APSC Prelims 2023

Match the following books (List-I) with the authors (List-II) : List-I a. A Comprehensive History of Assam b. The Quest for Modern Assam : A History c. The Ahoms : A Reimagined History d. Asamiya Manuhar Itihas List-II 1. Arup Jyoti Saikia 2. Arup Kumar Dutta 3. Dr. Nagen Saikia 4. Swarnalata Baruah Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

With reference to the Charaideo Maidams, consider the following statements : (i) These are mounds containing the remains of the royalty of the Varman dynasty. (ii) They are located along the foothills of the Patkai Range. (iii) Charaideo is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. (iv) The first king who was buried after death here was Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

With reference to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements : (i) The prime concern of ASI is the maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance. (ii) It does not regulate the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972. (iii) Alexander Cunningham was appointed as the first Director General of ASI. (iv) ASI is attached to the Ministry of Education, Government of India. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Match the following wetlands (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II) : List-I a. Urpad Beel b. Son Beel c. Tamranga Beel d. Nandini-Sonai Beel List-II 1. Bongaigaon 2. Goalpara 3. Morigaon 4. Karimganj Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following institutions (List-I) with the years of their establishment (List-II) : List-I a. Cotton College b. Gauhati University c. Assam Agricultural University d. Tezpur University List-II 1. 1901 2. 1969 3. 1948 4. 1994 Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following developments pertaining to the history of modern education in India : (i) Sadler University Commission (ii) Lord Macaulay's Minute (iii) Raleigh Commission (iv) Wood's Dispatch Select the correct chronological order of these developments using the codes given below.

With reference to the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, consider the following statements : (i) The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandella dynasty. (ii) The temples at Khajuraho are associated with Hinduism and Jainism. (iii) The temples were built in Dravidian-style architecture. (iv) These are situated in Chhatarpur district of Maharashtra. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following events pertaining to the Freedom Movement of India : (i) Mountbatten Plan (ii) Quit India Movement (iii) Wavell Plan (iv) Royal Indian Navy Mutiny Select the correct chronological order of these events using the codes given below.

The NITI Forum of North-East India was set up in February 2018 to address various challenges in the region and recommend requisite interventions to achieve sustainable economic growth. The Forum has identified 5 focus areas for North-East. Which of the following is/are not in the list of focus areas? (i) Tourism (ii) Pisciculture (iii) Pulses (iv) Fruits Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched? (i) State bird of Assam : Hornbill (ii) State animal of Assam : Rhino (iii) State flower of Assam : Sunflower (iv) State tree of Assam : Hollong Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following pairs : Places : Events in the life of Buddha (i) Lumbini : Birth (ii) Sarnath : Dharmachakrapravartana (iii) Kushinagar : The Enlightenment (iv) Benaras : The Miracles Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission of India : (i) The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. (ii) Article 82 of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament is required by law to enact a Delimitation Act following each Census. (iii) The first delimitation exercise in post-independent India was held in 1952 as per the 1951 Census. (iv) The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures under the provision of the Delimitation Act, 2002. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India : (i) The Election Commission of India is a body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the National and State Legislatures including the Panchayats. (ii) The power of the Election Commission of India is derived from Article 324 of the Constitution of India. (iii) Rajiv Kumar is the present Chief Election Commissioner who joined his office on 15th May, 2022. (iv) The Election Commission is reconstituted every five years. Select the incorrect statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) of India : (i) GST is a successor to VAT used in India on the supply of goods and services. (ii) GST came into effect from 1st July, 2017 through the implementation of the one hundred and first Amendment of the Constitution of India. (iii) Every decision of the GST Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting. (iv) The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding Article 226 of the Constitution of India : (i) Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers a High Court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. (ii) The phrase 'for any other purpose' refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right. This implies that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. (iii) The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose, i.e., it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged. (iv) The High Court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction. Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

Which of the following Autonomous Councils in Assam has/have been formed under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India? (i) Bodoland Territorial Council or Bodoland Territorial Region (ii) Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council (iii) Dima Hasao Autonomous Council (iv) Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions of the States of India made by the Constitution : (i) Article 371C provides for the special provisions for the State of Assam. Under this Article, the President of India is empowered to provide for the creation of committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from Tribal Areas of the State and such other members as he/she may specify. (ii) Article 371C was added by the 22nd Amendment Act of 1969. (iii) Article 371D deals with special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh and Article 371E deals with the establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh. (iv) 32nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which was made in 1973, inserted Articles 371D and 371E into the Constitution of India. Select the incorrect statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of official languages in India : (i) Article 343 of the Constitution of India has made Hindi in Devanagari Script as the National Language of India. (ii) The Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State as the official language/languages of the State as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India. (iii) The Assam Official Language Act, 1960 has been legislated as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India. Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

Match the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution (List-I) with their subject matters (List-II) : List-I a. Fourth Schedule b. Eleventh Schedule c. Eighth Schedule d. Third Schedule List-II 1. Forms of Oath or Affirmations 2. Languages 3. Powers of Panchayats 4. Allocation of Seats in the Council of States Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following factors regarding the declaration of a political party as a State Party by the Election Commission of India : (i) If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the State in a general election to the respective State Legislative Assembly and also, it wins 2 seats in the same State Legislative Assembly (ii) If it secures 6% of the total votes in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha and also, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the same State (iii) If it wins 3% of seats in the Legislative Assembly at a general election to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned or 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is more) (iv) If it secures 16% of the total valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the State or to the State Legislative Assembly Select the incorrect factor/factors using the codes given below.

Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between censure and no-confidence motion? (i) A censure motion should state the reason for its adoption. On the other hand, a no-confidence motion need not state the reason for its adoption. (ii) A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the Council of Ministers. In contrast, a censure motion can be moved against the Council of Ministers or an individual Minister, or a group of Ministers. (iii) The government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed. On the other hand, the government need not resign if a censure motion is passed. (iv) A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Legislative Assembly : (i) According to the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935, a Bicameral Legislature of Assam Province came into existence in 1937. (ii) The first sitting of the Assam Legislative Assembly took place on 7th April, 1937 in the Assembly Chamber at Shillong. (iii) Pulakesh Baruah and Ganesh Kutum were the Speakers of Assam Legislative Assembly from Asom Gana Parishad and Janata Party respectively. (iv) Babu Basanta Kumar Das was the first Speaker of the Assam Legislative Assembly. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

It is easier to roll a barrel than to pull it because

The mass of a body is different from its weight because (i) mass is a variable quantity whereas weight is constant (ii) mass varies very little at different places whereas weight varies a lot (iii) mass is constant but weight decreases as the body moves from the Poles to the Equator (iv) mass is a measure of quantity of matter whereas weight is a force Select the correct reason/reasons using the codes given below.

Paddy fields are chief sources of which of the following greenhouse gases? (i) Methane (ii) Carbon dioxide (iii) Nitrous oxide (iv) Ozone Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following groups contains/contain only non-biodegradable materials? (i) Wood, paper, leather (ii) Plastic, bakelite, DDT (iii) Plastic, thermocol, wood (iv) Thermocol, plates made from dried leaves, detergents Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

For a given liquid, the rate of evaporation depends on (i) the temperature of the liquid (ii) the temperature of air (iii) the surface area of the liquid Select the correct factor/factors using the codes given below.

One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same power socket because (i) this can damage the appliances (ii) this can damage the domestic wiring due to overheating (iii) the appliances will not get full voltage Select the valid reason/reasons using the codes given below.

Consider the following pairs of scientists and discoveries : Scientists : Discoveries (i) Copernicus : Law of gravitation (ii) Kepler : Laws of planetary motion (iii) Galileo : Moons of Jupiter (iv) Newton : Heliocentric theory Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

From the distance-time graphs of two motorists A and B, it can be seen that [Graph: Distance (y-axis) vs Time (x-axis) — two straight lines from the origin; line A has a steeper slope than line B, both linear/constant-slope]

Solutions are of many types. Consider the following types of solution with an example each : (i) Gas in liquid—Vinegar (ii) Solid in liquid—Brine (iii) Solid in solid—Brass (iv) Liquid in liquid—Coca-Cola Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

Which of the following elements does sugar contain? (i) Carbon (ii) Nitrogen (iii) Hydrogen (iv) Oxygen Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements : (i) Assam was formed into a Chief Commissioner's Province in 1874. (ii) Assam was declared as a Governor's Province in 1921. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

The Interim Budget-2024 announcement for implementation of 3 Economic Railway Corridors identified under the PM Gati Shakti for enabling multi-modal connectivity includes which of the following? (i) Energy, Mineral and Cement Corridors (ii) Rural Roads Connectivity Corridors (iii) Port Connectivity Corridors (iv) High Traffic Density Corridors Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of 'Green India Mission' of the Government of India? (i) Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State's budgets thereby implementing the 'green accounting' (ii) Launching the second Green Revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future (iii) Restoring and enhancing forest cover responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

What is 'Greenhouse Gas Protocol'?

Which of the following faunas are found in North-East India? (i) Tokay gecko (ii) Red panda (iii) Hoolock gibbon (iv) Lion-tailed macaque Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following National Parks in India are World Heritage Sites? (i) Keoladeo National Park (ii) Manas National Park (iii) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (iv) Great Himalayan National Park Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Protection of wildlife comes under which of the following in the Constitution of India? (i) Fundamental Duties (ii) Directive Principles (iii) Seventh Schedule (iv) Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

What is the name of the feature that allows organisms to survive in the conditions of their habitat?

Recently the 'Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), 2023' was submitted by PRATHAM. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Report? (i) The Report focused on 14–18 years of age group. (ii) According to the Report, the percentage of youths not enrolled in any form of formal education has gone up for 14 years olds and gone down for 18 years olds as compared to the year 2017. (iii) For discontinuing education, almost 20% of girls attributed it to 'family constraints'. (iv) The Report asserted that the fear that several older students dropped out of school during the COVID-19 pandemic due to loss of livelihood was true. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbor Deuri, a prominent leader of the Tribal League : (i) Bhimbor Deuri vehemently opposed the Muslim League's conspiracy to include Assam in a grouping plan with Bengal. (ii) Bhimbor Deuri supported a proposal for a separate electorate for the tribal people for strengthening the rights of indigenous communities. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Match the following folk dance forms (List-I) with their corresponding communities of Assam (List-II) : List-I a. Hacha Kekan b. Hanaghora c. Bisuyo Jama Dance d. Baidima List-II 1. Dimasa 2. Karbi 3. Rabha 4. Deuri Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched? (i) Finance Commission : Constitutional Body (ii) Securities and Exchange Board of India : Statutory Body (iii) NITI Aayog : Constitutional Body (iv) Reserve Bank of India : Statutory Body Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following groups of places is/are located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra? (i) Bijni, Jogighopa, Raha, Titabar (ii) Hajo, Sarthebari, Moran, Bihpuria (iii) Pathsala, Bongaigaon, Dhekiajuli, Gohpur (iv) Sualkuchi, Barpeta, Kharupetia, Narayanpur Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following personalities (List-I) with the popular sobriquets by which they are known (List-II) : List-I a. Anandiram Das b. Parbati Prasad Baruah c. Bishnuram Medhi d. Hemchandra Baruah List-II 1. Geetikavi 2. Lauha Manab 3. Bonkonwar 4. Tyagbir Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following is/are correct about 'eRupee'? (i) It refers to Rupee circulation in Europe. (ii) It refers to exchange rate of Rupee. (iii) It is Digital Rupee App of the State Bank of India. (iv) It is the Central Bank Digital Currency. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The proposed India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is expected to have multiple benefits for India. Which of the following is/are in the list of benefits? (i) It is a new and more efficient way for India to export its goods to Europe. (ii) It would make India a more attractive destination for foreign investment. (iii) The construction and maintenance of the Economic Corridor would create millions of new jobs in India. (iv) The construction of the Corridor would be done under the supervision of the World Trade Organization. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following places (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II) : List-I a. Sitajakhala b. Silghat c. Kulsi d. Semkhor List-II 1. Dima Hasao 2. Kamrup 3. Nagaon 4. Morigaon Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Chief Minister's Atmanirbhar Asom Abhijan Portal was launched on 23rd September, 2023. To qualify for financial assistance of ₹5.0 lakh under the scheme, which of the following criteria are necessary? (i) The applicant must be a permanent resident of Assam. (ii) The applicant must not be older than 28 years of age. (iii) The applicant must have a bank account opened before 31st December, 2023. (iv) The applicant must have a professional degree in engineering/medical/dental/veterinary/fishery/agriculture, etc. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following is/are correct about a Bad Bank? (i) A bank that is insolvent (ii) A bank that has become bankrupt (iii) A bank whose NPAs have crossed the tolerable limit (iv) A bank set up to buy bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Pick up the wrong statement/statements regarding an Interim Budget in India. (i) It provides continuity in governance during transition period between two governments. (ii) The government cannot propose major taxes or policy reforms in the Budget. (iii) The 'Economic Survey' is presented one day before the presentation of the Interim Budget. (iv) It is an authorization for incurring specific expenditure necessary until a new government is formed. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

INS Imphal was delivered to the Indian Navy on 20th October, 2023. Which of the following statements about INS Imphal is/are not correct? (i) It is a Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided missile destroyer of the Indian Navy. (ii) It was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. (iii) It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in December 2023. (iv) The ship boasts 100% indigenous content. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The 'HUMP WWII Museum' was opened in Arunachal Pradesh in 2023. Which of the following statements are correct pertaining to the Museum? (i) The Museum has been set up in the town of Pasighat. (ii) The Hump refers to the dangerous aerial route over the ice-covered eastern Himalayan mountains. (iii) This dangerous route was used to supply British troops battling Japanese forces after they cut off the overland route through Burma (Myanmar). (iv) The route also earned the moniker 'Aluminum Trail' because of the number of crashes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following lists is correct carrying the names of the five-member bench of the Supreme Court that passed the Ayodhya Verdict on 9th November, 2019?

Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS) of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II) : List-I a. Bordoibam Bilmukh WLS b. Pabha WLS c. Pani Dihing WLS d. Gibbon WLS List-II 1. Lakhimpur 2. Dhemaji 3. Sivasagar 4. Jorhat Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the 2024 Grammy Awards : (i) Tabla maestro Zakir Hussain won 3 Grammys. (ii) Flautist Rakesh Chaurasia won 2 Grammys. (iii) Singer Shankar Mahadevan, violinist L. Subramaniam and percussionist Selvaganesh won 1 Grammy each. (iv) The fusion group 'Shakti' won the 2024 Grammy Award for the best global music album for 'This Moment'. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following pairs : (i) Mahamaya Temple : Dhubri (ii) Dhekiakhowa Bornamghar : Golaghat (iii) Malini Than : Dhemaji (iv) Deopani Temple : Jorhat Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

Match the following personalities (List-I) with the awards/recognitions they had been conferred with (List-II) : List-I a. Hemoprova Chutia b. Jintimoni Nakul Kalita c. Uma Chetry d. Pratima Nandi Narzary List-II 1. Awarded Padma Shri in 2023 2. First female participant from Assam in T20 Asia Cup hosted in Hong Kong 3. Indian cricket player from Assam in the Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China 4. Winner of Sahitya Akademi Bal Puraskar 2023 Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

India breached the 100-medal mark for the first time in the Asian Games at Hangzhou in China in 2023. Select the correct pair of gold and silver medals from the options given below.

The operation to evacuate the Indian citizens from Israel during the 2023 Israel-Hamas war is named as

Match the following historical/tourist places of Assam (List-I) with the corresponding districts where these are located (List-II) : List-I a. Ghuguha Dol b. Patharughat c. Sankhadevi Archaeological Site d. Baduli Khurung List-II 1. Darrang 2. Dhemaji 3. Nagaon 4. Hojai Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Read the following statements regarding 'blockchain'. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) It is a method of recording information that makes it impossible or difficult for the system to be changed, hacked, or manipulated. (ii) This method can ensure secure transactions, lower compliance expenses and accurate data transfer processing. (iii) This method is used only in financial service industry. (iv) Fuji Nakamori is the name used by the presumed pseudonymous person or persons who developed Bitcoin. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Who among the following was awarded the Siu-Ka-Pha Award, 2023?

Who among the following are Arjuna Award winners from Assam? (i) Bhogeswar Baruah (ii) Monalisa Baruah Mehta (iii) Amlan Borgohain (iv) Jayanta Talukdar Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan (MMUA) was announced in January 2024. What are the eligibility criteria for the scheme? (i) All women self-help groups of Assam are eligible for the scheme. (ii) If the applicants have girl children, they must be enrolled in school. (iii) The trees the applicants planted under the Amrit Briksha Andolan should be surviving. (iv) General and OBC categories applicants cannot have more than three children. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

If an individual is awarded with a gold medal called Lachit Borphukan Medal as the best Army Cadet, where has he/she passed out from?

Arrange the following Speakers of the Assam Legislative Assembly in the chronological order : (i) Pulakesh Baruah (ii) Kuladhar Chaliha (iii) Debeswar Sarma (iv) Mahendra Mohan Choudhury Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Arrange, in descending order, the population in Assam by languages as per the Census of India, 2011.

Which of the following is/are not the work/works of Madhavdev? (i) Nam Ghosa (ii) Bhakti Ratnavali (iii) Bhumi Letowa (iv) Balichalan Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following places of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II) : List-I a. Titabar b. Doulasal c. Nazira d. Sarthebari List-II 1. Sivasagar 2. Barpeta 3. Jorhat 4. Nalbari Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following names of the Agroclimatic Zones of Assam is/are not correct? (i) Upper Brahmaputra Valley (ii) North Central Brahmaputra Valley (iii) Barail Zone (iv) Hill Zone Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Women's Reservation Bill, 2023? (i) The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023 proposes 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies of States and National Capital Territory of Delhi. (ii) Similar reservation will also be provided within the seats reserved for SC and ST. (iii) The Bill proposes that the reservation will continue for 25 years. (iv) The Bill which reserves 33% of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies includes the quota for women from the OBCs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following schemes (List-I) with the correct objectives (List-II) : List-I a. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao b. Baalika Samriddhi Yojana c. CBSE Udaan Scheme d. Poshan Abhiyan List-II 1. It gives importance to the nutritional level of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children of 0–6 years of age 2. It offers free course materials/online resources such as video study materials, class materials for girl students in XI and XII standards 3. To provide fiscal support to young girls and their mothers who belong to BPL category 4. Removing or preventing gender bias selective abortions for the girl child Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) (List-I) with the States/Union Territories they belong to (List-II) : List-I a. Maram b. Jarawa c. Birhor d. Reang List-II 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Tripura 3. Manipur 4. Odisha Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Scheduled Castes in Assam as per the 2011 Census? (i) Scheduled Caste population constitutes about 7.15% of the total population of Assam. (ii) 16 sub-castes are recognized as SCs in Assam, such as Basfor, Bhuimali, Bania, Dhupi, Dholi, Hira, Kaibartta, etc. (iii) Nagaon district has the highest percentage of SC population followed by Cachar and Kamrup. (iv) The literacy rate of SCs in Assam is 66.76% with SC females constituting 55.52% and SC males constituting 44.48%. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following demographic terms (List-I) with their meanings (definitions) (List-II) : List-I a. Birthrate b. Crude birth-rate c. Cohort fertility d. Birth deficit List-II 1. Number of live births per woman who were born in a particular year 2. Number of live births per one thousand inhabitants in a year 3. Determined not only by the fertility of a given population but also by its age structure 4. When the number of live births is lower than the number of deaths within a defined period of time Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following personalities (List-I) with the awards conferred on them (List-II) : List-I a. Pranab Jyoti Deka b. Arup Kumar Dutta c. Dr. Joyanti Chutia d. Dr. Tiyathi Zameer List-II 1. Sahitya Akademi Award 2. Kalicharan Brahma Award 3. Shri Madhavdev Award 4. Sati Sadhani Award Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The Ramchandi Temple, which was built during 12th century, is situated on the bank of which of the following rivers of Assam?

Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel : (i) He got the moniker 'Sardar' due to his organizational skills during Bardoli Satyagraha. (ii) The prison where Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar were cell-mates was Naini Prison. (iii) He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1989. (iv) He was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India. Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below.

Match the following names (List-I) with the Ahom rulers (List-II) : List-I a. Susenghphaa b. Suremphaa c. Sutamla d. Supangmung List-II 1. Rajeswar Singha 2. Chakradhwaj Singha 3. Pratap Singha 4. Jayadhwaj Singha Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Gaurinath Singha entered into an agreement with the East India Company on which of the following terms? (i) All imports into Assam were to be subjected to a duty of 10%. (ii) The duty on export was to be 10%. (iii) Rice and grains were to be exempted from any duty. (iv) Two custom houses were to be established at Kandahar and Hadira. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following authors (List-I) with the books written by them (List-II) : List-I a. Gunabhiram Baruah b. Harakanta Sarma Baruah c. Anandaram Dhekial Phukan d. Hemchandra Baruah List-II 1. Asamiya Byakaran 2. Asamiya Lorar Mitra 3. Ram Navami 4. Sadar Aminar Atmajibani Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Match the following associations (List-I) with their respective founders (List-II) : List-I a. Indian League b. Indian Association c. Assam Association d. Jorhat Sarbajanik Sabha List-II 1. Ananda Mohan Bose 2. Jagannath Baruah 3. Sisir Kumar Ghosh 4. Manik Chandra Baruah Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The Global Drought Snapshot, released in December 2023 at the beginning of the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP-28) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Dubai, exposes the devastating consequences of droughts on lives, economies, and various sectors. Based on the data reported by 101 parties to the UNCCD, which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) The report reveals that a staggering 1.84 billion people experienced the effects of drought. Among them, 4.7% faced severe or extreme drought conditions. (ii) Notably South Africa faced the highest number of declarations. (iii) Drought severity prompted emergency declarations in 23 countries. (iv) The US, Canada, India and Sri Lanka are the countries that never declared drought emergencies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following sessions of Asom Sahitya Sabha was/were presided over by Sitanath Brahma Choudhury? (i) Tinsukia (ii) Diphu (iii) Sivasagar (iv) Tezpur Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) : (i) It is the flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of fisheries in India. (ii) It is implemented in all States/Union Territories as part of Atmanirbhar Bharat package for a period of five years from Financial Year 2020–21 to Financial Year 2024–25. (iii) The Central Government bears the project cost and States/Union Territories share the cost of sub-components of the scheme. (iv) Ornamental fish cultivation is kept out of focus under PMMSY. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) : (i) The programme includes recharge and reuse through greywater management, water conservation and rainwater harvesting. (ii) It is a demand-driven scheme with strong emphasis on Jan Bhagidari (community engagement) as a crucial pillar of the project. (iii) The United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) is collaborating with the Denmark Government to support the mission in Uttar Pradesh. (iv) An average of 29 million people will be employed annually during the mission's construction phase. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements : (i) MV Ganga Vilas is the world's longest river cruise covering over 51 days across 2 countries, 5 States and 27 river systems. (ii) Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the cruise from Varanasi on 13th January, 2023. (iii) The international cruise is being offered by Antara Luxury River Cruises who is operating since 2009. (iv) The cruise culminated its journey on 28th February in Sadiya. Select the incorrect statement/statements using the codes given below.

Which of the following dramas/Ankiya Nats was/were not composed by Sankardev? (i) Kaliya Daman (ii) Patni Prasada (iii) Keli Gopal (iv) Arjun Bhanjan Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

India celebrated her 75th Republic Day on 26th January, 2024. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the celebration of the Republic Day, 2024? (i) The Parade was held on Kartavya Path. (ii) The theme of the 75th Republic Day was 'Viksit Bharat' and 'Bharat : Loktantra Ki Matruka'. (iii) The three States which presented tableaux from North-East India were Meghalaya, Manipur and Nagaland. (iv) ISRO presented the historic lunar landing of Chandrayaan-III at the Parade. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

All the Assam Baibhav, Assam Saurav and Assam Gourav awardees are offered certain benefits/facilities. Which of the following is/are not included in the list of benefits? (i) They will get free medical treatment in government hospitals and stay in paying cabins, wherever available. (ii) They will be provided free accommodation in State Government Circuit Houses, Guest Houses and Assam Bhawans. (iii) They will be regular invitees for all the official functions as distinguished guests. (iv) The Government of Assam will provide them up to ₹5.0 lakh for medical expenses towards the treatment of critical diseases. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements : (i) NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and NASA. (ii) NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and European Space Agency. (iii) The objective of NISAR is to co-develop and launch a dual frequency synthetic aperture RADAR on an Earth observation satellite. (iv) NISAR is planned to be launched in 2024. Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements : (i) India's solar mission Aditya-L1 has been placed in halo orbit around Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1. (ii) Lagrange points are positions of equilibrium for a small object under the gravitational pull of two massive orbiting bodies. (iii) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Sun-Earth system. (iv) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Earth-Moon system also. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

In the Interim Union Budget, 2024, the Finance Minister mentioned four specific groups of the population to focus on. Which of the following is/are not in the list? (i) Poor (ii) Women (iii) Entrepreneur (iv) Youth Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements : (i) In computer parlance, a cookie is a malicious computer virus. (ii) In computer parlance, a cookie is a small piece of text sent by a website to the internet browser. (iii) Internet cookies are used by banking websites only. (iv) Internet cookies help the websites to remember the client's visit to the website. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

What is/are the factor/factors that has/have prompted the colonial rulers to initiate jute cultivation in Brahmaputra Valley? (i) Saturation of land suitable for jute in Bengal (ii) High demand of jute in the world market (iii) Abundant labour supply in Brahmaputra Valley Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Which of the following characteristics make a braided river different from a meandering river of similar discharge? (i) Wider and shallower (ii) Transports high sediment load (iii) Erodes riverbanks rapidly (iv) Deeper Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

In which of the following Satras in Assam, the religious head (Satradhikar) is elected? (i) Auniati (ii) Dakhinpat (iii) Kamalabari (iv) Barpeta Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

As per the tripartite Memorandum of Settlement signed between Government of India, Government of Assam with representatives of United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA) on 29th December, 2023, which of the following will not be set up in Assam? (i) Indian Institute of Management (ii) School of Planning and Architecture (iii) Indian Institute of Science (iv) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Make in India campaign was launched in New Delhi on 25th of September in 2014. It is an initiative to make a call to the top business investors all across the world to invest in India. It is a big opportunity to all the investors to set up their business in any field in the country. This plan has very attractive proposals for the foreign companies to set up manufacturing powerhouses in India. Make in India campaign launched by the Indian government focuses on building the effective physical infrastructure as well as improving the market of digital network in the country to make it a global hub for business (ranging from satellites to submarines, cars to softwares, pharmaceuticals to ports, paper to power, etc.). The symbol, derived from National Emblem of India, of this initiative is a giant lion having many wheels, indicating peaceful progress, a vibrant future, courage, strength, tenacity and wisdom. This campaign focuses on creating a number of valuable and honoured jobs as well as skill enhancement in almost 25 sectors for improving the status of youths of the country. The sectors involved are automobiles, chemicals, IT & BPM, aviation, pharmaceuticals, construction, electrical machinery, food processing, defence manufacturing, space, textiles, garments, ports, leather, media and entertainment, wellness, tourism and hospitality, railways, automobile components, renewable energy, roads and highways, electronic systems and thermal power. The successful implementation of this plan will help in the creation of 100 smart cities project and affordable housing in India. The main objective is to ensure solid growth and valuable employment creation in the country with the help of top investors. It will benefit both parties, the investors and our country. The Government of India has created a dedicated help team and an online portal (makeinindia.com) for the easy and effective communication of investors. What is the main objective of the 'Make in India' campaign?

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Make in India campaign was launched in New Delhi on 25th of September in 2014. It is an initiative to make a call to the top business investors all across the world to invest in India. It is a big opportunity to all the investors to set up their business in any field in the country. This plan has very attractive proposals for the foreign companies to set up manufacturing powerhouses in India. Make in India campaign launched by the Indian government focuses on building the effective physical infrastructure as well as improving the market of digital network in the country to make it a global hub for business (ranging from satellites to submarines, cars to softwares, pharmaceuticals to ports, paper to power, etc.). The symbol, derived from National Emblem of India, of this initiative is a giant lion having many wheels, indicating peaceful progress, a vibrant future, courage, strength, tenacity and wisdom. This campaign focuses on creating a number of valuable and honoured jobs as well as skill enhancement in almost 25 sectors for improving the status of youths of the country. The sectors involved are automobiles, chemicals, IT & BPM, aviation, pharmaceuticals, construction, electrical machinery, food processing, defence manufacturing, space, textiles, garments, ports, leather, media and entertainment, wellness, tourism and hospitality, railways, automobile components, renewable energy, roads and highways, electronic systems and thermal power. The successful implementation of this plan will help in the creation of 100 smart cities project and affordable housing in India. The main objective is to ensure solid growth and valuable employment creation in the country with the help of top investors. It will benefit both parties, the investors and our country. The Government of India has created a dedicated help team and an online portal (makeinindia.com) for the easy and effective communication of investors. An outcome of the 'Make in India' campaign is

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Since almost the beginning of cinema, we have had scary films. Of all the genres that exist, horror is perhaps one of the most conventional. Many horror films rely on specific plot devices, also called tropes, to make their audience frightened. When a trope is used too much, it can become a cliché. But when used well, it can really make us jump out of our skin. Here are some of the most used, and perhaps abused, clichés in horror films. No matter what kind of house it is, the basement is a scary place in horror films. That's usually where something is hiding or where the evil psychopath has hidden their tools. Basements are always dark and often damp. You can only reach them by a narrow staircase. And basements are always creepy, even when there isn't anything down there. In older horror films, when protagonists were in desperation, it was difficult or impossible for them to call for help or call the police. Mobile phones have made that situation a bit less believable now. What's the solution to maintain suspense? No phone coverage! If you're a hero in a horror film, it's almost certain that at a key moment, just when you absolutely need to call for help, you will not have any coverage at all. Or your phone battery will die just as you are making the call. Or both. Directors of horror films love uninhabited places. This could be an abandoned hospital, a scary empty house or a ghost town. There's something about lonely, empty places. What was it like when people lived there? Why did they leave? Maybe it's also that they are so quiet, which can be very scary too. Of course, abandoned places are also handy for horror film directors in that it's more believable that you will have no phone coverage there either. The hero has been driving for hours. It's night-time and it's beginning to rain. Suddenly he sees a person on the side of the road. Maybe the company will keep him awake? In horror films, giving anybody a ride is asking for trouble. The hero always does it, and it always ends badly. This horror film cliché was especially popular with horror films of the late 20th century. It starts with a group of teenagers all enjoying themselves, and it ends with everyone dead except one girl. At the beginning, the girl is usually innocent, shy and not particularly strong. By the end, she has become the toughest and most resourceful person in the world. The last girl almost always wins in the end. Why do horror film directors find abandoned places handy?

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Since almost the beginning of cinema, we have had scary films. Of all the genres that exist, horror is perhaps one of the most conventional. Many horror films rely on specific plot devices, also called tropes, to make their audience frightened. When a trope is used too much, it can become a cliché. But when used well, it can really make us jump out of our skin. Here are some of the most used, and perhaps abused, clichés in horror films. No matter what kind of house it is, the basement is a scary place in horror films. That's usually where something is hiding or where the evil psychopath has hidden their tools. Basements are always dark and often damp. You can only reach them by a narrow staircase. And basements are always creepy, even when there isn't anything down there. In older horror films, when protagonists were in desperation, it was difficult or impossible for them to call for help or call the police. Mobile phones have made that situation a bit less believable now. What's the solution to maintain suspense? No phone coverage! If you're a hero in a horror film, it's almost certain that at a key moment, just when you absolutely need to call for help, you will not have any coverage at all. Or your phone battery will die just as you are making the call. Or both. Directors of horror films love uninhabited places. This could be an abandoned hospital, a scary empty house or a ghost town. There's something about lonely, empty places. What was it like when people lived there? Why did they leave? Maybe it's also that they are so quiet, which can be very scary too. Of course, abandoned places are also handy for horror film directors in that it's more believable that you will have no phone coverage there either. The hero has been driving for hours. It's night-time and it's beginning to rain. Suddenly he sees a person on the side of the road. Maybe the company will keep him awake? In horror films, giving anybody a ride is asking for trouble. The hero always does it, and it always ends badly. This horror film cliché was especially popular with horror films of the late 20th century. It starts with a group of teenagers all enjoying themselves, and it ends with everyone dead except one girl. At the beginning, the girl is usually innocent, shy and not particularly strong. By the end, she has become the toughest and most resourceful person in the world. The last girl almost always wins in the end. Horror film as a genre

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Too many parents these days can't say no. As a result, they find themselves raising 'children' who respond greedily to the advertisements aimed right at them. Even getting what they want doesn't satisfy some kids; they only want more. Now, a growing number of psychologists, educators and parents think it's time to stop the madness and start teaching kids about what's really important : values like hard work, contentment, honesty and compassion. The struggle to set limits has never been tougher—and the stakes have never been higher. One recent study of adults who were overindulged as children, paints a discouraging picture of their future : when given too much too soon, they grow up to be adults who have difficulty coping with life's disappointments. They also have a distorted sense of entitlement that gets in the way of success in the workplace and in relationships. Psychologists say that parents who overindulge their kids set them up to be more vulnerable to future anxiety and depression. Today's parents themselves raised on values of thrift and self-sacrifice, grew up in a culture where 'no' was a household word. Today's kids want much more, partly because there is so much more to want. By every measure, parents are shelling out record amounts. In the heat of the buying blitz, even parents who desperately need to say no find themselves reaching for their credit cards. Today's parents aren't equipped to deal with the problem. Many even wear the same designer clothes as their kids and listen to the same music. And they work more hours; at the end of a long week, it's tempting to buy peace with 'yes' and not mar precious family time with conflict. Anxiety about the future is another factor. Experts agree : too much love won't spoil a child. Too few limits will. What parents need to find, is a balance between the advantages of an affluent society and the critical life lessons that come from waiting, saving and working hard to achieve goals. That search for balance has to start early. Children need limits on their behaviour because they feel better and more secure when they live within a secured structure. Older children learn self-control by watching how others, especially parents act. Learning how to overcome challenges is essential to becoming a successful adult. Few parents ask kids to do chores. They think their kids are already overburdened by social and academic pressures. Every individual can be of service to others, and life has meaning beyond one's own immediate happiness. That means parents eager to teach values have to take a long, hard look at their own. What is the primary danger lurking behind the overindulgence of parents?

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Too many parents these days can't say no. As a result, they find themselves raising 'children' who respond greedily to the advertisements aimed right at them. Even getting what they want doesn't satisfy some kids; they only want more. Now, a growing number of psychologists, educators and parents think it's time to stop the madness and start teaching kids about what's really important : values like hard work, contentment, honesty and compassion. The struggle to set limits has never been tougher—and the stakes have never been higher. One recent study of adults who were overindulged as children, paints a discouraging picture of their future : when given too much too soon, they grow up to be adults who have difficulty coping with life's disappointments. They also have a distorted sense of entitlement that gets in the way of success in the workplace and in relationships. Psychologists say that parents who overindulge their kids set them up to be more vulnerable to future anxiety and depression. Today's parents themselves raised on values of thrift and self-sacrifice, grew up in a culture where 'no' was a household word. Today's kids want much more, partly because there is so much more to want. By every measure, parents are shelling out record amounts. In the heat of the buying blitz, even parents who desperately need to say no find themselves reaching for their credit cards. Today's parents aren't equipped to deal with the problem. Many even wear the same designer clothes as their kids and listen to the same music. And they work more hours; at the end of a long week, it's tempting to buy peace with 'yes' and not mar precious family time with conflict. Anxiety about the future is another factor. Experts agree : too much love won't spoil a child. Too few limits will. What parents need to find, is a balance between the advantages of an affluent society and the critical life lessons that come from waiting, saving and working hard to achieve goals. That search for balance has to start early. Children need limits on their behaviour because they feel better and more secure when they live within a secured structure. Older children learn self-control by watching how others, especially parents act. Learning how to overcome challenges is essential to becoming a successful adult. Few parents ask kids to do chores. They think their kids are already overburdened by social and academic pressures. Every individual can be of service to others, and life has meaning beyond one's own immediate happiness. That means parents eager to teach values have to take a long, hard look at their own. Limits should be set on children's behaviour so that

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : The Scandinavian countries are much admired all over the world for their enlightened social policies. Sweden has evolved an excellent system for protecting the individual citizen from high-handed or incompetent public officers. The Swedish were the first to recognise that public officials like civil servants, police officers, health inspectors or tax collectors can make mistakes or act over-zealously in the belief that they are serving the public. As long ago as 1809, the Swedish Parliament introduced a scheme to safeguard the interest of the individual. A parliamentary committee representing all political parties appoints a person who is suitably qualified to investigate private grievances against the State. The official title of the person is 'Justice Ombudsman' but Swedish commonly refer to him as the 'JO' or 'Ombudsman'. The Ombudsman is not subject to political pressure. He investigates complaints, large and small, that come to him from all levels of society. As complaints must be made in writing, the Ombudsman receives an average of 1200 letters a year. He has eight lawyer assistants to help him, and he examines every single letter in detail. There is nothing secretive about the Ombudsman's work, for his correspondence is open to public inspection. If a citizen's complaint is justified, the Ombudsman will act on his behalf. The action he takes varies according to the nature of the complaint. He may gently reprimand an official or even suggest to the Parliament that the law needs to be altered. Why did Sweden introduce the institution of Ombudsman?

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : The Scandinavian countries are much admired all over the world for their enlightened social policies. Sweden has evolved an excellent system for protecting the individual citizen from high-handed or incompetent public officers. The Swedish were the first to recognise that public officials like civil servants, police officers, health inspectors or tax collectors can make mistakes or act over-zealously in the belief that they are serving the public. As long ago as 1809, the Swedish Parliament introduced a scheme to safeguard the interest of the individual. A parliamentary committee representing all political parties appoints a person who is suitably qualified to investigate private grievances against the State. The official title of the person is 'Justice Ombudsman' but Swedish commonly refer to him as the 'JO' or 'Ombudsman'. The Ombudsman is not subject to political pressure. He investigates complaints, large and small, that come to him from all levels of society. As complaints must be made in writing, the Ombudsman receives an average of 1200 letters a year. He has eight lawyer assistants to help him, and he examines every single letter in detail. There is nothing secretive about the Ombudsman's work, for his correspondence is open to public inspection. If a citizen's complaint is justified, the Ombudsman will act on his behalf. The action he takes varies according to the nature of the complaint. He may gently reprimand an official or even suggest to the Parliament that the law needs to be altered. A critical feature of the Ombudsman is

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Mike and Morris lived in the same village. While Morris owned the largest jewellery shop in the village, Mike was a poor farmer. Both had large families with many sons, daughters-in-law and grandchildren. One fine day, Mike, tired of not being able to feed his family, decided to leave the village and move to the city where he was certain to earn enough to feed everyone. Along with his family, he left the village for the city. At night, they stopped under a large tree. There was a stream running nearby where they could freshen up themselves. He told his sons to clear the area below the tree, he told his wife to fetch water and he instructed his daughters-in-law to make up the fire and started cutting wood from the tree himself. They didn't know that in the branches of the tree, there was a thief hiding. He watched as Mike's family worked together and also noticed that they had nothing to cook. Mike's wife also thought the same and asked her husband, "Everything is ready but what shall we eat?" Mike raised his hands to heaven and said, "Don't worry. He is watching all of this from above. He will help us." The thief got worried as he had seen that the family was large and worked well together. Taking advantage of the fact that they did not know he was hiding in the branches, he decided to make a quick escape. He climbed down safely when they were not looking and ran for his life. But, he left behind the bundle of stolen jewels and money which dropped into Mike's lap. Mike opened it and jumped with joy when he saw the contents. The family gathered all their belongings and returned to the village. There was great excitement when they told everyone how they got rich. Morris thought that the tree was miraculous and this was a nice and quick way to earn some money. He ordered his family to pack some clothes and they set off as if on a journey. They also stopped under the same tree and Morris started commanding everyone as Mike had done. But no one in his family was willing to obey his orders. Being a rich family, they were used to having servants all around. So, the one who went to the river to fetch water enjoyed a nice bath. The one who went to get wood for fire went off to sleep. Morris' wife said, "Everything is ready but what shall we eat?" Morris raised his hands and said, "Don't worry. He is watching all of this from above. He will help us." As soon as he finished saying, the thief jumped down from the tree with a knife in hand. Seeing him, everyone started running around to save their lives. The thief stole everything they had and Morris and his family had to return to the village empty-handed, having lost all their valuables that they had taken with them. According to the passage, why did Morris and his family decide to rest under the thief's tree?

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Mike and Morris lived in the same village. While Morris owned the largest jewellery shop in the village, Mike was a poor farmer. Both had large families with many sons, daughters-in-law and grandchildren. One fine day, Mike, tired of not being able to feed his family, decided to leave the village and move to the city where he was certain to earn enough to feed everyone. Along with his family, he left the village for the city. At night, they stopped under a large tree. There was a stream running nearby where they could freshen up themselves. He told his sons to clear the area below the tree, he told his wife to fetch water and he instructed his daughters-in-law to make up the fire and started cutting wood from the tree himself. They didn't know that in the branches of the tree, there was a thief hiding. He watched as Mike's family worked together and also noticed that they had nothing to cook. Mike's wife also thought the same and asked her husband, "Everything is ready but what shall we eat?" Mike raised his hands to heaven and said, "Don't worry. He is watching all of this from above. He will help us." The thief got worried as he had seen that the family was large and worked well together. Taking advantage of the fact that they did not know he was hiding in the branches, he decided to make a quick escape. He climbed down safely when they were not looking and ran for his life. But, he left behind the bundle of stolen jewels and money which dropped into Mike's lap. Mike opened it and jumped with joy when he saw the contents. The family gathered all their belongings and returned to the village. There was great excitement when they told everyone how they got rich. Morris thought that the tree was miraculous and this was a nice and quick way to earn some money. He ordered his family to pack some clothes and they set off as if on a journey. They also stopped under the same tree and Morris started commanding everyone as Mike had done. But no one in his family was willing to obey his orders. Being a rich family, they were used to having servants all around. So, the one who went to the river to fetch water enjoyed a nice bath. The one who went to get wood for fire went off to sleep. Morris' wife said, "Everything is ready but what shall we eat?" Morris raised his hands and said, "Don't worry. He is watching all of this from above. He will help us." As soon as he finished saying, the thief jumped down from the tree with a knife in hand. Seeing him, everyone started running around to save their lives. The thief stole everything they had and Morris and his family had to return to the village empty-handed, having lost all their valuables that they had taken with them. The thief had left back the bag of jewellery behind on the tree because

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Elections were in the air of the world's youngest democracy when I arrived in Thimphu. This was for a by-election in the capital city, that dominated the conversation at dinners, even in Thimphu's most fun night-spot Mojo Park (the best music in town). Bhutan has taken to democracy with ease ever since 2008 when the first proper elections were held, a process India has helped out with, sending officials from the Election Commission travelling to check arrangements, explain electronic voting machine (EVM) technology and procedures. However, there are many things uniquely Bhutanese : Monks and nuns in this deeply religious Buddhist majority are not allowed to vote, so as to avoid mixing religion and politics. All voters must wear their national dress on polling day, but no one—candidate, campaigner or voter—is allowed to wear the Kabney silk and Gyentag, a scarf of honour, for men and women respectively, bestowed only by the King, Patang—the ceremonial sword, or any other sign of rank or royal patronage to avoid a misuse of influence. And, in deference to the environment, no posters can be put up on any public property, including trees, and are mostly restricted to a community billboard for all. May be a thing or two the world's largest democracy could learn from the youngest? While polygamy is practised in some parts, so is polyandry, and divorce settlements are equal and even-handed. Even so, Bhutanese women lag behind in one place that it counts : Parliament. In the last National Assembly Elections, 3/4ths of the 47 seats had only male candidates (nine had females), and four women were elected as MPs. "Misogyny plays only one part of it", explains the only leader of a party (DCT) Lily Wangchuk, who runs a hotel in downtown Thimphu. "Women just don't vote for women, and the lack of women role models in modern Bhutan becomes a vicious cycle." While Bhutan's government and people tell you they are devoted to preserving the country and its beauty, it is plain to see Bhutan is changing everyday in little ways. Less youngsters adhere to the traditional and once mandatory national dress (Goh and Kira), more and more buildings now get permission to rise above the originally regulated two stories, and glass and granite are seen more in Thimphu where once only wood and paint were allowed. Some modernities are welcome, and the abundance of hydropower electricity means many Bhutanese (including the very dashing US-educated Prime Minister Tshering Tobgay) drive hybrid cars. The countryside is still pristine, and not covered with the plastic waste ubiquitous in India, even as Bhutan explores more 'non-wood' uses for its 70% forest cover that is also mandated in the Constitution. Bhutan aims to conserve its pristine environment by

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : Elections were in the air of the world's youngest democracy when I arrived in Thimphu. This was for a by-election in the capital city, that dominated the conversation at dinners, even in Thimphu's most fun night-spot Mojo Park (the best music in town). Bhutan has taken to democracy with ease ever since 2008 when the first proper elections were held, a process India has helped out with, sending officials from the Election Commission travelling to check arrangements, explain electronic voting machine (EVM) technology and procedures. However, there are many things uniquely Bhutanese : Monks and nuns in this deeply religious Buddhist majority are not allowed to vote, so as to avoid mixing religion and politics. All voters must wear their national dress on polling day, but no one—candidate, campaigner or voter—is allowed to wear the Kabney silk and Gyentag, a scarf of honour, for men and women respectively, bestowed only by the King, Patang—the ceremonial sword, or any other sign of rank or royal patronage to avoid a misuse of influence. And, in deference to the environment, no posters can be put up on any public property, including trees, and are mostly restricted to a community billboard for all. May be a thing or two the world's largest democracy could learn from the youngest? While polygamy is practised in some parts, so is polyandry, and divorce settlements are equal and even-handed. Even so, Bhutanese women lag behind in one place that it counts : Parliament. In the last National Assembly Elections, 3/4ths of the 47 seats had only male candidates (nine had females), and four women were elected as MPs. "Misogyny plays only one part of it", explains the only leader of a party (DCT) Lily Wangchuk, who runs a hotel in downtown Thimphu. "Women just don't vote for women, and the lack of women role models in modern Bhutan becomes a vicious cycle." While Bhutan's government and people tell you they are devoted to preserving the country and its beauty, it is plain to see Bhutan is changing everyday in little ways. Less youngsters adhere to the traditional and once mandatory national dress (Goh and Kira), more and more buildings now get permission to rise above the originally regulated two stories, and glass and granite are seen more in Thimphu where once only wood and paint were allowed. Some modernities are welcome, and the abundance of hydropower electricity means many Bhutanese (including the very dashing US-educated Prime Minister Tshering Tobgay) drive hybrid cars. The countryside is still pristine, and not covered with the plastic waste ubiquitous in India, even as Bhutan explores more 'non-wood' uses for its 70% forest cover that is also mandated in the Constitution. One glaring reason that the representation of women in the Bhutanese Parliament is poor is

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : The development of nationalism in the third world countries, as is well-known, followed a very different trajectory from that in the advanced capitalist countries. In the latter it was a part of the process of the emergence of the bourgeois order in opposition of feudalism, while in the former it was a part of the anti-colonial struggle. The impact of colonialism, though it differed across countries, had on the whole been in the direction of transcending localism and unifying supra-local economic structures through the introduction of market relations. The struggle against colonialism, consequently, took the form of a national struggle in each instance in which people belonging to different tribes or linguistic communities participated. And the colonial power in each instance attempted to break this emerging national unity by splitting people. The modus operandi of this splitting was not just through political manipulation as happened for instance in Angola, South Africa and a host of other countries; an important part of this modus operandi was through the nurturing of a historiography that just denied the existence of any overarching national consciousness. The national struggle, the national movement were given a tribal or religious character, they were portrayed as being no more than the movement of the dominant tribe or the dominant religious group for the achievement of narrow sectional ends. But the important point in this colonialism, while, on the one hand, it objectively created the condition for the coming into being of a national consciousness at a supra-tribal, supra-local and supra-religious level, on the other hand it sought deliberately to subvert this very consciousness by using the same forces which it has objectively undermined. How did nationalism originate in the third world countries?

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question : The development of nationalism in the third world countries, as is well-known, followed a very different trajectory from that in the advanced capitalist countries. In the latter it was a part of the process of the emergence of the bourgeois order in opposition of feudalism, while in the former it was a part of the anti-colonial struggle. The impact of colonialism, though it differed across countries, had on the whole been in the direction of transcending localism and unifying supra-local economic structures through the introduction of market relations. The struggle against colonialism, consequently, took the form of a national struggle in each instance in which people belonging to different tribes or linguistic communities participated. And the colonial power in each instance attempted to break this emerging national unity by splitting people. The modus operandi of this splitting was not just through political manipulation as happened for instance in Angola, South Africa and a host of other countries; an important part of this modus operandi was through the nurturing of a historiography that just denied the existence of any overarching national consciousness. The national struggle, the national movement were given a tribal or religious character, they were portrayed as being no more than the movement of the dominant tribe or the dominant religious group for the achievement of narrow sectional ends. But the important point in this colonialism, while, on the one hand, it objectively created the condition for the coming into being of a national consciousness at a supra-tribal, supra-local and supra-religious level, on the other hand it sought deliberately to subvert this very consciousness by using the same forces which it has objectively undermined. The rise of nationalism was sought to be broken by the colonial powers by

Small talk is a

If we want a continuing harmonious relationship in our negotiations, we will adopt

Empathy is

While communicating negative messages, it is important to

Self-esteem, a vital ingredient of interpersonal communication depends on

Interpersonal communication skill is determined by

Valuing diversity and adapting behaviour in a cross-cultural environment is

Listening requires

While communicating in a group, you should

Feedback is crucial as it ensures

Perceptions are largely not

A barrier in communication can be

The gait of a person does not convey

You are most likely to pat and shake hands when

Refer to the alphanumeric series given below and answer the following question : A, *, 5, 9, I, N, &, E, @, #, U, 1, & How many vowels in the above arrangement are preceded by a symbol?

What is the missing element in the series given below? ABD, EFH, IJL, MNP, QRT, ______

When the digits within the following numbers are multiplied with each other, the product of which number is the lowest?

Rita told Mani, “The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter of the brother-in-law of my friend's mother.” How is the girl related to Rita's friend?

If A + B indicates A is the brother of B A − B indicates A is the sister of B A * B indicates A is the father of B then which of the following means that C is the son of M?

From the given options, find the pair which is similar to the pair 8, 4.

An accurate clock shows 7 a.m. at present. How many degrees will the hour hand rotate through when the clock will show 1 p.m. next day?

Statement : In a T20 cricket match played between two teams A and B, the runs scored by team A were 150, of which 120 runs were scored by the spinners. Conclusion I : 80% of team A consisted of spinners. Conclusion II : The opening batters of team A were spinners. Conclusion III : All the specialist batters of team A were spinners. Conclusion IV : The top order batters of team A failed in the match. Select the correct answer from the options given below.

SOUTH is related to NORTH-WEST in the same way as WEST is related to

A garbage truck visits your locality every alternate day. You have observed that the trashmen neither wear boots nor gloves while collecting garbage from the households. You will

The average monthly expenditure of a small manufacturing unit is shown in the following table : Sl. No. 1 — Expenditure head: Raw materials — Expenditure (in rupees lakh): 12.0 Sl. No. 2 — Expenditure head: Salary — Expenditure (in rupees lakh): 4.5 Sl. No. 3 — Expenditure head: Packaging — Expenditure (in rupees lakh): 0.75 Sl. No. 4 — Expenditure head: Transport — Expenditure (in rupees lakh): 0.5 Sl. No. 5 — Expenditure head: Miscellaneous overhead expenditure — Expenditure (in rupees lakh): 3.5 In order to maximize the profit margin, you would

During your morning walk, you observed that one of the iron manhole covers in the footpath is missing. You will

You saw some kids studying in the neighbourhood school throwing garbage on the road. You will

Three persons are currently employed in a certain section of an office, of which you are the in-charge. Two of the employees of the section are on leave today with your prior approval. During the first hour of the day, however, you received a half-day leave application from the third employee of the section. You would

A clock shows the time as 8:30 a.m. What is the measurement of the angle made by the hands of the clock?

If 'P' represents '+', 'Q' represents '÷', 'R' represents '−' and 'S' represents '×', then what will be the value of 9P3S4Q8R7?

Which of the following does not belong to the rest of the group?

If RHINO is coded as PFGLM, then TIGER will be coded as

X reached the venue of a meeting 15 minutes before time. Y reached the same venue 30 minutes late for the meeting. The meeting was over at 11 a.m., 30 minutes after Y reached the meeting. At what time did X reach the venue of the meeting?

A person starts from point A and travels 3 km eastward to point B and then turns left and travels 4 km to reach point C. What is the distance between points A and C?

A person walks towards the direction of his house at 7 a.m. and observes his shadow to the right. In which direction is he walking?

In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. What is the number of cows in the group?

If 80% of the difference of A and B is equal to 20% of the sum of A and B, then what percent of A is B?

If RAT is coded as 9-26-7, then MONK will be coded as

Find the missing number in the figure below : [Circle divided into six sectors, arranged clockwise from top: '?' (top-left), 200 (top-right), 104 (right), 56 (bottom-right), 32 (bottom-left), 20 (left)]

If 25 − 3 = 2 36 − 5 = 1 16 − 4 = 0 then what is 81 − 5 = ?

In the following sequence of numbers, which number will be present between 42 and 170? 6, 10, 22, 42, ____ , 170

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are sitting on a bench in a particular order wearing blue, red, yellow, white and green caps (not necessarily in this order). 1. P is sitting on the right of Q (next to Q) and T and is wearing a red cap. 2. R is sitting in the second position from the right. 3. T is wearing a blue cap. 4. Q is wearing a green cap and S is not wearing a white cap. What is the colour of the cap worn by R and his sitting position from the left?

Choose the correct pair in which the words bear a general relationship.

Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Diamonds are used for cutting glass. Reason (R) : Diamond has high refractive index. Which of the following options is correct?

Given below is the analysis of the result of an examination : 1. Total candidates : 100 2. Passed in all the five subjects : 50 3. Failed only in English : 10 4. Failed only in Mathematics : 8 5. Failed only in Physics : 2 6. Failed only in Chemistry : 5 7. Failed only in Biology : 10 How many candidates passed in at least four subjects?

A train passes through a 1.5 km long tunnel in 2 minutes. If the speed of the train is 60 km per hour, what is the length of the train?

The line graph below shows the yearly production output of a tractor manufacturing company : [Line graph 'Production Figures': No. of units produced (y-axis) vs Year (x-axis). Data points: 2015=500, 2016=600, 2017=700, 2018=800, 2019=900, 2020=1000] In which year, the company suffered the lowest rate of increase in production?

The histogram below shows the cost price in INR, sell price in INR and number of units sold from left to right in the last FY for 4 products P1, P2, P3 and P4 respectively manufactured by a particular company : [Bar chart, three bars per product P1-P4 — Cost price, Sell price, Units sold: P1 = 50, 100, 300; P2 = 75, 125, 300; P3 = 100, 150, 300; P4 = 125, 175, 300] The company achieved the highest margin of return for the product