Q: Consider the following international events:
1. Signing of the Simla Agreement
2. Agra Summit between India and Pakistan
3. Signing of the SAARC Charter at the First SAARC Summit
4. India's first nuclear test
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(a)1, 3, 4, 2
(b)4, 1, 3, 2
(c)1, 4, 3, 2
(d)4, 1, 2, 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following features is correct about the 'First Past the Post System' of election?
(a)A candidate who wins may not get the majority of votes
(b)More than one representative may be elected from one constituency
(c)Voters vote for the party, not the candidate
(d)Every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to percentage of votes that it gets
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Special provision in the Constitution of India)
A. Article 371
B. Article 371-A
C. Article 371-B
D. Article 371-I
List-II (State)
1. Nagaland
2. Gujarat
3. Assam
4. Goa
Code :
(a)A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(b)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(c)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Provision for the reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha has been made vide 106th Amendment of the Constitution.
2. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for women in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of the States.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for women in Panchayats.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 only
(d)3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one among the following pairs of Subjects and Lists under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correctly matched ?
(a)Forest : Concurrent List
(b)Taxes on land and building : State List
(c)Insurance : Union List
(d)Census : Concurrent List
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to the Preamble to the Constitution of India are correct ?
1. The word 'secular' comes before the word 'socialist'.
2. The word 'justice' comes before the word 'equality'.
3. The word 'fraternity' comes after the word 'liberty'.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following statements about 'Motions' in the Parliament of India is correct ?
(a)A Motion of No-Confidence can be admissible against an individual minister in the Council of Ministers.
(b)A No-Confidence Motion must set out grounds on which it is based.
(c)Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of No-Confidence.
(d)A Censure Motion need not be based on specific grounds or charges.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Part IV-A of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following areas ?
(a)Appointment of Members to Public Service Commissions
(b)Fundamental Duties
(c)Functions of Public Service Commissions
(d)Provisions for the functioning of the State Governments
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The 'Durand Line' is a border demarcation that separates which of the following countries ?
(a)Afghanistan and Iran
(b)Afghanistan and Pakistan
(c)India and Pakistan
(d)Afghanistan and China
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following social movements:
1. Chipko Movement
2. Bardoli Satyagraha
3. Satyashodhak Samaj
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the launch of the above social movements ?
(a)2, 1, 3
(b)3, 1, 2
(c)3, 2, 1
(d)1, 2, 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following statements about the Tashkent Agreement is correct?
(a)It was an agreement between India and the Soviet Union.
(b)It was an agreement between India and Pakistan.
(c)It was an agreement that led to the formation of Bangladesh.
(d)It was an agreement between India and Mongolia.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which among the following is not a language listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a)Manipuri
(b)Gondi
(c)Nepali
(d)Dogri
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following can be considered a part of the ancient Indian Smriti Literature?
1. Puranas
2. Ramayana
3. Kalpa-Sutra
4. Vedas
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1, 2 and 3 only
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Who among the following was India's first Woman Chief Minister?
(a)Sarojini Naidu
(b)Sucheta Kripalani
(c)Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(d)Hansa Mehta
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. C. Rajagopalachari was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna.
2. Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya initiated the concept of 'Integral Humanism'.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following pairs of Institute and their location is/are correctly matched?
1. Indian Institute of Advanced Study : Shimla
2. Indian Institue of Public Administration : New Delhi
3. Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Service : Nainital
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 only
(d)2 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Erok Sim is a festival mainly celebrated by the Santhal community.
2. Sangken is a Buddhist festival celebrated in Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: 'Maitree' is a Joint Military Exercise between India and:
(a)Bangladesh
(b)Thailand
(c)Malaysia
(d)Sri Lanka
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following criteria are specified for granting Special Category Status to States in India?
1. Hilly and difficult terrain
2. Economic and infrastructural backwardness
3. Strategic coastal zone
4. Sizeable share of tribal population
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1, 2 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Who among the following is the founder of the Congress Socialist Party?
(a)Acharya Narendra Dev
(b)Jawaharlal Nehru
(c)Motilal Nehru
(d)Asoka Mehta
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The rule to determine the direction of a current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field is:
(a)Right-Hand Thumb Rule.
(b)Fleming's Left-Hand Rule.
(c)Fleming's Right-Hand Rule.
(d)Hund's Rule.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: A car travels a total distance L. It travels half the distance with speed v₁ and the other half with speed v₂. The average speed of the car is:
(a)(v₁ + v₂)/2
(b)2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂)
(c)(v₁ + v₂)L/(2v₁v₂)
(d)0
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The linear momentum of a particle is conserved if:
(a)the net force on it is maximum.
(b)the net force on it is zero.
(c)the net torque on it is zero.
(d)the net work done on it is maximum.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: When a stone tied to a string is whirled in a circle, the work done on it by the string:
(a)is positive.
(b)is negative.
(c)is zero.
(d)depends on the mass of the stone.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Assume 'A' does 500 J of work in 'x' minutes and 'B' does 1000 J of work in 20 minutes. If the power delivered by 'A' is P₁ and 'B' is P₂ and P₁ = 2P₂, then 'x', in minutes is:
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: A sound wave travelling at a speed of 330 m/s produces 20 crests and 20 troughs in 0.1 second. The wavelength of the sound wave is :
(a)1.1 m
(b)3.3 m
(c)1.65 m
(d)2.2 m
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: An X-ray can be deflected :
(a)by a magnetic field.
(b)by an electric field.
(c)by both electric and magnetic field.
(d)neither by electric field nor by magnetic field.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: In a simple astronomical telescope, the objective and the eyepiece used respectively, are :
(a)a convergent lens and a divergent lens.
(b)a divergent lens and a divergent lens.
(c)a divergent lens and a convergent lens.
(d)a convergent lens and a convergent lens.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Twinkling of a star is due to :
(a)Interference of light
(b)Refraction of light
(c)Polarization of light
(d)Diffraction of light
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Van de Graaff generator generates :
(a)electrostatic charge
(b)magnetic field
(c)high voltage low alternating current
(d)high voltage low direct current
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following metals is widely extracted by the electrolysis of its molten compound?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following is not a property of 'graphene'?
(a)It is the thinnest material known so far.
(b)It is almost completely transparent.
(c)It is highly conducting.
(d)It is a wide band-gap semiconductor.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Why do plastics not degrade easily?
(a)They have strong ionic bonds.
(b)They have strong covalent bonds.
(c)They have strong metallic bonds.
(d)They have very high melting points (> 500 °C).
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following is the correct chemical formula of carboxylic acid?
(a)C3H7OH
(b)C3H8
(c)C2H5COOH
(d)CH3COCH3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following statements is not correct for benzene?
(a)Each carbon atom forms sigma bonds with two other carbon atoms with a bond angle of 120°.
(b)Delocalized electrons create a symmetrical 'cloud' of electrons above and below the plane.
(c)The length of C – C bonds is intermediate between single and double bonds.
(d)It has six isomers.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following is not a nitrogen fertilizer?
(a)(NH₄)₂SO₄
(b)NH₄NO₃
(c)N₂
(d)(NH₂)₂CO
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following general electronic configurations correctly represent a transition metal element?
(a)(n – 2) d¹⁻¹⁰ ns²
(b)(n – 2) f¹⁻¹⁴ (n – 1) d⁰⁻¹ ns²
(c)ns² np⁶ nd¹⁻¹⁰
(d)(n – 1) d¹⁻¹⁰ ns⁰⁻²
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Variable oxidation numbers are possible for:
(a)Sodium
(b)Calcium
(c)Iron
(d)Lithium
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following gas smells like a rotten egg?
(a)Ammonia
(b)Hydrogen sulphide
(c)Acetylene
(d)Sulphur dioxide
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The chemical reaction
K₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ ⟶ 2KCl + BaSO₄↓
(aq.) (aq.) (aq.) (solid)
is an example of:
(a)Addition reaction
(b)Displacement reaction
(c)Decomposition reaction
(d)Double displacement reaction
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one among the following is the correct scheme followed for classification of animals?
(a)Class → Phylum → Order → Genus → Family → Species
(b)Phylum → Class → Family → Genus → Order → Species
(c)Order → Class → Phylum → Family → Species → Genus
(d)Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following is an example of airborne disease?
(a)Tuberculosis
(b)Malaria
(c)Dengue
(d)Cholera
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: What are the four human blood types in ABO blood group typing?
(a)AO, BO, A and B
(b)A, B, AB and O
(c)A, AB, BO and O
(d)AB, AO, B and O
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following is not a part of the male reproductive system in human beings?
(a)Prostate gland
(b)Testis
(c)Cervix
(d)Scrotum
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following are the different parts of a human brain?
(a)Forefront brain, Standard brain and Hind brain
(b)Fore brain, Median brain and Rear brain
(c)Fore brain, Mid brain and Hind brain
(d)Precursor brain, Mean brain and Hind brain
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Tooth enamel of humans is made up of:
(a)Calcium phosphate
(b)Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c)Sodium hydroxide
(d)Lactic acid
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The inner lining of the human small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called:
(a)Sphincter
(b)Villi
(c)Enzymes
(d)Plaques
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following represent disaccharides?
(a)Starch and glycogen
(b)Glucose and galactose
(c)Maltose and lactose
(d)Ribose and xylose
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following organelles can be seen in a prokaryotic cell?
(a)Mitochondria
(b)Definitive nucleus
(c)Ribosomes
(d)Golgi bodies
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: A solution with a pH value less than 7 is a/an:
(a)Neutral solution
(b)Basic solution
(c)Acidic solution
(d)Hypotonic solution
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements about the Bengal countryside at the time of the Permanent Settlement:
1. The zamindars' troops were disbanded.
2. Within the villages, the power of jotedars was more effective than that of zamindars.
3. The East India Company made a rule that the property of women would not be taken over.
4. Adhiyars were sharecroppers on the land owned by bargadars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2, 3 and 4
(d)1 and 3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Journal/Newspaper/Pamphlet)
A. Kudi Arasu
B. Kisan Bulletin
C. Bombay Chronicle
D. Bhawani Mandir
List-II (Founder/Editor/Author)
1. Aurobindo Ghosh
2. Pherozeshah Mehta
3. Indulal Yagnik
4. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
Code:
(a)4, 3, 2, 1
(b)4, 2, 3, 1
(c)1, 3, 2, 4
(d)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements about the Ghadar Movement is/are correct?
1. The Ghadar Movement began in 1913 in San Francisco.
2. The movement was founded by Sohan Singh Bhakna.
3. The Ghadar Movement took its name from the weekly Ghadar brought out in several Indian languages.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Chronologically arrange the formation of the following political associations, beginning from the earliest:
1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
2. Indian Association
3. Madras Mahajan Sabha
4. Bombay Presidency Association
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1, 2, 3, 4
(b)4, 3, 2, 1
(c)1, 2, 4, 3
(d)3, 4, 1, 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following periods has provided the evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan in Rajasthan?
(a)Early Harappan
(b)Mature Harappan
(c)Late Harappan
(d)Chalcolithic
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following events:
1. Muslim League Resolution for Pakistan
2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
3. Dandi March
4. Second Round Table Conference
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest)?
(a)2, 3, 1, 4
(b)3, 2, 4, 1
(c)3, 4, 2, 1
(d)2, 3, 4, 1
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following pairs:
(Historical Place) — (Well-known for)
I. Girnar : Sudarshana Lake
II. Cholistan : Terracotta model of Plough
III. Mant (near Mathura): Headless standing figure of Kanishka
IV. Sannati : Asokan Pillar Edict in Odisha
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: With reference to the "Amara-Nayaka system", which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)It was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
(b)They were military commanders, who were given territories to govern and collect taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area.
(c)They retained part of the revenue for personal use and to maintain a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
(d)They were not allowed to use their share of revenue for the maintenance of temples.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The popular poem "Khoob ladi mardani woh to Jhansi wali rani thi" (Like a man she fought, she was the Rani of Jhansi) was written by:
(a)Mahadevi Varma
(b)Subhadra Kumari Chauhan
(c)Amrita Pritam
(d)Balamani Amma
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements about Ellora:
1. This art-historical site is associated exclusively with Buddhism.
2. The Kailasa temple at Ellora has been built of dressed stone and kiln fired bricks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: In which one of the following states are the Guntupalle Buddhist Caves located?
(a)Andhra Pradesh
(b)Karnataka
(c)Tamil Nadu
(d)Kerala
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements about Ajanta Cave paintings:
1. The paintings depict yakshas, gandharvas and apsaras.
2. The artists have used the technique of providing "multiple perspectives".
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: "Neel Darpan", a play that depicted the atrocities on the indigo planters, was translated into English by:
(a)Dinabandhu Mitra
(b)Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(c)James Long
(d)James C. Scott
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: With reference to the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements:
1. Shah Mal mobilised the people of Baraut region of Uttar Pradesh and captured the bungalow of an Englishman and converted it into a "hall of justice".
2. Gonoo was a Kol leader of the Singhbhum region of Chotanagpur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following books portrays three images of the Mother Goddess: "Mother as she was", "Mother as she is" and "Mother as she will be"?
(a)Durgeshnandini
(b)Kapalkundala
(c)Anandamath
(d)Devi Chaudhurani
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: With reference to the women achievers in modern India, consider the following statements:
1. Pandita Ramabai published a book "A Comparison Between Women and Men" where she protested against the colonial view that men enjoyed all the rights, opportunities and benefits of change.
2. Tarabai Shinde worked in the field of medicine to reduce child mortality in rural India.
3. Sarojini Naidu led a delegation to London to demand for female franchise.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The Sanikatta Salt Works, known for Salt Satyagraha, is located in:
(a)Gujarat
(b)Tamil Nadu
(c)Kerala
(d)Karnataka
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The Kalaram temple, known for temple entry movements in the early twentieth century, is located in which state of India?
(a)Maharashtra
(b)Kerala
(c)Tamil Nadu
(d)Gujarat
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Matangini Hazra and Lakshman Naik sacrificed their lives in:
(a)Bardoli Satyagraha
(b)Non-Cooperation Movement
(c)Civil Disobedience Movement
(d)Quit India Movement
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: With reference to the history of India, the word “kopeki” is associated with:
(a)Clothes
(b)Coins
(c)Land measurement
(d)A type of sport in South India
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one among the following pairs of type of firm and feature is not correctly matched?
(a)Oligopoly firm : Interdependence in decision-making
(b)Monopolistic firm : Firm is a price setter
(c)Monopoly firm : Produces an efficient level of output
(d)Perfectly competitive firm : Produces socially optimum output
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Union Budget 2025 increased the Sectoral cap of FDI to 100 per cent from 74 per cent for:
(a)Telecom Sector
(b)Power Sector
(c)Defence Sector
(d)Insurance Sector
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The practice of reducing the size of a product while maintaining its sticker price is called:
(a)Shrinkflation
(b)Reflation
(c)Disinflation
(d)Deflation
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements about innovation and research and development in India:
1. India's rank in Global Innovation Index reported by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has improved significantly between 2015 and 2024.
2. Funding of research and development is sourced primarily from private sector entities and is sectorally concentrated in pharmaceuticals and information technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements about the Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE):
1. The IIE was established in 1999 in Guwahati.
2. The main aim of the institute is to provide training, research and consulting activities for small and micro enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements about Union Government's Expenditure on revenue account and effective capital expenditure:
1. Effective capital expenditure as percentage of GDP has increased from 2020 – 21 to 2023 – 24.
2. Expenditure on revenue account as percentage of GDP has increased from 2020 – 21 to 2023 – 24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one among the following statements about the Districts as Export Hubs (DEH) in India is not correct?
(a)DEH was launched in August 2019.
(b)The aim of DEH is to boost exports of only selected districts of the country.
(c)India's Foreign Trade Policy 2023 reiterated the role of DEH.
(d)DEH aims to promote exports by providing financial inclusion and facilitating logistical and infrastructural support.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements about Tim Tim Tare (TTT) is/are correct?
1. TTT is a pioneering initiative that aims at imparting essential life skills to adolescent students across India.
2. TTT is a pioneering initiative that aims at imparting vocational and technical skills to students across India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements regarding Annual Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) report 2023–24 by the National Statistical Organization (NSO):
1. The agriculture sector remains dominant in employment, with its share rising from about 44 per cent in 2017–18 to about 46 per cent in 2023–24.
2. The share of female workers in agriculture has increased during the period 2017–18 to 2023–24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following platforms marks a transformative step in India's immunization efforts by digitizing vaccination records for pregnant women and children up to 16 years?
(a)U-WIN
(b)PM-ABHIM
(c)eSanjeevani
(d)FDSI
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which language uses the symbolic representation of machine codes needed to program a particular processor or processor family?
(a)Machine Language
(b)Assembly Language
(c)High-Level Language
(d)All of the above
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: What are the uses of software ports?
1. Connect client computer to server
2. Connect external devices to computer
3. Identify different services like email, file transfer
4. Connecting peripherals like cameras, scanners
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)2 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Assuming the computer is a 4-bit computer, what result is produced after subtraction of 3 from 5 using the 2's complement representation?
(a)0101
(b)10010
(c)1101
(d)11001
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following is not a logical operator?
(a)NOT
(b)OR
(c)AND
(d)Division
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which among the following are the purposes of deploying a Firewall?
1. Examine each packet arriving from Internet
2. Prevent unauthorised access
3. Block suspicious activity
4. Interconnect telephones
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 3 and 4
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Amsterdam-St. Paul Plateau is located in which one of the following oceanic regions?
(a)Arctic Ocean
(b)North Atlantic Ocean
(c)Southern Indian Ocean
(d)South Pacific Ocean
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following pairs of City and Lake is not correctly matched?
(a)Buffalo : Erie
(b)Detroit : Superior
(c)Milwaukee : Michigan
(d)Toronto : Ontario
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to lines of latitudes is/are correct?
1. The distance between two successive latitudes changes slightly from the equator to the poles.
2. If parallels of latitude are drawn at an interval of one degree, the total number of parallels thus drawn, including the equator, will be 179.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Arrange the following major elements present in the Earth's crust, in ascending order, in weight percentage:
1. Aluminium
2. Calcium
3. Silicon
4. Oxygen
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)3, 4, 1, 2
(b)4, 3, 1, 2
(c)2, 1, 3, 4
(d)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Island / Nation)
A. Comoros
B. Baffin Island
C. Sri Lanka
D. Andaman Islands
List-II (Tectonic Plate)
1. North American Plate
2. African Plate
3. Eurasian Plate
4. Indo-Australian Plate
Code :
(a)A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(b)A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(c)A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
(d)A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Richter scale is/are correct ?
1. It is the intensity scale of an earthquake.
2. Richter indicates the amount of energy released during the earthquake.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Glacial trough is/are correct ?
1. Alpine glaciers strip valleys of their soil, regolith and sediment to form glacial troughs.
2. When the sea level is below the floor of a glacial trough, the seawater enters as the ice front recedes, creating a fiord.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements with reference to Mid-latitude deciduous forests :
1. Mid-latitude deciduous forests consist largely of trees that drop their leaves during the summer season.
2. Mid-latitude deciduous forests are native to eastern North America and Western Europe.
3. In Asia, the Mid-latitude deciduous forests occur as a belt between the boreal forest to the north and steppe lands to the south.
4. Beech, Hickory and Walnut are common examples of trees found in Mid-latitude deciduous forests.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1, 2 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)2, 3 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Arrange the following permanent gases present in the atmosphere in ascending order:
1. Helium
2. Hydrogen
3. Neon
4. Xenon
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)3, 1, 2, 4
(b)3, 1, 4, 2
(c)2, 4, 1, 3
(d)2, 4, 3, 1
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The pattern of planetary winds largely depends upon which of the following factors?
1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
2. The distribution of continents and oceans
3. The rotation of earth
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Water Vapour in the atmosphere is/are correct?
1. It has a role to play in the stability and instability in the air.
2. It acts like a blanket allowing the earth to neither become too cold nor too hot.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following pairs with reference to world climate types and their characteristics :
(Climate) (Characteristic)
I. Tropical wet and dry : Winter dry season and dry
II. Mid-latitude steppe : Mid-latitude semi-arid or dry
III. Humid sub-tropical : No dry season, warm summer
IV. Marine west coast : No dry season, severely cold summer
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Identify the climate type based on the given below characteristics:
1. The annual precipitation is low and is around 15 cm.
2. The development of pronounced winter anticyclones and their weakening in summer sets in monsoon-like reversal of wind in this region.
3. Polewards, summer temperatures are low.
Select the answer from the options given below:
(a)Subtropical steppe
(b)Humid sub-tropical climate
(c)Cold climate with dry winters
(d)Tundra climate
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements with reference to the Cotton textile industry in India:
1. Cotton textile industry has, over time, spread to other parts of the country, beyond Gujarat and Maharashtra.
2. Raw cotton is not a weight-losing raw material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Indore city in Madhya Pradesh is situated in which one of the following regions?
(a)Bundelkhand
(b)Mahakoshal
(c)Malwa Plateau
(d)Nimar Region
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which among the following Classes of Towns in India holds the highest percentage of Urban Population as per the Census 2011?
(a)Class II
(b)Class III
(c)Class IV
(d)Class VI
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The Golden Quadrilateral Highway does not pass through which of the following cities?
1. Bhubaneshwar
2. Jaipur
3. Lucknow
4. Indore
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Consider the following statements with reference to location of Major Ports in India:
1. Deendayal Port is situated at the head of Gulf of Khambhat.
2. Cochin Port is situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.
3. Mormugao Port is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary.
4. Paradip Port is situated in the Godavari delta.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one among the following is not an atmospheric natural disaster?
(a)Drought
(b)Hailstorm
(c)Frost
(d)Avalanche
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is/are correct?
1. It was constituted in the year 2006.
2. Under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the Institute has been entrusted to assist in national level policy formulation with reference to Disaster Management.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following statements about 'Nilgiri', 'Surat' and 'Vaghsheer' is correct?
(a)These are Tiger Reserves in the state of Gujarat.
(b)These are combatants commissioned by the Indian Navy.
(c)These are Biodiversity parks maintained by the Indian Army.
(d)These are Tiger Reserves maintained by the Indian Navy.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following surveys are being conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India?
1. Survey on Social Consumption – Health
2. Comprehensive Modular Survey – Telecom and ICT skills
3. Periodic Labour Force Survey
4. Annual Survey on Unincorporated Enterprises
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1, 2, 3 and 4
(b)1, 2 and 3 only
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)1 and 2 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The Government of India has discontinued the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
2. The Government of India has approved the continuation of Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Organization)
A. European Union
B. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
C. Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
D. Free Trade Area of the Americas (FTAA)
List-II (Year of Formation)
1. 1994
2. 1967
3. 1989
4. 1993
Code :
(a)A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
(b)A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
(c)A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
(d)A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: The book ‘The Art of War’ was written by :
(a)Niccolo Machiavelli
(b)Thucydides
(c)Thomas Hobbes
(d)J.S. Mill
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following military operations was not undertaken by India ?
(a)Operation Ablaze
(b)Operation Spider’s Web
(c)Operation Trident
(d)Operation Bandar
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Arnala’, an Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft ?
1. It is indigeneouly designed in India.
2. It is named after the historic Arnala fort located in Maharashtra.
3. It has been built under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) of GRSE with M/s L&T Shipyard.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Robert Prevost became the Catholic Pope after the death of Pope Francis. Which of the following statements is/are correct about him?
1. He will now be known as Leo XV.
2. He became the 271st Catholic Pope.
3. He is a dual citizen of the United States of America and Peru.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 only
(d)3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the statements about the dams on the Chenab river is/are correct?
1. Salal dam, Aalal dam and Baglihar dams are on the Chenab river.
2. Baglihar dam has a greater height than Salal dam.
3. Salal dam is operated by Jammu and Kashmir Power Development Corporation and Baglihar dam is operated by NHPC Limited.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)2 only
(d)3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements about 'Alcatraz', which was recently in news, is/are correct?
1. It was once a defence fort on Alcatraz island of America.
2. It was once a prison on Alcatraz island of America.
3. It was once occupied by a group of native American students, known as 'Indians of all tribes'.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)1 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following statements about India's military arsenal is/are correct?
1. HAMMER is a weapon system built for the Rafale fighter aircraft.
2. SCALP cruise missile is also known as Storm Shadow.
3. BrahMos missiles are built under a joint venture between India and Russia.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Recently, ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) has developed the world's first genome-edited rice varieties. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the developed products?
1. The genome-edited varieties — DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1 have been developed by ICAR-IARI, New Delhi.
2. DRR Rice 100 (Kamla), based on Samba Mahsuri, has a shorter duration of maturity.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which one of the following is a good statistic to evaluate where an economy stands in the financial cycle?
(a)Tax/GDP Ratio
(b)Fiscal Deficit/GDP Ratio
(c)Household Consumption/GDP Ratio
(d)Credit/GDP Ratio
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Which of the following pairs of initiatives of the Government of India and their objectives is/are correctly matched?
1. Global Capability Centre (GCC) : Reshaping corporate landscape
2. U-WIN Portal : Ease of doing business across states
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →Q: Social Mobilisation and Institution Development (SM&ID) is one of the major components of:
(a)Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana
(b)National Urban Digital Mission
(c)Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(d)Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (II) →