MPSC 2024 Prelims Question Paper with Answers

Maharashtra Gazetted Civil Services Combined Preliminary Examination 2024 · held 1 December 2024

Every question of Paper-I (General Studies) — solved with the official MPSC final answer key, a detailed explanation of why the keyed option is right and each other one is wrong, plus background and key facts. The question text is transcribed from the commission's own booklet (संच A).

100 questions · 200 marks (2 each) · 2 hours · four options printed (1)–(4) · wrong answer -25% (1/4 of the marks for that question)

1. Q1Who among the following founded the 'Tilak School of Politics' ?Answer: (3) — Lala Lajpatrai
2. Q2Who among the following gave a personal sum of ₹ 25,000 to the Elphinstone Fund ?Answer: (3) — Nana Jagannath Shankarseth
3. Q3Who was the prominent participant in the Satyagraha at Dharasana in the Civil Disobedience Movement ?Answer: (4) — Sarojini Naidu
4. Q4Who was the leader in the uprising of 1857 in Kanpur ?Answer: (3) — Nanasaheb
5. Q5Noted Warali painter Jivya Soma Mhase was honored with which of the following awards ? (a) Padma Bhushan (b) Padma shri (c) Shilpguru (d) National award for tribal artsAnswer: (3) — (b), (c) and (d) are correct
6. Q6Simuka was the founder of the ________ dynasty.Answer: (1) — Satavahana
7. Q7Who was the main female collaborator with Mahatma Gandhi in the struggle of mill workers in Ahmedabad ?Answer: (2) — Anusaya Sarabhai
8. Q8Identify the wrong pairs. (a) Abdul Samad - Famous painter (b) Takhte Taus - Peacock throne (c) Prince Azam Shah - Bahamani ruler (d) Bibi ka Makbara - Memorial of Dilras BanoAnswer: (1) — Only (c)
9. Q9What were the main principles of the National Education Policy of 1968 based on the recommendations of the Kothari Commission ? (a) Compulsory and free education till the age of 14 years. (b) Higher position and improved pay for teachers. (c) At least 10% of gross national income spent on education.Answer: (1) — Only (a) and (b)
10. Q10Which of the following taxes was collected from Hindu and Muslim landlords respectively during the Sultanate rule ?Answer: (3) — Khiraj and Zakat
11. Q11After the split in the Indian National Congress in 1907, who made the statement 'National Congress Collapsed at Surat, this is our victory' ?Answer: (4) — Lord Minto
12. Q12Abdul Razzaq, a Persian traveller visited Vijayanagar during the period of which of the following rulers ?Answer: (4) — Devrai II
13. Q13Which of the following literature was written by King Harshavardhana ? (a) Priyadarshika (b) Harshacharita (c) Ratnawali (d) NaganandAnswer: (1) — Only (a), (c) and (d)
14. Q14Which of the following objectives was outlined in the Nehru Report ?Answer: (1) — Achieving Dominion Status
15. Q15Match the correct pairs of extension centers of Swadeshi Movement and their concerned persons. (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Punjab (d) Madras (i) Chidambaram Pillai (ii) Lala Lajpat Rai (iii) Lokmanya Tilak (iv) Syed Raza HaiderAnswer: (2) — (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
16. Q16Which of the following is not a characteristic of intensive subsistence agriculture ? (a) Intensive cultivation (b) Animal husbandry is a complementary business to agriculture (c) The vast size of the farm (d) Maximum yield production per hectare.Answer: (3) — Only (c)
17. Q17Which of the following is not the pattern of Urban settlement ?Answer: (3) — Dispersed
18. Q18Match the correct pairs : Country (a) India (b) Ecuador (c) U.S.A. (d) Australia National Park (i) Jim Corbett (ii) Grand Canyon (iii) Galapagos (iv) Great barrier reefAnswer: (3) — (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
19. Q19In which district is the Hetwane major irrigation scheme located ?Answer: (4) — Raigad
20. Q20Which of the following is not a characteristic of sedimentary rock ?Answer: (2) — The rocks are huge and hard.
21. Q21Match the correct pairs of census year and death rate in India : Year (a) 1981 (b) 1991 (c) 2001 (d) 2011 Death rate (Per 1000) (i) 15 (ii) 11 (iii) 08 (iv) 07Answer: (1) — (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
22. Q22Dispersed settlement have the following characteristics : (a) Dispersed settlement is found in hilly areas, grasslands, dense forests due to physical and environmental unfavourable conditions. (b) The structure of the houses in this settlement is isolated. (c) Due to rivers, mountain ranges, roads, railway lines etc. the clusters of houses are far away from each other. (d) These settlements are found in plains and fertile soil areas in India. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?Answer: (2) — (a) and (b) only
23. Q23Which of the following is not the tributary of river Sindhu ?Answer: (3) — Son
24. Q24Which type of drainage pattern is found in Maharashtra ? (a) Dendritic (b) Parallel (c) Indefinite (d) Trellis Answer options :Answer: (4) — All of the above
25. Q25Choose the correct option considering the following statements : Statement (a) : According to the final census of 2011, Mumbai sub-urban district had the highest population density in Maharashtra. Statement (b) : According to the final census of 2011, Kolhapur district is the fifth most densely populated district in Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Answer: (4) — Both Statements are correct
26. Q26Which of the following statements is incorrect ?Answer: (4) — India has a natural land border with Pakistan and Bangladesh.
27. Q27Through which of the following factors the fisheries development program is implemented effectively ? (a) The Fishery Survey of India. (b) National fisheries development board. (c) Development of fishing harbours. (d) Meat Marketing. Answer options :Answer: (3) — (a), (b), (c)
28. Q28Which is the longest river in the United States from the options below ?Answer: (1) — The Mississippi
29. Q29In relation to Maharashtra which statements are true as per 2011 census ? (a) In population Maharashtra rank 2nd in Country (b) Density is 365 per sq. km (c) Literacy is 82.91% (d) Sex ratio is 925 Answer options :Answer: (1) — Only (a), (b) and (c)
30. Q30Coal is found at which of the following place in Chandrapur district ? (a) Bandar (b) Ghoggus (c) Telwasa (d) Wani Answer options :Answer: (1) — (a), (b) and (c)
31. Q31Which geological evidence supports the notion that climate change is a natural and continuous process ?Answer: (4) — All of the above
32. Q32Consider the following statements. (a) High latitudes generally have greater biodiversity than low latitudes. (b) Biodiversity is generally greater at lower altitude than at higher altitude on mountain slopes. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?Answer: (2) — Only (b)
33. Q33Government of India has established system of Air quality, Weather forecasting and Research (SAFAR) in which of the following four cities for research on air quality assessment, weather forecasting ?Answer: (1) — Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Mumbai
34. Q34Consider the following statements regarding global warming : (a) Anaerobic Methane is emitted with rice cultivation. (b) When nitrogen - based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is released into the soil. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?Answer: (1) — Only (a)
35. Q35PAN (Peroxyacetyl nitrate) is formed as a result of following interaction :Answer: (3) — Nitrogen Oxide and hydrocarbons
36. Q36_________ development is prioritized over environment degradation in energy generation.Answer: (1) — Human
37. Q37What percentage of the rate of price increase was required to be kept as per the objectives of the 12th Five Year Plan ?Answer: (1) — 4.5 to 5.0%
38. Q38To study the problems of India in the year 1995 ________ committee was formed under the chairmanship of Dr. Abid Hussain.Answer: (4) — Small Industry
39. Q39The Employees Provident Fund Act was made in ________.Answer: (2) — 1952
40. Q40Perspective Planning refers ________. (a) Long run planning for 20 to 25 years. (b) Long range targets are set in-advance for a period of 15, 20 or 25 years. (c) One plan for entire period of 15 to 20 years. (d) Broader Objectives and targets are achieved within one or two years. Answer options :Answer: (1) — only (b)
41. Q41Education for women reduses fertility due to __________. (a) Education improves work opportunity for women. (b) Educated women want their own children to be educated. (c) Education and literacy make women more receptive to information about contraception (d) Improving economic condition of women. Answer options :Answer: (2) — Only (c)
42. Q42Food security includes following stages : (a) Adequate availability of food grains to all. (b) Adequate availability of food grains and pulses to all. (c) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk and vegetables to all. (d) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk products, vegetables, fruits, meat and fish etc. Answer options :Answer: (4) — (a), (b), (c) and (d)
43. Q43According to Gunnar Mirdal the role of Govt. in economic development should be as follows : (a) Effecting the spread effect by neutralizing backward effect. (b) Neutralizing spread effect by effecting the backward effect. (c) Effecting spread effect and backward effect. (d) Neutralizing spread effect and backward effect. Answer options :Answer: (1) — Only (a)
44. Q44Gaurav Dutt and Martin Ravalin said that Poverty Gap Index is calculated for which of the following reasons ?Answer: (2) — How much income would be needed to cover the deficit to eliminate poverty ?
45. Q45When was the 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' campaign launched for the protection and empowerment of the girl child as per the last revised statistics of child sex Ratio in India ?Answer: (3) — 22 January 2015
46. Q46Relative poverty depends on following factors : (a) The human body needs calories every day. (b) Income is necessary to meet basic needs. (c) Comparing two income groups, the lower income group comes in poverty. (d) Poverty is the condition of not being able to meet the basic needs. Answer options :Answer: (1) — only (c)
47. Q47According to Higins Population growth can be ________. (a) A motivator for autonomous investment in developed countries. (b) A motivator for induced investment in under-developed countries. (c) A motivator for only induced investment in developed countries. (d) Demotivate for autonomous investment in a developed countries. Answer options :Answer: (3) — only (a)
48. Q48The largest share of allocation in the Seventh Five Year Plan went to the :Answer: (3) — Energy Sector
49. Q49Who has criticized that economics is a Kuber worshiping science ?Answer: (3) — Karlail and Raskin
50. Q50In a Society where the income distribution is excessive ________ the handful individual there has unlimited money.Answer: (2) — Asymmetry
51. Q51A particle thrown up has zero velocity but how much will be the acceleration ?Answer: (3) — Equal to acceleration due to gravity
52. Q52Which one of the following is not an application of Bernoulli equation ?Answer: (4) — None of the above
53. Q53At room temperature (300k), what is the significant contribution wavelength for the thermal radiation emitted by a body ?Answer: (2) — 9550 nm
54. Q54Which of the following sentence is wrong ? (I) Atomic nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons. (II) Proton has a positive charge. (III) Electron has a negative charge. (IV) Neutron has a positive charge. Answer options :Answer: (4) — Only (IV)
55. Q55Say whether following sentences are true or false : (I) For propagation of sound medium is necessary. (II) Unit of frequency of sound is Hertz. (III) Loudness of sound is expressed in decibel unit. Answer options :Answer: (1) — (I), (II), (III) are true
56. Q56Which of the following wavelengths are used to study the crystal structure of material ?Answer: (3) — X-Rays wavelength
57. Q57Leaf Blight of wheat is caused by infection of which of the following fungus ?Answer: (2) — Alternaria triticina
58. Q58Which division of Plantae is called amphibians of plant kingdom ?Answer: (1) — Bryophyta
59. Q59With respect to structure of DNA, following four statements are made. Choose the two relevant statements. (a) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleotides coiled in a helix around a central axis. (b) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleoside coiled around a central axis. (c) The two chains are complimentary to each other so that Adenine is always paired with Thymine and cytosine with Guanine. (d) The two chains are not complimentary to each other where Adenine is paired with uracil and cytosine with Guanine. Answer options :Answer: (3) — Only (a) and (c) is relevant.
60. Q60Which of the following statements are correct about the cell theory of Schleiden and Schwann ? (a) All living things are composed of one or more cells. (b) New cells are formed from the pre-existing cells. (c) There are basic similarities in chemical composition and metabolic functions of cells. (d) The activity of an organism is collective activities and interactions of its cellular structures. Answer options :Answer: (4) — All of the above
61. Q61Which of the following animals belong to same class ?Answer: (4) — Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Anabas
62. Q62Which plants extract/latex is used to prepare a narcotics called Heroin ?Answer: (1) — Poppy plant
63. Q63Match the following to express general resemblance between bones and girdle fore limbs and hind limbs. List no. - 1 (a) Shoulder joint (b) Humerus (c) Elbow (d) Radio-ulna List no. - 2 (i) Tibio-fibula (ii) Knee (iii) Femur (iv) Hip joint Answer options :Answer: (1) — (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
64. Q64Which of the following statements is true ? (a) The adult human skeleton consists of 208 bones. (b) Vertebrae and facial bones are irregular type of bones. Answer options :Answer: (2) — Only (b)
65. Q65Consider the following statements : Rate of a chemical reaction is ________. (a) proportional to the concentration of reactants. (b) decreases on increasing the concentration of reactants. (c) increases on increasing the temperature. (d) decreases on increasing the temperature. Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?Answer: (3) — Only (a) and (c)
66. Q66Which chemical compound is used to neutralize the acidity of soil increased due to excessive use of Chemical Fertilizers ? (a) Potash (b) Lime water (c) Milk of magnesia (d) Ammonium hydroxide Answer options :Answer: (3) — Only (b)
67. Q67Which of the following pair/pairs of metal/metals can be extracted from their ores by using cyanide complex solutions ? (A) Cu and Au (B) Co and Ag (C) Au and Ag (D) Na and Hg Answer options :Answer: (2) — Only (C)
68. Q68Identify the type of following chemical reaction. 2KClO3(s) ---Δ---> 2KCl(s) + 3O2 ↑ (a) Exothermic reaction (b) Displacement reaction (c) Decomposition reaction (d) Photochemical reaction Answer options :Answer: (1) — Only (c)
69. Q69From the following which isotope is called as heavy hydrogen ? (a) Protium (b) Deuterium (c) Tritium (d) None of the above Answer options :Answer: (2) — Only (b)
70. Q70________ is used to estimate the presence of unsaturation in oils and fats.Answer: (2) — Iodine value
71. Q71Who among the following are members of a Committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner ? (A) Prime Minister (B) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (C) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (D) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. (E) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Answer options :Answer: (1) — (A), (B) and (D)
72. Q72Which Article in the Constitution of India provides for the Post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) ?Answer: (1) — Article 148
73. Q73Consider the following statements regarding 'Kesavanand Bharati' Case : (A) This case was heard by the Constitution Bench of 13 judges headed by Chief Justice of India A.N. Ray. (B) In Seven - Six majority, the bench outlined the basic structure doctrine. (C) This case changed the decision of Golaknath case. (D) This case seems to be the instance of judicial activism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Answer: (2) — (B), (C) and (D)
74. Q74The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which authority among the following ?Answer: (2) — President of India
75. Q75Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 'Bommai Case' in reference to the Emergency in the State ? (A) The 'Bommai Case' Judgement was delivered by the Supreme Court in 1994. (B) States can appeal to the Supreme Court when President's rule is introduced in the States. (C) If President's Rule is imposed without valid reason/s the Supreme Court can quash the decision of the Central Government. (D) An order to dissolve a State Assembly requires the approval of the Parliament.Answer: (2) — (A), (B), (C) and (D)
76. Q76Identify the incorrect pair :Answer: (3) — January 25, 1950 - Adoption of National Calendar by the Government.
77. Q77Consider the following statement/s regarding constitutional amendment/s in India and Choose the correct option/s. (A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli territories were included in India as per the 10th Amendment. (B) The territories of Diu, Daman and Goa were included in India as per the 11th Amendment. (C) Legislature was established in Union Territories as per the 15th Amendment. (D) The state of Meghalaya was created as per the 22nd Amendment.Answer: (4) — (A) and (D) correct
78. Q78The Central Information Commission includes one Chief Information Commissioner and Maximum how many Information Commissioners ?Answer: (2) — Ten Information Commissioners
79. Q79Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the citizenship of India ? (A) India has single citizenship system. (B) Citizenship Act was passed in 1955. (C) Part 4 of the Indian Constitution provides citizenship.Answer: (3) — Only (A) & (B) Correct
80. Q80Which Articles in the Constitution provide for the electoral system in our country ?Answer: (2) — Articles 324 to 329
81. Q81The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning : (A) The state makes discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment. (B) The state avoids preferential treatment for any particular religion. (C) The state treats all religions equally. (D) Freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people. (E) Educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instructions.Answer: (2) — (B), (C) and (D)
82. Q82Delhi was called National Capital Territory by which Constitution Amendment Act ?Answer: (2) — 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
83. Q83Consider the following statements about First Lok Sabha : (A) The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after India's First General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952. (B) The first session of first Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952. (C) The first Lok Sabha lasted its Full tenure and dissolved on 1 April 1957. (D) Shri. G.V. Mavalankar was the First Deputy Speaker of First Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Answer: (2) — (A) and (B)
84. Q84Consider the following provision/s with respect to various 'National Commissions' in India. (A) 'National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes' was established under Article 339 of the Constitution of India. (B) The 'National Commission for Women' was established under the 'National Commission for Women Act' 1990. (C) The 'National Commission for Minorities' was established under the 'National Commission for Minorities Act' 1992. (D) On 27th December 1993 an ordinance was passed to establish the 'National Human Rights Commission'. Which of the above provision/s is/are correct ?Answer: (4) — (B) and (C)
85. Q85Which article empowers the High Courts to issue directions for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?Answer: (1) — Article 226
86. Q86Karpoori Thakur was recently in news. Which of the following is not true about him ?Answer: (4) — He won State Assembly election in 1952 from Samastipur Constituency.
87. Q87Which is the India's rank in global hunger Index 2023 ?Answer: (2) — 111
88. Q88Consider the correct statements given below : (a) The interior design of Lok Sabha in the new Parliament is based on the theme of National Animal Lion. (b) The design of Rajya Sabha is based on the theme of India's National Flower Lotus. (c) The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28th May, 2023. (d) The historic Ashok Chakra has been installed beside the speaker of Lok Sabha.Answer: (1) — Statements (b), (c) are correct.
89. Q89Identify the correct statements regarding Asian Games - 2023. (a) This competition was held in Hangzhou, China. (b) Shooter Lovelina Borgohain played a role of flag bearer for India at the time of inauguration. (c) India got 4th position with 28 gold medals. (d) India got total 107 medals in this competition.Answer: (4) — (a), (c), (d)
90. Q90Select the correct statements : (a) The Nobel Peace Prize, 2023 was awarded to Narges Mohammadi. (b) Narges Mohammadi is a champion of equality and women's rights. (c) In 2004, Narges Mohammadi joined the Defenders of Human Right Center founded by Shirin Ebadi.Answer: (1) — Only (a), (b)
91. Q91Which space agency helps India in tracking the Solar Mission Aditya - L1 ?Answer: (2) — ESA
92. Q92Select the correct statements (Padma Awards 2024) : (a) 30 of the awardees in it are women. (b) 6 Padma Vibhushan award were declared. (c) 17 Padma Bhushan and 110 Padma Shri awards were declared.Answer: (3) — Only (a), (c)
93. Q93Bar Council of India's 'International Lawyers Conference 2023' was inaugurated in which City ?Answer: (1) — New Delhi
94. Q94Match the country and the Operations undertaken to protect Indian Nationals Abroad. A (Operations) (a) Operation Ajay (b) Operation Ganga (c) Operation Devishakti (d) Operation Kaveri B (Country) (i) Ukraine (ii) Israel (iii) Sudan (iv) AfghanistanAnswer: (3) — (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
95. Q95Recently, Odisha Chief Minister has launched Mukhyamantri Sampoorna Pushti Yojana. What is/are the primary objective/s of the scheme ? (a) To promote higher education for girls. (b) Improve maternal and child nutrition in the State. (c) To provide employment opportunities for adolescent girls. (d) Boosting agricultural production in rural area.Answer: (2) — Only (b) is correct.
96. Q96Match the following pairs : (A) (a) Dr. Nitin Karmalkar Committee (b) Nitin Karir Committee (c) Sunil Pawar Committee (d) Dr. K. Kasturirangan Committee (B) (i) For implementation of National Education Policy - 2020 in Maharashtra (ii) To enquire the incident which happened during the distribution of Maharashtra Bhushan Award (iii) To study why the rates of onion collapse. (iv) To make the syllabus for pre-primary to degree according to National Education Policy - 2020Answer: (1) — (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
97. Q97Identify the correct statements regarding the Chief Minister Solar Agricultural Channel Scheme. (a) This Scheme was started in June 2017, when Devendra Fadanvis was Chief Minister. (b) The main purpose of this Scheme is to provide supply of electricity to farmers through the agricultural feeder. (c) The government has decided to pay ₹ 50,000 per acre as rent to the farmers under this Scheme. (d) Solar panels are set up on government land up to ten kilometres from the 33 kV substation.Answer: (3) — (a), (b) are correct
98. Q98Women Reservation Bill - 2023, consider the following statements : (a) Narishakti Vandan Adhiniyam officially the Constitutional (One hundred and twenty eight amendment) bill - 2023 is a bill introduced in the Parliament of India. (b) The Women reservation bill was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Lok Sabha on 10th Sept. 2023. (c) This legislation seeks to allocate 30 percent of the seats in Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies for women. (d) The bill was the first that was considered in the new Parliament building. Select the correct statements from the above.Answer: (1) — (a) and (d) are correct.
99. Q99Identify the correct statements regarding M.S. Swaminathan. (a) He was resident of Tamil Nadu. (b) He was educated from Oxford University. (c) He was Scientist of Agriculture department. (d) He was Member of Rajya Sabha for some time. (e) He was awarded by Raman Magsaysay award.Answer: (2) — (a), (c), (d), (e)
100. Q100Which of the following countries are included in the Five Eyes Alliance ? (a) America (b) Britain (c) New Zealand (d) Australia (e) France (f) GermanyAnswer: (1) — (a), (b), (c), (d)