Q: Consider the following statements about the Jorwe culture of the Deccan :
1. It covers, practically, the whole of modern Maharashtra except the coastal Konkan district.
2. The Pravara-Godavari valleys seem to have been the nuclear zone.
3. The large sites of this culture yield evidence of shifting agriculture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about Madurai, the capital city of the Pandya kingdom :
1. It has been described in Maduraikkanchi as a large grand city, enclosed by walls on three sides and the Vaigai river on the fourth side.
2. The Arthashastra mentions it as a centre of fine cotton textiles.
3. Other literary sources describe it as a major craft centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about Sawai Jai Singh's astronomical work :
1. He learnt of the accuracy of European observations, and obtained de La Hire's tables from which he reproduced a refraction table.
2. His astronomers also developed a telescope of their own to observe the lunar phases of Venus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Man Kautuhal, a work on music, was prepared under the aegis of
(a)Raja Man Singh of Gwalior
(b)Tansen
(c)Meera Bai
(d)Amir Khusrau
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements regarding the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan :
1. This programme is initiated by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. It aims to develop an inclusive society for persons with disabilities.
3. It has provisions of pension for persons with disabilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one among the following was not a part of the action programme of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a)The Congress organisation was to reach down to the village and the Mohalla level
(b)Boycott of government affiliated schools and colleges
(c)Taking control of the law and order machinery of the State by the Congress Working Committee
(d)Surrender of titles and honours given by the government
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the Mauryan State and the forest people :
1. The forest people were subjected to new forms of political and economic dominance and the necessity to subordinate and assimilate them led to a change in the earlier attitude of excluding these people from imperial territory.
2. The State recognised that the forest produce was the sole monopoly of the forest people.
3. The State was concerned with the conservation of forests and to this end the burning of forests was prohibited.
4. The forest people could be harnessed to serve the State and could be used as troops, spies and assassins.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: At which of the following places was diamond mining carried out during the Delhi Sultanate period?
(a)Awadh
(b)Khambhat
(c)Panna
(d)Lakhnauti
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements is true for James Webb Space Telescope launched in December 2021?
(a)It orbits the Sun, about 15 lakh km away from the Earth.
(b)It orbits the Earth, about 15 lakh km away.
(c)It is stationary in space nearly 10 lakh km away from the Earth.
(d)It revolves around the Moon nearly 3.5 lakh km away from the Earth.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following particles are subatomic particles?
1. Electron
2. Proton
3. Neutron
4. Muon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 4 only
(b)1, 2, 3 and 4
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Qubit refers to a two-valued quantity used in
(a)classical computers
(b)classical cryptography
(c)quantum computers
(d)lasers
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Photo 51 refers to an image of
(a)a crater on the Moon
(b)DNA molecules
(c)the virus responsible for COVID-19
(d)the virus responsible for common cold
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The rest mass of Higgs boson is estimated to be close to
(a)0.5 MeV
(b)900 MeV
(c)100 GeV
(d)1000 GeV
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following correctly describes the principle of the working of an atomic clock?
(a)Vibration of a small quartz crystal
(b)Simple harmonic motion of atoms inside a crystal
(c)Resonant frequency in cesium (or rubidium) atom
(d)Excitation and de-excitation of hydrogen atoms
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Political analysis involves both normative and empirical approaches. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the two approaches?
1. Knowledge acquired through the empirical approach is value-loaded.
2. Knowledge acquired through the normative approach is objectively neutral.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one amongst the following cannot be a feature of a 'totalitarian regime'?
(a)State control of the political and often personal realms of individual life
(b)A monopoly of the means of mass communication
(c)One-party State
(d)Autonomy of civil society
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements are not correct?
1. In world politics, 'hard power' can be exercised by both States and other actors involving use of threat or coercion.
2. Globalisation is necessarily economic, not cultural.
3. The term 'Washington Consensus' refers to a policy that seeks intervention in the market.
4. 'Autarky' is generally understood as economic 'self-sufficiency'.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 4 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)2, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements :
1. Under Part III of the Constitution of India, individuals can enforce rights guaranteed by this Part when they are violated by the action of a government authority.
2. Under Part III of the Constitution of India, individuals can enforce rights guaranteed by this Part when they are violated by not only the action of a government authority, but also by its inaction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements :
1. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) provides that everyone shall have the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law.
2. Although India agrees in principle with the ethos of ICCPR, it has not yet ratified it fully.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with respect to the right to have a legal aid is/are correct?
1. Under the Constitution of India, it is given under the Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. It is the duty of the police to inform the nearest Legal Aid Committee immediately after the arrest of a person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements as per the ‘Universal Declaration of Human Rights’ is/are correct?
1. The Declaration provides that everyone has a right to seek and enjoy in other country’s asylum from prosecution in respect of political crimes.
2. The Declaration provides that everyone has the freedom from arbitrary deprival of nationality, except for the freedom to change nationality.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following UN organisations has been awarded with Nobel Prize twice?
(a)IPCC
(b)IAEA
(c)UNHCR
(d)UNICEF
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct about vaccination that provides protection against an infectious disease?
1. It blocks the entry of the infectious agent into body.
2. It produces antibodies against infection.
3. It kills the infectious agent when it enters in the body.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which cells in human body have no nucleus?
(a)Muscle cells
(b)Phagocytic cells
(c)Red blood cells
(d)Ciliated cells
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The use of plastics has led to a number of environment-related problems. For this, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)They are non-biodegradable.
(b)They do not get released into water and food.
(c)They do not have any biochemical synthesis activity.
(d)They are harmless to humans.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Microbodies found to be present in plant and animal cells contain
(a)broken down membranes
(b)enzymes
(c)acidic fluids
(d)waste metabolites
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: An antibacterial enzyme present in saliva and tears is called
(a)ribozyme
(b)lipase
(c)lysozyme
(d)isomerase
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which set of vegetables is underground stem or modified stem of a plant?
(a)Potato, artichoke, round gourd
(b)Onion, garlic, carrot
(c)Potato, onion, garlic
(d)Potato, garlic, turnip
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following indicators is/are used to observe the monetary transmission mechanism in the economy?
1. Weighted average lending rate
2. Weighted average domestic term deposit rate
3. 1-year median MCLR
4. SDF rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)3 and 4
(d)4 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements regarding instruments of monetary policy:
1. Standing deposit facility (SDF) rate was introduced in April 2022.
2. SDF rate replaced fixed reverse repo rate as the floor of the LAF corridor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements regarding weightage of different articles in Wholesale Price Index (WPI):
1. Fuel and power have higher weightage in WPI than that of primary articles.
2. Weightage of manufactured products in WPI is higher than that of fuel and power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: If India enters into Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with other nations, then the growth of exports of India would depend upon which of the following?
1. Extent of tariff reduction vis-à-vis MFN tariffs
2. Extent of relaxation in terms of rules of origin
3. Extent of relaxation in sanitary and phytosanitary measures
4. Level of infrastructure in India
5. Income in nations with which India enters into FTAs
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1, 3 and 4 only
(b)1, 2 and 4 only
(c)2, 3 and 5 only
(d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
(a)MgO
(b)P4O10
(c)Na2O
(d)Al2O3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The correct order of octane number of butane, pentane, hexane and cyclohexane is
(a)butane > pentane > hexane > cyclohexane
(b)butane > pentane > cyclohexane > hexane
(c)butane > cyclohexane > pentane > hexane
(d)cyclohexane > butane > pentane > hexane
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is the correct order of reactivity of Mg, Al, Zn and Fe with HCl?
(a)Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
(b)Mg > Al > Fe > Zn
(c)Zn > Fe > Mg > Al
(d)Fe > Al > Zn > Mg
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Methanol is toxic because
(a)methanol coagulates the protoplasm
(b)methanol gets oxidised to methanal in liver which coagulates the protoplasm
(c)methanol gets oxidised to acetic acid in liver which coagulates the protoplasm
(d)methanol gets oxidised to CO in liver which coagulates the protoplasm
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Vinegar is
(a)5–8% solution of acetic acid in water
(b)5–8% solution of carbonic acid in water
(c)5–8% solution of ethanol in water
(d)10–15% solution of propionic acid in water
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is related to global dimming?
(a)Fall of atmospheric pressure due to increased particulates
(b)Raise of atmospheric pressure due to increased particulates
(c)Raise of temperature due to increased particulates
(d)Fall of temperature due to increased particulates
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is known as cetane?
(a)Hexadecane
(b)Heptadecane
(c)Octadecane
(d)Nonadecane
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one among the following countries is not part of the Arabian Peninsula?
(a)Kuwait
(b)Oman
(c)Jordan
(d)Yemen
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements regarding continent of Antarctica is/are correct?
1. It has the highest average elevation as compared to all other continents.
2. Mount Vinson is the highest peak of this continent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following biosphere reserves is spread over three States in India?
(a)Nilgiri
(b)Achanakmar-Amarkantak
(c)Seshachalam
(d)Agasthyamalai
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a)Ramnagar Wildlife Sanctuary : Uttarakhand
(b)Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary : Assam
(c)Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary : Haryana
(d)Kane Wildlife Sanctuary : Arunachal Pradesh
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements regarding coconut production in Lakshadweep is/are correct?
1. Productivity per hectare is highest in India.
2. Oil content in nuts is highest in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements regarding barrier islands is/are correct?
1. These are small chain of sand islands that form offshore, far from the coast.
2. Lagoons or shallower marshes separate the barrier islands from the mainland.
3. Such locations are hazardous for settlements because they are easily swept away by storms and hurricanes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics :
1. High, thin, puffy white clouds of ice crystals that look like ripples
2. They appear between 20000 feet and 40000 feet above the Earth's surface
3. One of its types is called a 'mackerel sky' because the clouds resemble large fish scales, especially when they are coloured pink at sunset
Select the correct answer.
(a)Altostratus
(b)Cirrostratus
(c)Altocumulus
(d)Cirrocumulus
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Identify the type of drainage pattern on the basis of the given characteristics :
1. It represents the most common pattern of streams and their tributaries.
2. It occurs in areas of uniform rock type and regular slope.
3. A map, or aerial photograph, shows a pattern like the veins on a leaf—smaller streams join the main stream at an acute angle.
Select the correct answer.
(a)Dendritic
(b)Radial
(c)Trellis
(d)Centripetal
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following regarding gateway city is/are correct?
1. City whose physical location makes it a link between one country and others, or between one region and others.
2. A gateway city exercises control over a large area because it commands the entry and exit rights and powers for a particular country or region.
3. Most gateway cities are ports, many of which were formerly administrative centres for a colonial government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following has been an important early Chola painting discovered at the Brihadisvara Temple, Thanjavur in 1931?
(a)Buddha with Chauri-bearers on either side
(b)Shiva as Yoga-Dakshinamurti
(c)Yakshi Kali
(d)Parshvanatha with snake-hood on a lion-throne
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the initial development of railways in India by the British :
1. Private financial investors for railways would get land free from the British Government in India.
2. The investors would get a return of 5 percent on their capital from the government if they ran at a loss or secured inadequate profit.
3. The railways would be jointly managed with the government.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following industries was most affected by the 'deindustrialisation' of India in the 19th century?
(a)Silk manufacture
(b)Cotton textiles
(c)Iron and steel
(d)Woolen manufacture
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the early phase of the National Movement in India :
1. Ferozeshah Mehta, Badruddin Tyabji and others formed the Bombay Presidency Association.
2. Surendranath Banerjee and his group planned an Indian National Conference at Calcutta.
3. Allan Octavian Hume decided to create an all-India body as a rival to the above organisations to give vent to the grievances of the poor and marginalised Indians.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope consists of
(a)a single parabolic antenna
(b)multiple parabolic antennas
(c)multiple circular antennas
(d)a combination of circular and parabolic antennas
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is the first commercial space station?
(a)Axiom Station
(b)International Space Station
(c)Galileo
(d)Voyager 1
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is not a ferromagnetic material?
(a)Cobalt
(b)Iron
(c)Silver
(d)Ferric chloride
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: On a day when I am in hurry to go to office, I have a fixed quantity of rice which was just cooked and kept in a bowl. In order to cool it quickly, which one of the following is the best option?
(a)Let it be kept on the table in a room where there is no fan, no air conditioner
(b)Let it be kept in a room with AC set at a temperature around 23 °C and a ceiling fan (or table fan) operating at slow speed
(c)Let it be kept in a bowl of water (at room temperature) and operating a ceiling fan (or table fan) at full speed
(d)Let it be kept in a bowl of water at room temperature only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about ‘Marrakech Partnership’ is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental partnership for global climate action.
2. It is not only an intergovernmental partnership for global climate action but also a collaboration between governments and other stakeholders like cities, businesses and investors.
3. This partnership is guided by the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)2 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Special Marriage Act protects an individual if one enters into an interreligious marriage.
2. Right to marry a person of one’s choice is an integral aspect of one’s Fundamental Rights under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
3. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights also resonates marital rights of every adult consenting individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)2 and 3 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)1 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about the International Court of Justice is/are correct?
1. The Court consists of members, wherein two members cannot be nationals of the same State.
2. The General Assembly and the Security Council proceed independently of one another to elect the members of the Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements regarding Bhoonidhi Vista:
1. It is a data visualisation service of Bhoonidhi providing full resolution mosaicked data visualisation capability through Web Map Service.
2. It is enabled for ResourceSat-2/2A, Sentinel 1 and 2 satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following were objectives of the G20 Summit, 2023 under India's Presidency?
1. Green development
2. Accelerating progress on SDGs
3. Women-led development
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)1 and 3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The causal organism of dengue fever is a mosquito-borne virus which belongs to which one among the following categories?
(a)Flavi-ribo virus
(b)Adenovirus
(c)Vaccinia virus
(d)Nipah virus
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: From which among the following are blood clotting factors released?
(a)RBCs
(b)Eosinophils
(c)Platelets
(d)Monocytes
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Pulse is felt due to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the
(a)chambers of heart
(b)valves present in veins
(c)aorta and main arteries
(d)valves of heart
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: When eggs are heated, the transparent liquid portion around yolk turns solid and turbid white. This happens due to the thermal denaturation of
(a)fats
(b)proteins
(c)ribose sugar
(d)carbohydrates
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GDP deflator captures the average price of an unchanging basket of commodities that constitutes the GDP of the country.
2. GDP deflator can be used to measure the real GDP of the economy but not the inflation rate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A price index captures the change in the average price of a constant basket of commodities.
2. If the price index takes values 100, 110 and 121 in three consecutive years respectively, then the inflation rates in the 2nd and 3rd years are 10% and 21% respectively.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Most of India's reserves is held in the form of foreign currency.
2. There is no cost of holding foreign currency as reserves by a nation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)The market mechanism over-produces a good that generates positive externality.
(b)A cap and trade of pollution permits can be used by the government to achieve the social optimum.
(c)The optimal amount of subsidy in the case of an activity that produces a positive externality is the difference between the social benefit and the private benefit at the optimum.
(d)Tragedy of Commons is an example of negative externality.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements regarding GST is not correct?
(a)Amendment 115 to the Constitution of India kept alcohol for human use and five petroleum products outside the ambit of GST.
(b)Amendment 122 to the Constitution of India kept only alcohol for human use outside the ambit of GST.
(c)Precious metals are taxed at a rate of 1% under GST.
(d)Unworked diamond is taxed at a rate of 0·25%.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with regard to the Report of Tendulkar Committee (2009) on poverty estimates is/are correct?
1. The Committee had used an all-India urban poverty line basket as a reference to derive both rural and urban poverty levels.
2. The Committee had anchored the poverty line to the official food calorie norms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following components of Central Government taxes on petroleum products is/are not shareable with the States?
1. Basic Excise Duty
2. Additional Excise Duty
3. Special Additional Excise Duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)3 only
(d)2 and 3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Level of per capita GDP depends upon which of the following?
1. Proportion of population in the working age
2. Work participation rate
3. Per worker productivity
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)3 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following are included in M1 definition of money for the Indian economy?
1. Reserves
2. Currency
3. Time deposits
4. Demand deposits
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3
(c)2 and 4
(d)1, 3 and 4
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following statements is not correct for National Income Accounting for India?
(a)Imports are subtracted in calculating Gross Domestic Product.
(b)Net factor payments earned from abroad are included in Gross Domestic Product.
(c)Purchase and sale of second-hand goods are not included in Gross Domestic Product.
(d)Inventories are included in Gross Domestic Capital Formation.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Under normal downward sloping demand curve and fully elastic supply curve of a commodity, an exogenous decrease in demand would lead to
(a)increase in equilibrium price and quantity
(b)decrease in equilibrium price and quantity
(c)decrease in equilibrium quantity and no change in price
(d)increase in equilibrium price and no change in quantity
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The correct order of atomic radius of Li, Na, Be and O is
(a)Na > Li > Be > O
(b)Na > Be > Li > O
(c)Be > Li > Na > O
(d)O > Be > Li > Na
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following catalytic systems is used for the reduction of unsaturated hydrocarbon to saturated hydrocarbon?
(a)Copper and H₂
(b)Iron and H₂
(c)Zinc and H₂
(d)Nickel and H₂
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following has the highest ionic character?
(a)BeF₃
(b)SiO₂
(c)NCl₃
(d)K₂S
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements regarding ice-cap climate is/are correct?
1. In the Koeppen climate classification, the ice-cap climate is signified by the letters EF.
2. It is the Earth's most severe climate, where the mean monthly temperature is never above 0 degree Celsius.
3. This climate is found in the Pir Panjal and the Great Himalayas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements regarding the Industrial Revolution is/are correct?
1. It was change of a society from a rural and agricultural lifestyle to one in which most people earned their living in the industrial or secondary sector of the economy.
2. The first Industrial Revolution began in Germany in the early eighteenth century.
3. During Industrial Revolution, technological advances in iron smelting, and later steel production, were accompanied by the invention of steam engine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements regarding insolation is/are correct?
1. Insolation is predominantly short-wave radiation, with wavelengths in the range of 0.39 micrometre to 0.76 micrometre.
2. Insolation is evenly distributed across the Earth because of the Earth's curved surface.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements regarding river meanders is/are correct?
1. It is a U-shaped bend in a river.
2. An extremely tight meander is called a gooseneck; it is likely to become a cutoff, or oxbow lake, after a flood.
3. Tectonic uplift can cause a river to continue downcutting along its meandering course, producing incised or entrenched meanders.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: How can one determine the relative humidity on a particular day at a given place?
(a)If temperature is given
(b)If absolute humidity is given
(c)If both temperature and absolute humidity are given
(d)If percentage of absolute humidity is given
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which greenhouse gas has maximum average residence time in the atmosphere?
(a)CFC
(b)CH₄
(c)N₂O
(d)Water vapour
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: What does BW stand for as per the Koeppen climate classification?
(a)Steppe climate
(b)Desert climate
(c)Tundra climate
(d)Mesothermal climate
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which organisation publishes worldwide list of endangered species?
(a)The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
(b)The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
(c)The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(d)The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: On which among the following is National Waterway No. 2 situated?
(a)The Ganga, Haldia–Prayagraj
(b)West Coast Canal, Kottapuram–Kollam
(c)The Brahmaputra, Sadiya–Dhubri
(d)Godavari and Krishna, Kakinada–Puducherry
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: What is culturable wasteland?
(a)Land that has been left fallow in last four years
(b)Land that has been left fallow between one and two years
(c)Land that has been left fallow for less than one year
(d)Land that has been left fallow for more than five years
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Angular velocity for all locations on the Earth’s surface is the same while linear velocity varies.
2. Linear velocity is maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about Rana Kumbha of Mewar:
1. He wrote a commentary on Jayadeva’s Gitagovinda.
2. He wrote four dramas in which he is said to have made use of four provincial languages.
3. He erected Kirtistambha in Chitor in commemoration of his victory over Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Who among the following Chola kings encouraged the Sailendra ruler of Sri Vijaya to build a Buddhist Vihara in Negapatnam?
(a)Parantaka I
(b)Rajaraja I
(c)Rajendra I
(d)Kulottunga I
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Who among the following was not a court poet of king Krishnadevaraya?
(a)Timmana
(b)Dhurjati
(c)Mallana
(d)Siddheshvara
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The royal portraits of Simhavishnu and Mahendravarman are found in which cave temple at Mamallapuram?
(a)Varaha Cave
(b)Ramanuja Cave
(c)Adivaraha Cave
(d)Trimurti Cave
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: How many of the following statements about Bhakti poet Namdev is/are correct?
1. He seems to have played a part in transmitting the southern Bhakti to northern India.
2. He was a rigorous monotheist and opposed caste distinctions.
3. He was a devout follower of Kabir.
Select the correct answer.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: How many of the following statements regarding medicine and related practices in medieval India is/are correct?
1. Indian medicine of the Graeco-Arabic tradition (Tibb-i-Yunani) was almost identical in its practice with contemporary Persian medicine.
2. Harvey's discovery of the circulation of blood was explained to a scholarly noble by European traveller Francois Bernier.
3. The practice of smallpox inoculation was described in contemporary Yunani and Ayurvedic texts.
Select the correct answer.
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about Virashaivism is/are correct?
1. The Virashaivism traces its origin to the five great religious teachers—Renuka, Daruka, Ghantakarna, Dhenukarna and Vishvakarna.
2. The Virashaiva philosophy is called Shaktivishishtadvaita—the non-duality of God.
3. Ashtavarana are the eight rules of the Virashaivism to be observed by the followers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Who propounded Kashmir Shaivism?
(a)Vasugupta
(b)Abhinavagupta
(c)Ramakantha
(d)Ranganathacharya
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one among the following is not under the jurisdiction of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?
(a)The National Human Rights Commission
(b)The State Human Rights Commission
(c)The Human Rights Courts
(d)The Human Rights Council
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: According to B. R. Ambedkar, which one among the following Articles is the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution of India?
(a)Article 15
(b)Article 21
(c)Article 23
(d)Article 32
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Who among the following filed the Writ Petition that led to the famous verdict of the Supreme Court of India recognising the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right?
(a)Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(b)Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman
(c)Justice K. S. Puttaswamy
(d)Justice Anil R. Dave
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Through the Forty Second Amendment to the Constitution of India, which of the following was/were inserted into its Preamble?
1. “Liberty of thought, expression and belief” was substituted by “Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship”.
2. The expression “Unity of the Nation” was substituted by “Unity and Integrity of the Nation”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: As per the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the States have jurisdiction over agricultural land in connection with which of the following subjects?
1. Taxes on agricultural income
2. Duties in respect of succession of agricultural land
3. Estate duty in respect of agricultural land
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The 7th edition of the Indian Ocean Conference was held at
(a)Dhaka
(b)New Delhi
(c)Malé
(d)Perth
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Political idea)
A. Human beings, unlike all other objects, possess dignity
B. It is Swaraj when we learn to rule ourselves
C. Freedom implies not only emancipation from political bondage but also equal distribution of wealth
D. For me real freedom is freedom from fear
List-II (Thinker)
1. Aung San Suu Kyi
2. Subhas Chandra Bose
3. Immanuel Kant
4. Mahatma Gandhi
Code:
(a)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(b)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(c)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Who among the following is the author of the book Four Stars of Destiny : An Autobiography?
(a)Sam Manekshaw
(b)K. J. S. Dhillon
(c)Bipin Rawat
(d)Manoj Mukund Naravane
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: The Indian Army launched 'Operation Sarvashakti' to flush out terrorists in
(a)Myanmar
(b)Manipur
(c)Jammu and Kashmir
(d)Chhattisgarh
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following cities were conferred with the cleanest city award under Swachh Survekshan Awards, 2023?
(a)Varanasi and Prayagraj
(b)Indore and Surat
(c)Prayagraj and Indore
(d)Surat and Varanasi
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is an indigenous assault rifle developed by DRDO?
(a)Heckler
(b)T91
(c)Tikka
(d)Ugram
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: With which one among the following sports is Yogesh Singh, who won a Gold Medal in an Asian Championship in 2024, associated?
(a)Badminton
(b)Shooting
(c)Archery
(d)Wrestling
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Renowned classical singer Prabha Atre, who passed away recently, was an exponent of which one of the following Gharanas?
(a)Kirana Gharana
(b)Patiala Gharana
(c)Gwalior Gharana
(d)Agra Gharana
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Who among the following was the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army of independent India?
(a)S. M. Srinagesh
(b)K. M. Cariappa
(c)K. S. Thimayya
(d)K. S. Rajendrasinhji
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which one of the following is an ‘end-to-end secure mobile ecosystem’ developed recently by the Indian Army?
(a)SANCHAR
(b)VAIBHAV
(c)SAMPARK
(d)SAMBHAV
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP):
1. It is a comprehensive free trade agreement between the ASEAN member States and ASEAN’s free trade agreement partners.
2. India opted out of RCEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Recently the Government of India entered into an agreement for a lithium exploration and mining project with which one among the following countries?
(a)Brazil
(b)Australia
(c)Argentina
(d)Chile
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Consider the following statements about the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
1. One of the goals of SCO is to promote a new democratic, fair and rational international political and economic order.
2. Iran is a permanent member of SCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about the ICC under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup, 2024 is/are correct?
1. Australia won this title for the 4th time.
2. It was organised in South Africa.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements with regard to Bharat Ratna Award is/are correct?
1. It was instituted in the year 1972.
2. The award does not carry any monetary grant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about India's rank in the Global Innovation Index-2023, published by the World Intellectual Property Organisation, is/are correct?
1. India has been placed at 40th rank.
2. India has been on a rising trajectory over the period 2015-2023.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →Q: Which of the following statements about 'Green Credit Initiative' is/are correct?
1. It is a response to the challenge of climate change.
2. It promotes plantations on wasteland and river catchment areas.
3. It is a scheme of the Government of India to replace the kerosene oil with solar power used by the rural poor.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 only
(d)1 and 3 only
Answer with full explanation — CDS 2024 (I) →