon the information provided in each case and based on the criterion mentioned above, recommend your decision. Give answer (A) if the student is to be admitted, (B) if the student is not to be admitted; (C) if the student is to be referred to the Principal and (D) if the student is to be admitted provisionally. Case: Ashok Garg was born on 3rd October, 1973. He has secured 90% marks in the XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology and 60% marks in the entrance test. He can pay the admission fees of Rs.20000.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (72-76) based on the given information. Following are the criterion for admitting a student in a Medical course. The student must: (i) Have passed XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology and have secured at least 60% marks. (ii) Be of 18 years of age as on September 1, 1994. (iii) Have obtained 70% marks in the entrance test. (iv) Be able to pay Rs.20000 at the time of admission. (v) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iii) above, but has obtained 90% marks in the XIIth Std. Science examination, should be referred to the Principal. (vi) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iv) above, but can pay Rs.10000 at the time of admission, can be provisionally admitted. You are given the following cases as on September 1, 1994. Depending upon the information provided in each case and based on the criterion mentioned above, recommend your decision. Give answer (A) if the student is to be admitted, (B) if the student is not to be admitted; (C) if the student is to be referred to the Principal and (D) if the student is to be admitted provisionally. Case: Asha Thakur was born on 20th October, 1975. She has secured 68% marks in her XIIth Std. examination in Science with Biology and has secured 75% marks in the entrance test. She can pay the admission fee of Rs.20000.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (72-76) based on the given information. Following are the criterion for admitting a student in a Medical course. The student must: (i) Have passed XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology and have secured at least 60% marks. (ii) Be of 18 years of age as on September 1, 1994. (iii) Have obtained 70% marks in the entrance test. (iv) Be able to pay Rs.20000 at the time of admission. (v) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iii) above, but has obtained 90% marks in the XIIth Std. Science examination, should be referred to the Principal. (vi) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iv) above, but can pay Rs.10000 at the time of admission, can be provisionally admitted. You are given the following cases as on September 1, 1994. Depending upon the information provided in each case and based on the criterion mentioned above, recommend your decision. Give answer (A) if the student is to be admitted, (B) if the student is not to be admitted; (C) if the student is to be referred to the Principal and (D) if the student is to be admitted provisionally. Case: Pankaj Goel was 17 years old as on 11th September, 1993. He has secured 90% marks in his XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology. He has secured 75% marks in the entrance test and can pay the admission fees of Rs.20000.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (72-76) based on the given information. Following are the criterion for admitting a student in a Medical course. The student must: (i) Have passed XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology and have secured at least 60% marks. (ii) Be of 18 years of age as on September 1, 1994. (iii) Have obtained 70% marks in the entrance test. (iv) Be able to pay Rs.20000 at the time of admission. (v) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iii) above, but has obtained 90% marks in the XIIth Std. Science examination, should be referred to the Principal. (vi) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iv) above, but can pay Rs.10000 at the time of admission, can be provisionally admitted. You are given the following cases as on September 1, 1994. Depending upon the information provided in each case and based on the criterion mentioned above, recommend your decision. Give answer (A) if the student is to be admitted, (B) if the student is not to be admitted; (C) if the student is to be referred to the Principal and (D) if the student is to be admitted provisionally. Case: Rakesh Yadav was born on 4th July. He has secured 80% marks in the entrance test. He has secured 85% marks in the XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology. He can pay the admission fee of Rs.15000.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (72-76) based on the given information. Following are the criterion for admitting a student in a Medical course. The student must: (i) Have passed XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology and have secured at least 60% marks. (ii) Be of 18 years of age as on September 1, 1994. (iii) Have obtained 70% marks in the entrance test. (iv) Be able to pay Rs.20000 at the time of admission. (v) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iii) above, but has obtained 90% marks in the XIIth Std. Science examination, should be referred to the Principal. (vi) In the case of a candidate, who satisfies all other criterion except at (iv) above, but can pay Rs.10000 at the time of admission, can be provisionally admitted. You are given the following cases as on September 1, 1994. Depending upon the information provided in each case and based on the criterion mentioned above, recommend your decision. Give answer (A) if the student is to be admitted, (B) if the student is not to be admitted; (C) if the student is to be referred to the Principal and (D) if the student is to be admitted provisionally. Case: Meeta Chandra has secured 70% marks in the entrance test and 60% marks in her XIIth Std. Science examination with Biology. She can pay the admission fee of Rs.20000 and was born on 7th November, 1978.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (77-80) that follow: There are four married couples in a family. Each couple deals in different types of business, i.e., Furniture, Garments, Jewellery and Publishing. The male members of the couples are Ashutosh, Prem, Rajiv and Pappu. The female members are Rosy, Rinku, Rupu and Nitu. Once they were invited to my house on the occasion of my son’s birthday. Each couple came one after another. (i) Rajiv arrived immediately after the couple who deals in Garments but immediate before Rupu. (ii) Prem arrived immediately before Rosy. (iii) Pappu deals in Books. (iv) Ashutosh arrived immediately before Rinku (who does not deal in Furniture). Rinku arrived immediately before the couple which deals in Jewellery. Q: Who came after Ashutosh?
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (77-80) that follow: There are four married couples in a family. Each couple deals in different types of business, i.e., Furniture, Garments, Jewellery and Publishing. The male members of the couples are Ashutosh, Prem, Rajiv and Pappu. The female members are Rosy, Rinku, Rupu and Nitu. Once they were invited to my house on the occasion of my son’s birthday. Each couple came one after another. (i) Rajiv arrived immediately after the couple who deals in Garments but immediate before Rupu. (ii) Prem arrived immediately before Rosy. (iii) Pappu deals in Books. (iv) Ashutosh arrived immediately before Rinku (who does not deal in Furniture). Rinku arrived immediately before the couple which deals in Jewellery. Q: Rosy deals in which business?
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (77-80) that follow: There are four married couples in a family. Each couple deals in different types of business, i.e., Furniture, Garments, Jewellery and Publishing. The male members of the couples are Ashutosh, Prem, Rajiv and Pappu. The female members are Rosy, Rinku, Rupu and Nitu. Once they were invited to my house on the occasion of my son’s birthday. Each couple came one after another. (i) Rajiv arrived immediately after the couple who deals in Garments but immediate before Rupu. (ii) Prem arrived immediately before Rosy. (iii) Pappu deals in Books. (iv) Ashutosh arrived immediately before Rinku (who does not deal in Furniture). Rinku arrived immediately before the couple which deals in Jewellery. Q: The two females who deal in Furniture and Garments respectively are members of the couples who arrived at the following order….
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (77-80) that follow: There are four married couples in a family. Each couple deals in different types of business, i.e., Furniture, Garments, Jewellery and Publishing. The male members of the couples are Ashutosh, Prem, Rajiv and Pappu. The female members are Rosy, Rinku, Rupu and Nitu. Once they were invited to my house on the occasion of my son’s birthday. Each couple came one after another. (i) Rajiv arrived immediately after the couple who deals in Garments but immediate before Rupu. (ii) Prem arrived immediately before Rosy. (iii) Pappu deals in Books. (iv) Ashutosh arrived immediately before Rinku (who does not deal in Furniture). Rinku arrived immediately before the couple which deals in Jewellery. Q: Which of the following statement is true?
In a row of thirty-five children, M is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children between M and R. What is R’s position from the left end of the row?
Roshan is taller than Hardik who is shorter than Susheel. Niza is taller than Harry but shorter than Hardik. Susheel is shorter than Roshan. Who is the tallest?
A’s father has a son B who has an aunt C, whose husband is X, Y is the father-in-law of X. How could Y related to A?
Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells pramod, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle.” How is the speaker related to Pramod’s father?
In the given series, one of the term is wrong. Find that one. 2, 3, 8, 63, 3962.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (86-88) that follow. Ajay would do five tasks: A, B, C, D and E: starting at 9 am in the morning. A is the first task and takes 2 h. B can be done after A is complete and requires 1 h. Work on C which would take 1 h can start only after A and B are complete. Ajay can do task D along with B and C and would take 3 h for that. Activity E with duration of 1 h can start on completion of A, B, C and D. Q: What is the earliest time when Ajay would complete C?
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (86-88) that follow. Ajay would do five tasks: A, B, C, D and E: starting at 9 am in the morning. A is the first task and takes 2 h. B can be done after A is complete and requires 1 h. Work on C which would take 1 h can start only after A and B are complete. Ajay can do task D along with B and C and would take 3 h for that. Activity E with duration of 1 h can start on completion of A, B, C and D. Q: If Ajay takes 2 hours for B and completes other preceding tasks without delay, when can E start?
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions (86-88) that follow. Ajay would do five tasks: A, B, C, D and E: starting at 9 am in the morning. A is the first task and takes 2 h. B can be done after A is complete and requires 1 h. Work on C which would take 1 h can start only after A and B are complete. Ajay can do task D along with B and C and would take 3 h for that. Activity E with duration of 1 h can start on completion of A, B, C and D. Q: What is the earlist time when Ajay can complete all tasks?
From my house I went 15 m to the North, then turned West and covered 10 m, then turned South, and covered 5 m. then turned East and covered 10 m. In which direction am I now from my house?
A person starts towards South direction. Which of the following orders of directions will lead him to East direction?
The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?
Communication is a part of which skill?
You need to apply for leave. Which method of communication you will use?
What does an upright body posture conveys?
Which communication involves “treating people like objects”?
Read the following paragraph to give your decision: The smaller pesticide formulation units in India operate under heavy constraints such as obsolete technology, small scale of operation and dependence on large units for raw materials. In view of the loss of expensive material by the smaller units it is important to either eliminate or reduce losses to the extent possible through innovative and sustainable waste minimization techniques. Operating profit margins of the units are very low and small adverse conditions land these companies in trouble, Maximum losses suffered by these units are through poor housekeeping, sub-optional operating practices, and lack of proper opportunities for recycling waste. Mark your answer as: (A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’. (B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true. (C) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’. (D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’. Statement: Poor housekeeping is not reflected due to maximum losses.
Read the following paragraph to give your decision: The smaller pesticide formulation units in India operate under heavy constraints such as obsolete technology, small scale of operation and dependence on large units for raw materials. In view of the loss of expensive material by the smaller units it is important to either eliminate or reduce losses to the extent possible through innovative and sustainable waste minimization techniques. Operating profit margins of the units are very low and small adverse conditions land these companies in trouble, Maximum losses suffered by these units are through poor housekeeping, sub-optional operating practices, and lack of proper opportunities for recycling waste. Mark your answer as: (A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’. (B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true. (C) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’. (D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’. Statement: Recycling of wastes through modern techniques can set off large part of the losses incurred by the smaller units.
Read the following paragraph to give your decision: The smaller pesticide formulation units in India operate under heavy constraints such as obsolete technology, small scale of operation and dependence on large units for raw materials. In view of the loss of expensive material by the smaller units it is important to either eliminate or reduce losses to the extent possible through innovative and sustainable waste minimization techniques. Operating profit margins of the units are very low and small adverse conditions land these companies in trouble, Maximum losses suffered by these units are through poor housekeeping, sub-optional operating practices, and lack of proper opportunities for recycling waste. Mark your answer as: (A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’. (B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true. (C) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’. (D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’. Statement: Pesticide units should necessarily be on a large scale to make them economically viable.
Read the following paragraph to give your decision: The smaller pesticide formulation units in India operate under heavy constraints such as obsolete technology, small scale of operation and dependence on large units for raw materials. In view of the loss of expensive material by the smaller units it is important to either eliminate or reduce losses to the extent possible through innovative and sustainable waste minimization techniques. Operating profit margins of the units are very low and small adverse conditions land these companies in trouble, Maximum losses suffered by these units are through poor housekeeping, sub-optional operating practices, and lack of proper opportunities for recycling waste. Mark your answer as: (A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’. (B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true. (C) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’. (D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’. Statement: Waste management process in India needs modernization.
Read the following paragraph to give your decision: The smaller pesticide formulation units in India operate under heavy constraints such as obsolete technology, small scale of operation and dependence on large units for raw materials. In view of the loss of expensive material by the smaller units it is important to either eliminate or reduce losses to the extent possible through innovative and sustainable waste minimization techniques. Operating profit margins of the units are very low and small adverse conditions land these companies in trouble, Maximum losses suffered by these units are through poor housekeeping, sub-optional operating practices, and lack of proper opportunities for recycling waste. Mark your answer as: (A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’. (B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true. (C) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’. (D) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’. Statement: Lack of funds compels smaller units to ignore house keeping.