Q: Consider the following statements with reference to Secondary waves (S-Waves) generated during an earthquake:
1. They create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
2. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Identify the Mineral on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it:
I. It is usually a greenish crystal.
II. It is often found in basaltic rocks.
III. Magnesium, iron and silica are its major elements.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)Amphibolite
(b)Feldspar
(c)Pyroxene
(d)Olivine
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Salt Weathering is/are correct?
1. Salt crystallisation is the most effective of all the salt weathering processes.
2. Salt crystal growth is more effective over sedimentary rocks as compared to igneous rocks.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Surface inversion of temperature is/are correct?
1. It causes instability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.
2. This inversion commonly lasts for a few hours until the Sun comes up.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Identify the cloud on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it:
I. They look like cotton wool.
II. They exist in patches and have flat base.
III. They are generally formed at a height of 4 to 7 km.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)Cirrus
(b)Cumulus
(c)Nimbus
(d)Stratus
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Identify the type of climate on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it:
I. Temperature is high throughout the year.
II. Rainfall is variable with a short wet season and a longer dry season.
III. Climate of Sudan and Paraguay is an example of this climate type.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)Sub-tropical steppe climate
(b)Mid-latitude steppe
(c)Tropical monsoon climate
(d)Tropical wet and dry climate
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: What is the correct sequence of the following salts in ascending order according to their presence in the sea water?
1. Calcium Carbonate
2. Calcium Sulphate
3. Magnesium Chloride
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)3, 1, 2
(b)1, 3, 2
(c)1, 2, 3
(d)2, 1, 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Humus is/are correct?
1. It is a dark coloured amorphous substance.
2. Being colloidal in nature, it serves as a reservoir of nutrients.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following Biosphere Reserves is spread over three states in India?
(a)Dehang Debang
(b)Nilgiris
(c)Nokrek
(d)Seshachalam
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: River Danube does not flow through which one of the following capital cities in Europe?
(a)Belgrade
(b)Budapest
(c)Prague
(d)Vienna
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Easter Island, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is/are correct?
1. It is part of Polynesia group of islands.
2. It is a territory of the South American nation Chile.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following is home to the endangered mountain gorillas in Africa?
(a)Mount Kenya
(b)Mount Kilimanjaro
(c)Ngorongoro Crater
(d)Virunga Mountains
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to Jordan is/are correct?
1. The country of Jordan was created through the British Mandate after World War I.
2. It is a landlocked country.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following places is situated close to the Pearl River Estuary in Asia?
(a)Bangkok
(b)Hong Kong
(c)Macau
(d)Singapore
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements with regard to Australia:
1. The Coral Sea separates the Great Barrier Reef from the South Pacific.
2. The Great Dividing Range extends from Melbourne to Perth in Australia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: What is the correct sequence of the following mountain ranges as one moves from North towards South?
1. Karakoram
2. Kunlun
3. Ladakh
4. Zaskar
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1, 2, 3, 4
(b)1, 2, 4, 3
(c)2, 1, 4, 3
(d)2, 1, 3, 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with reference to saline soil in India is/are correct?
1. They are rich in nitrogen.
2. They occur in arid and semi-arid regions, and in waterlogged and swampy areas.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Salal Power Project is situated on which one among the following rivers?
(a)Chenab
(b)Jhelum
(c)Nubra
(d)Shyok
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following tributaries of Indus River does not originate in the Himalayas?
(a)Gilgit
(b)Gomal
(c)Hunza
(d)Zaskar
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: As per the Annual Report 2023 – 24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following are the major bauxite producing states in India?
(a)Odisha and Madhya Pradesh
(b)Odisha and Jharkhand
(c)Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
(d)Jharkhand and Karnataka
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: If your image appears to be erect, no matter how far you stand from a mirror, the mirror is likely to be:
(a)Plane
(b)Concave
(c)Convex
(d)Either plane or convex
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The rule that determines the direction of a magnetic field produced around a straight conductor carrying current is:
(a)Right-hand thumb rule
(b)Fleming's left-hand rule
(c)Fleming's right-hand rule
(d)Hund's rule
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: A motorcycle has initial velocity of 5 m/s. After 3 seconds, the velocity is 7 m/s. The displacement of the motorcycle in 3 seconds is:
(a)21 m
(b)18 m
(c)36 m
(d)6 m
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The minimum power required to lift a mass of 50 kg up to a vertical distance of 8 m in 10 s is: (Take g = 10 m/s²)
(a)400 W
(b)40 W
(c)50 W
(d)500 W
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a)All bodies in the universe attract each other due to the gravitational force.
(b)Newton's law of gravitation follows from Newton's laws of motion.
(c)The value of g (acceleration due to gravity) at the centre of the Earth is zero.
(d)Mass and weight are measured in different units.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is:
(a)equal to its weight.
(b)less than its weight.
(c)greater than its weight.
(d)zero.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: A metallic sphere of mass 1 kg and volume 2 × 10⁻⁴ m³ is completely immersed in water. The buoyant force exerted by water on the sphere is: (Given: density of water = 1000 kg/m³, g = 10 m/s²)
(a)0·5 N
(b)1·5 N
(c)2 N
(d)2·5 N
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: A light bulb rated as 60 W at 220 V has a potential difference of 110 V across its ends. The power dissipated in this light bulb is:
(a)30 W
(b)45 W
(c)15 W
(d)2 W
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following is used in a simple microscope?
(a)Diverging lens
(b)Concave mirror
(c)Converging lens
(d)Plane mirror
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The force with which the Earth attracts an object is called:
(a)Weight of the object
(b)Mass of the object
(c)Density of the object
(d)Magnitude of the object
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following is one of the ‘three gems’ (triratna) of Jainism?
(a)Brahmacharya
(b)Samyag-darshana
(c)Sunrita
(d)Asteya
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following motifs does not appear on Harappan seals?
(a)Humped Bull
(b)Elephant
(c)Lion
(d)Crocodile
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following is the earliest text?
(a)Natyashastra of Bharata
(b)Sushruta Samhita
(c)Ashtadhyayi
(d)Manusmriti
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements about Ashoka's inscriptions is correct?
(a)The Major Rock Edict found in Kerala is in Sanskrit.
(b)Minor Rock Edicts in Bihar are found only in Pataliputra.
(c)The Dhauli Major Rock Edict makes a mention of the Kalinga War.
(d)Kalsi in Uttarakhand is a site of Major Rock Edicts.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements about the Ajivikas is not correct?
(a)They did not practise discrimination on the basis of caste or class.
(b)They had a corporate organisation and canonical texts.
(c)They practised severe asceticism, often eating very little food.
(d)They formed an alliance with Jainas against Buddhists.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the use of stirrup in India:
1. The Konarak horse sculpture (c. 1250) shows a ring-stirrup.
2. A broad, probably wooden, stirrup appears in Khajuraho sculptures (probably 10th century).
3. The iron-stirrup was used in the Delhi Sultans' armies from the thirteenth century onwards.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: In the Rig Veda Samhita, use of the terms ishukrit and isukara referred to the maker of:
(a)Arrows
(b)Swords
(c)Vajra (Thunderbolt)
(d)Maces
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following does not refer to the bow (and arrow) as a weapon of war in ancient India?
(a)Sharnga
(b)Kunta
(c)Kodanda
(d)Karmuka
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: What is the military-device referred to by the term manjaniq?
(a)A device for loading field-guns with gunpowder
(b)Preparing cavalry for rapid charge
(c)A bolting device for strengthening the gates of forts
(d)A device for throwing stones (mangonel)
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: In medieval India, the process of indigo extraction underwent great improvement as a result of the:
(a)use of fertilizer enhancing the quality of indigo crop.
(b)introduction of mechanical crushing tools for indigo stems.
(c)use of gypsum and lime mortars in making the inner surfaces of indigo vats water-proof.
(d)employment of slave labour in quick desilting of indigo crucibles.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is listed in the Ain-i Akbari as one of the ‘Indian sciences’ prescribed by Akbar for scholars to learn at school?
(a)Ayurveda
(b)Vyakarana
(c)Ganita
(d)Jyotisha
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the arms used by Europeans in warfare in India:
1. The flint-lock muskets could work even in wet weather.
2. The addition of bayonet made musket a more effective and dangerous weapon in close combat.
3. The wrought-iron cannon barrels were easy to move and manoeuvre.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements about the grammarian Katyayana is correct?
(a)He was a contemporary of Panini.
(b)He was a contemporary of Patanjali.
(c)He belonged to a period between Panini and Patanjali.
(d)He belonged to a period later than both Panini and Patanjali.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements about Rig Vedic goddesses is correct?
(a)Ushas represents freedom from sickness.
(b)Sinivali bestows children.
(c)Aditi is goddess of dawn.
(d)Raka is goddess of speech.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements about the Buddhist Goddess Hariti is correct?
(a)She was converted by the Buddha from a blood-thirsty yakshi to a benevolent maternal figure.
(b)She is the feminine personification of wisdom.
(c)She protects people from eight great fears.
(d)She is a warrior goddess associated with the dawn.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the literary language Apabhramsha:
1. It appeared in recognizable forms by the sixth century.
2. It developed out of mixtures of regional vernaculars with the Prakrits and Sanskrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Who composed Zainavilas, a history of the rulers of Kashmir, in the time of Zainul Abidin?
(a)Bhattavatara
(b)Jonaraja
(c)Shrivara
(d)Vachaspati
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: In which one of the following works has Amir Khusrau praised the climate of India, its languages, notably Sanskrit, its arts and music and even its animals?
(a)Ijaz-i Khusrawi
(b)Dewal Rani Khizr Khani
(c)Khazainul Futuh
(d)Nuh Sipihr
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following works was written in early eighteenth century by the Bengali poet Rameshwar Bhattacharya?
(a)Dharmamangal
(b)Shivsankirttan
(c)Mansimha
(d)Vidyasundar
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following present day territories was outside the limits of Ashoka's empire?
(a)Brahmaputra valley, Assam
(b)Baluchistan
(c)North Bengal
(d)Kashmir valley
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Isobars of elements have same:
(a)Atomic numbers.
(b)Number of electrons.
(c)Mass numbers.
(d)Number of neutrons.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following could not be explained by Rutherford's nuclear model?
(a)Stability of the atom
(b)Presence of nucleus in the centre of an atom
(c)Comparison of sizes of atom and nucleus
(d)Nucleus is positively charged
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: If atomic number of an element is 11, the correct name, symbol and valency are:
(a)Lithium, Li, 1
(b)Magnesium, Mg, 2
(c)Boron, B, 3
(d)Sodium, Na, 1
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following gas is used in making soft drinks?
(a)NH₃
(b)PH₃
(c)COCl₂
(d)CO₂
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is considered as a compound?
(a)Silicon
(b)Tin
(c)Sugar solution
(d)Calcium carbonate
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment on gold foil is responsible for the discovery of:
(a)Neutron
(b)Electron
(c)Proton
(d)Atomic nucleus
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is a metalloid?
(a)Germanium
(b)Coke
(c)Iodine
(d)Sugar
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is not explained by the Dalton's atomic theory?
(a)Law of conservation of mass
(b)Law of constant composition
(c)Presence of different kind of sub-atomic particles in an atom
(d)Law of multiple proportion
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following contains all Lewis acids?
(a)AlCl3, Co3+, BF3
(b)BCl3, NH3, OH⁻
(c)Mg2+, H2O, F⁻
(d)BF3, NH3, H2O
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Number of electrons present in the species H2+, He, H2 and O2+ respectively are:
(a)1, 2, 2, 15
(b)1, 2, 1, 14
(c)2, 2, 2, 16
(d)0, 2, 1, 14
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements with respect to performance of the merchandise export of India in FY–2024:
1. Share of capital goods such as machinery, equipment and other durable goods decreased substantially.
2. Share of consumer goods and intermediate goods increased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following statements about Project Nexus is correct?
(a)It is an international agreement to enable labour movement between countries.
(b)It is an international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments.
(c)It is an international initiative to transfer technology between countries.
(d)It is an international agreement to create database on financial inclusion.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: While calculating the consumer price index, 'housing' as an item is classified as:
(a)Core consumer durable
(b)Core consumer non-durable
(c)Core capital goods
(d)Core service
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following established the first Global Capability Centre in India?
(a)Honeywell
(b)Citibank
(c)Texas Instruments
(d)SAP Labs India
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?
1. Global Value Chains (GVC) : International Product Sharing
2. World Integrated Trade Solutions : Database on GVC related Trade
3. Current Account Deficit (CAD) : Foreign Direct Investment
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: How can currency depreciation stimulate an increase in net exports?
1. By reducing export costs
2. By reducing import prices
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Core inflation is:
(a)CPI headline inflation minus all non-food items
(b)WPI inflation minus all food and non-food items
(c)CPI headline inflation minus food and energy items
(d)WPI inflation minus food and energy items
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: In alignment with the guidelines of NEP 2020, 'Poshan bhi Padhai bhi' (PBPB) was launched under which one among the following programmes?
(a)Integrated Teacher Training Programme
(b)Vidya Pravesh
(c)Early Childhood Care and Education
(d)Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following defines flexi workers in India?
(a)Formal contract staff employed through organised contract
(b)Informal sector employees working in urban areas
(c)Agricultural labour migrating to urban areas
(d)Regular salaried workers working in registered companies
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following is an integrated teacher training programme?
(a)Vidya Pravesh
(b)NISHTHA
(c)Vidyanjali
(d)DIKSHA
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which instrument is used to measure the blood pressure manually?
(a)Sphygmomanometer
(b)Centrifuge
(c)Electrophoresis
(d)Thermal cycler
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Myopia is also known as:
(a)Far-sightedness
(b)Near-sightedness
(c)Cataract
(d)Presbyopia
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Why does the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum look ‘rough’ under a microscope?
(a)Due to the presence of ribosomes on its surface
(b)Due to the absence of ribosomes on its surface
(c)Due to the presence of lysosomes on its surface
(d)Due to the presence of mitochondria on its surface
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following is not a plant hormone?
(a)Gibberellins
(b)Abscisic acid
(c)Auxins
(d)Thyroxine
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The normal systolic pressure in human beings is:
(a)80 mm of Hg
(b)100 mm of Hg
(c)120 mm of Hg
(d)140 mm of Hg
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Sponges belong to which one among the following phylum?
(a)Porifera
(b)Platyhelminthes
(c)Cnidaria
(d)Annelida
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Lactose is made up of:
(a)Glucose only
(b)Glucose and Fructose
(c)Glucose and Sucrose
(d)Glucose and Galactose
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The enzymes which catalyze the same reaction but have different amino acid compositions are commonly referred as:
(a)Isoenzymes
(b)Isotopes
(c)Isomers
(d)Coenzymes
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: How many Carbon atoms are present in a Pyruvate molecule?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The human eye has a point that lacks photoreceptor cells. This is identified as:
(a)Fovea
(b)Blind spot
(c)Dark spot
(d)Orbit
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts introduced GST (Goods and Services Tax) in course of inter-state trade or commerce?
(a)Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act
(b)Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act
(c)Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act
(d)Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following UN agencies has received the Nobel Prize more than once?
(a)ILO
(b)WFP
(c)UNICEF
(d)UNHCR
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
2. The Committee to recommend the appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner has the Minister of Home Affairs as one of the members.
3. In certain circumstances the Leader of the single largest group in opposition in Lok Sabha can be on the Committee to recommend the appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: International Day of Democracy, as decided vide a UN General Assembly resolution, is observed on:
(a)20 January
(b)1 July
(c)15 September
(d)9 December
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about the NITI Aayog is/are correct?
1. Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of its Governing Council.
2. Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh is a member of its Governing Council.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about National Commission for Women are correct?
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It has the mandate to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
3. It has the mandate to advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which, amongst the following, is the latest language to be included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a)Maithili
(b)Nepali
(c)Konkani
(d)Manipuri
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following states has the highest number of seats in the Council of States?
(a)Andhra Pradesh
(b)Bihar
(c)Madhya Pradesh
(d)Tamil Nadu
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about the Indus Waters Treaty is/are correct?
1. The term ‘Eastern Rivers’ means the Sutlej, the Beas and the Ravi taken together.
2. The term ‘Western Rivers’ means the Indus, the Jhelum and the Chenab taken together.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct as per the Constitution of India?
1. The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act has added the Right to Education to the chapter of Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. Right to Work and Right to Education are both, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: As defined in Article 12 of the Constitution of India, ‘State’ includes:
1. Parliament of India
2. State Governments
3. State Legislatures
4. Local authorities in India
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2, 3 and 4
(d)2 and 4 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following descriptions with regard to Parliamentary Privilege for Members of the Parliament of India is/are correct?
1. The Speaker is empowered to refer suo moto any question of privilege for investigation
2. A question of privilege is accorded priority over other items in the List of Business
3. The privilege extends to freedom from preventive arrest or detention
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following statements about an adjournment motion in the Parliament of India is not correct?
(a)Its objective is to draw attention of the House to any recent matter of urgent public importance.
(b)Adjournment motion is an extraordinary procedure.
(c)This motion can be invoked on any matter of urgent importance that may even be within the jurisdiction of a State Government.
(d)The Chair has absolute discretion to refuse consent.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The Kyoto Protocol specifically relates to which one among the following issues?
(a)Emission reduction
(b)Ozone layer depletion
(c)Chlorofluorocarbons
(d)Biodiversity management
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Who among the following was responsible for demarcating the borders between India and Pakistan during the partition in 1947?
(a)Cyril Radcliffe
(b)Mortimer Durand
(c)Henry McMahon
(d)Arthur Belfour
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following statements about Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy, a freedom fighter, is not correct?
(a)She was the first girl student to be admitted into a men's college.
(b)She was the first woman legislator in British India.
(c)She was a medical professional.
(d)She was honoured with Bharat Ratna in 1956.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: "Since wars begin in the minds of men, it is in the minds of men that the defences of peace must be constructed." This observation can be found in the Constitution of which one of the following Organs of the United Nations?
(a)World Health Organisation
(b)United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(c)International Atomic Energy Agency
(d)United Nations Economic and Social Council
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following countries does not share its territorial boundary with Ukraine?
(a)Poland
(b)Romania
(c)Lithuania
(d)Belarus
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. First Law Commission recommended Indian Penal Code, 1860.
2. Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been completely replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements with regard to the setting up of the Backward Class Commission in India:
1. The First Backward Class Commission, set up by the Government of India, is popularly known as Kaka Kalelkar Commission.
2. The Third Backward Class Commission, set up by the Government of India, is popularly known as Mandal Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following is the purpose of firewall?
(a)Preventing unauthorised access to computer via the internet
(b)Installation of software that can harm the computer
(c)Recording everything that is done on computer
(d)Running checks to prevent virus attacks
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is not an application software?
(a)Spreadsheet
(b)AutoCAD
(c)MS PowerPoint
(d)Linker
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which among the following is a malicious software?
(a)Hacking
(b)Password Cracking
(c)Trojan Horse
(d)Firewall
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: What is an interactive combination of text, graphics, video, audio and images termed as?
(a)JPEG
(b)Multimedia
(c)AVA
(d)PNG
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is the characteristic of Artificial Intelligence?
(a)Replicates human decision making
(b)Stores relevant information
(c)Stores similar kind of data for a specific purpose
(d)Allows user to interact with media
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which organisation/institute has recently started the new initiatives such as Bharat Vidya Pariyojana, Brihattar Bharat and Nari Samvaad Prakalp?
(a)IGNOU
(b)Sahitya Akademi
(c)Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT)
(d)Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts (IGNCA)
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one among the following educational institutions established under the Union Ministry of Culture is promoting to preserve, protect and promote Lord Buddha's teaching and value of love, compassion and non-violence for developing good moral values and practices?
(a)Indian Institute of Advanced Study, Shimla
(b)National Council of Educational Research & Training, New Delhi
(c)Nava Nalanda Mahavihara, Nalanda
(d)IGNOU, New Delhi
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: "Nirbhaya Fund", a non-lapsable corpus fund, which is to be utilized for the projects specifically designed to improve the safety and security of women is administered by:
(a)The Ministry of Women & Child Development
(b)The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c)The Ministry of Finance
(d)The Ministry of Education
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) launched in 2015 – 16 by the Central Government is aimed to:
(a)make agriculture more modern and globally competitive.
(b)provide improved access to irrigation and enhanced water efficiency.
(c)support promotion of organic farming in the country.
(d)reduce dependence of agriculture on monsoon.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: When did the Union Government establish a separate 'Ministry of Cooperation' with the vision of "Sahkar Se Samriddhi"?
(a)2014
(b)2016
(c)2018
(d)2021
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: The Ministry of Defence, Government of India, has declared 2025 as the year of:
(a)Rehabilitation of the families of martyrs
(b)Reforms
(c)Peace
(d)Self-reliance
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is/are correct?
1. It was launched in 2021 by the Government of India.
2. Its aim is to democratize e-commerce in India.
3. India has surpassed China in 2024 in e-retail penetration.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: “Million Minds Augmenting National Aspirations and Knowledge” (MANAK), a scheme under the flagship programme, Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE), caters to:
(a)The college students studying in the undergraduate programme in the age group of 19–25 years.
(b)The research scholars in recognized research laboratories of national importance.
(c)The college teachers of the country.
(d)The school children studying in classes 6–10 in the age group of 10–15 years.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Who among the following were awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024?
1. Shri Gukesh D
2. Shri Harmanpreet Singh
3. Shri Praveen Kumar
4. Ms. Manu Bhaker
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)1, 2, 3 and 4
(b)1 and 4 only
(c)1, 2 and 4 only
(d)2 and 3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about a prominent film personality of India:
He was born in Hyderabad. He emerged in the 1970s with a series of films that challenged mainstream Bollywood. He became widely known for Bharat Ek Khoj, a landmark 53-episode television series. He directed a 2023 biopic about Sheikh Mujibur Rahman.
Identify the personality from the following:
(a)Govind Nihalani
(b)Girish Karnad
(c)Shyam Benegal
(d)Mani Ratnam
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: “The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer” is the highest national award of:
(a)Egypt
(b)Kuwait
(c)Bahrain
(d)United Arab Emirates
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Bald eagle has recently been officially declared as the national bird of which one among the following countries?
(a)China
(b)England
(c)USA
(d)Ireland
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Surya Kiran is a joint military exercise between India and:
(a)Bangladesh
(b)Bhutan
(c)Singapore
(d)Nepal
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Moidam-The Mound-Burial system of the Ahom dynasty was inscribed in the UNESCO World Heritage list.
2. The Government of India conferred the status of classical language to Pali, Assamese, Bengali and Maithili.
3. Project PARI is an initiative of Ministry of Education.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a)2 only
(b)1 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →Q: Which one of the following PSLVs, launched by ISRO, is not correctly matched with their Missions?
PSLV — Mission
(a)PSLV C60 — SPADEX
(b)PSLV C59 — Proba-3
(c)PSLV C58 — XPoSat
(d)PSLV C57 — DS-SAR
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2025 (I) →