GPSC: 2. Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International Relations

Which of the following correctly describes India’s engagement with the United Nations (UN)? 1. India is a founding member of the United Nations. 2. India is a permanent member of the UN Security Council (UNSC). 3. India has contributed to multiple UN peacekeeping operations across the world. 4. India has ratified the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Consider the following statements regarding the origin and evolution of the Indian Constitution: Statements: 1. The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th January, 1950. 2. The Government of India Act, 1935 had no influence on the Indian Constitution. 3. The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements correctly describe/(s) the characteristics of the Indian Constitution? Statements: 1. The Indian Constitution establishes India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic. 2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is justiciable and can be enforced in a Court of Law. 3. The Indian Constitution provides a single citizenship for all its citizens. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements accurately reflect/(s) the provisions of the Indian Constitution? Statements: 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enforceable by the courts. 2. The Indian Constitution provides a federal system with unitary features. 3. The Fundamental Rights can be amended by the Parliament without any restrictions. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding important Constitutional Amendments: Statements: 1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is known as the 'Mini-Constitution' as it introduced significant changes, including the words Socialist, Secular and Integrity in the Preamble. 2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 restored certain provisions of the Fundamental Rights that were curtailed during the emergency. 3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 provided constitutional status to urban local bodies. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements correctly pertain/(s) to the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Indian Constitution? Statements: 1. The Basic Structure Doctrine was established by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973). 2. The Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot alter its Basic Structure. 3. The S.R. Bommai Case (1994) reinforced the Basic Structure Doctrine by ruling that secularism is an essential part of the Constitution. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements correctly pertains to the Doctrine of Federalism in India? Statements: 1. Indian federalism is described as 'quasi-federal' due to its unitary bias. 2. The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution demarcates powers between the Centre and the States through Union, State and Concurrent lists. 3. The Government of India Act, 1935 laid the foundation for federal provisions in the Indian Constitution. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following constitutional authorities is a quasi-judicial body? Statements: 1. The Election Commission of India 2. The Finance Commission 3. The National Green Tribunal 4. The Central Vigilance Commission Select the correct option:

Which of the following statements correctly describe/(s) the powers and responsibilities of statutory and quasi-judicial bodies in India? 1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a quasi-judicial body that has the power to adjudicate the disputes related to political parties under the Tenth Schedule. 2. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body that exclusively handles environmental disputes under the NGT Act, 2010. 3. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is a constitutional body responsible for investigating corruption cases in the country. 4. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates financial markets but does not have quasi-judicial powers. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The power of the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment under Article 72 applies to: 1. Offenses against laws made by Parliament 2. Offenses committed by members of the armed forces 3. Death penalty cases 4. Offenses against state laws Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is related to local self-governance in India? 1. 61st Amendment Act, 1989 2. 69th Amendment Act, 1991 3. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 4. 74th Amendment Act, 1992 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Which of the following policies or programs are aimed at improving governance at the state and central level? 1. Digital India Mission 2. Smart Cities Mission 3. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Scheme 4. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India was introduced to: 1. Allow the courts to take suo motu cognizance of matters affecting the public interest. 2. Ensure legal representation for the economically weaker sections of society. 3. Enable NGOs and activists to file petitions on behalf of affected communities. 4. Restrict the judiciary’s power to interfere in government policy decisions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Which of the following correctly describes the doctrine of Collective Responsibility under the Indian Constitution? 1. It applies only to the Union Council of Ministers and not to the State Councils of Ministers. 2. It means that ministers must publicly support cabinet decisions even if they personally disagree. 3. The President can dismiss an individual minister for misconduct, even if the Council of Ministers retains confidence. 4. The doctrine finds its constitutional basis in Article 75 at the Union level and Article 164 at the State level. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Which of the following statements regarding judicial activism in India are correct? 1. It refers to proactive judicial intervention in legislative and executive matters to uphold constitutional values. 2. Judicial activism in India gained momentum through Public Interest Litigations (PILs). 3. The judiciary can strike down laws or executive actions that violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution. 4. The Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) explicitly defined judicial activism as a constitutional doctrine. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following statements about India's quasi-judicial bodies are correct? 1. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) can impose penalties for human rights violations. 2. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) deals with disputes related to the service conditions of civil servants. 3. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is responsible for regulating monopolistic trade practices. 4. The Election Commission of India (ECI) has quasi-judicial powers in matters related to the Model Code of Conduct violations. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following institutions play a key role in India’s international relations? 1. Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) 2. Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) 3. Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) 4. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution deal with the separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary? 1. Article 50 – Separation of Judiciary from the Executive 2. Article 123 – Ordinance-making power of the President 3. Article 246 – Division of legislative powers between Centre and States 4. Article 312 – Creation of All India Services Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following correctly describes the role of State Election Commissions (SECs) under the Indian Constitution? 1. SECs conduct elections to Panchayati Raj institutions and Municipal bodies. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner of India has the authority to remove a State Election Commissioner. 3. SECs derive their powers from Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Constitution. 4. The tenure and conditions of service of State Election Commissioners are determined by the Governor of the state. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

The Indo-US Nuclear Deal (2008) was controversial because: 1. It allowed India to engage in nuclear trade despite not being a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). 2. It imposed restrictions on India's sovereign right to conduct nuclear tests. 3. The deal was signed under the WTO framework. 4. It led to the introduction of a Confidence Motion in Parliament due to political opposition. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following statements correctly describe India's federal structure? 1. India follows a quasi-federal system with a strong center. 2. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States is outlined in Schedule 7 of the Constitution. 3. The Finance Commission is responsible for determining the financial relations between the Union and the States. 4. The Governor has the power to dissolve a State Assembly even without the recommendation of the Council of Ministers. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following statements about the Constitutional Amendments in India are correct? 1. The First Constitutional Amendment (1951) introduced reasonable restrictions on fundamental rights. 2. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is also known as the 'Mini-Constitution' of India. 3. The 44th Amendment (1978) restored the fundamental rights diluted by the 42nd Amendment. 4. The 101st Amendment (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure of the Indian Judiciary? 1. The Supreme Court of India was established under Article 124 of the Constitution. 2. The High Courts in India function under Articles 214-231 of the Constitution. 3. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Council of Ministers. 4. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 for violating judicial independence. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following correctly describes the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935? 1. It introduced Provincial Autonomy and abolished Diarchy at the provincial level. 2. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court in India. 3. It proposed a federation of British India and Princely States though the federation never materialized. 4. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Rights for the first time in India. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following statements about Local Self-Government in India is correct? 1. The Panchayati Raj System is based on the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957). 2. The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 provided for the establishment of three-tier Panchayati Raj institutions in all states. 3. The 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with powers and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj institutions. 4. The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting elections to both Panchayati Raj institutions and State Legislatures. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Which of the following statements about Judicial Review in India are correct? 1. Judicial Review is derived from Article 13 of the Indian Constitution. 2. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to review both Constitutional Amendments and laws. 3. The Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973) established that the basic structure of the constitution cannot be amended. 4. Judicial Review in India is broader than in the United States, as it allows for the review of Constitutional Amendments. Select the correct answer using the codes below: