HPSC Prelims 2022

Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only four boxes are kept between R and S. Only three boxes are kept between Q and T. V is kept at one of the positions above P, but not immediately above P. Q is kept at one of the positions above V. Only two boxes are kept between S and U. How many boxes are kept between R and P?

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. Each of them is either facing the centre or facing outside (opposite to the centre). H sits second to the right of G. Only three people sit between H and B. E sits second to the right of B. Both the immediate neighbours of B face a direction opposite to that of B. E sits to the immediate left of G. Only three people sit between E and A. D sits second to the right of A. D faces outside. D is not an immediate neighbour of B. F faces inside. How many people sit between E and H, when counted from the left of E?

Each of A, B, C, D, E, F and G visited a museum on different days of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only three people visited between C and B. Only two people visited between B and D. G visited immediately before A but not on Saturday or Monday. E visited immediately before F. F did not visit on Sunday. More than one person visited between F and C. Who visited the museum on Wednesday?

J, K, L, M, N, P, Q and R live on eight different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 8. K lives on an even-numbered floor. Only three people live between K and Q. N lives immediately above P but immediately below M. J lives immediately above L. J does not live on an odd numbered floor. More than two people live between R and K. J lives on one of the floors below K. How many people live between L and P?

Study the following information and answer the given question. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a square table. Some of them are sitting at the corners while some are sitting at the exact centre of the sides. The ones sitting at the centre of the sides like either of the four colours–pink, yellow, grey or black. The ones sitting at the corners like either of the four colours–green, purple, red or orange. U sits at the corner of the table and does not like purple. Only three people sit between U and the one who likes green. Q sits second to the left of the one who likes green. R likes orange. The one who likes black sits to the immediate right of R. Only three people sit between V and S. Neither V nor S likes black. V is not an immediate neighbour of Q. The one who likes grey sits to the immediate right of the one who likes purple. W sits to the immediate left of P. More than one person sits between purple and yellow. How many people sit between the one who likes green and the one who likes Pink, when counted from the right of the one who likes green?

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows, such that each person in a row faces other person in the opposition row. In Row I-A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting facing north and in Row II-J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting facing south. More than two people sit between M and K. M faces an immediate neighbour of C. Only three people sit between F and D. A sits to the immediate left of C. Neither A nor C is an immediate neighbour of F. Only two people sit between M and L. N faces E. O sits at one of the positions to the right of J. O faces neither F nor D. How many people sit between the one who faces K and E?

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. Each of them is either facing the centre or are facing outside (opposite to the centre). Only two people sit between C and E. G sits third to the left of E. Only three people sit between G and B. Both G and B face a direction opposite to that of E. A sits to the immediate right of G. D sits third to the right of A. F sits third to the left of C. Both the immediate neighbours of D face the same direction as D. H faces the same direction as B. H does not face outside. Who sits third to the right of H?

Twelve people sit in two parallel rows. In Row I – A, B, C, D, E and F sit facing north (not necessarily in the same order) and in Row II – P, Q, R, S, T and U sit facing south (not necessarily in the same order). Each person in a row faces a person in the other row. A sits at the left end of the row. Only two people sit between A and B. D faces an immediate neighbour of U. Only two people sit between U and T. P sits to the immediate left of Q. Q does not sit at an extreme end. Q faces an immediate neighbour of C. U does not face C. E sits to the immediate right of C. Only two people sit between C and the person who faces C. D is not an immediate neighbour of B. Who faces F?

The question consists of a statement followed by two arguments I and II. Read the statement and the arguments carefully and select the appropriate answer from the given options. Statement: Children derive their identity from their surname. Argument (I): Modern parents have forever been in a dilemma, whether to use the father’s surname or the mother’s or to use any at all. Argument (II): Many parents wish to bring up their children without teaching them about belonging to a particular religion and have given up on their surnames to avoid the sense of belonging to a particular community.

Avin, Mandar, Sarang, Sarfaraz, Balram and Samir are six friends who have invested in either Mutual Funds or Fixed Deposits or both. Only two friends have not invested in Mutual Funds. Balram has invested in Mutual Funds and also Fixed Deposits. Only one other friend has invested in both Mutual Funds and Fixed Deposits. Sarang has not invested in Mutual Funds. Samir does not have Fixed Deposits. Sarfaraz has invested in only one of the two. Mandar has invested in only Fixed Deposits. Who other than Balram has invested in both Mutual Funds and Fixed Deposits?

Three departments of a gaming company, viz, HR, Production and Marketing are looked over by their CEO, Mr. Trivikram. The VP of the company, Mr. Avinash reports only to the CEO and manages the Production and Marketing Departments. Mr. Vikrant is the HR head and reports only to the CEO. The employees from various departments report to their respective department heads. The head of Admin department reports to Mr. Vikrant. The head of Production and head of Marketing departments report to Mr. Avinash. Shivani and Deepak are from the HR department. The head of Art department and the head of Design department report to Sriram who is the head of Production department. Rosy is the head of Admin department. Kiran is the head of Art department. Mayank and Julie are from Marketing department. Rahul reports to Mr. Avinash. Sandeep is the head of Design department. Vijay and Nathan report to Kiran. Amit and Geeta are from Design department. Who heads the Marketing department?

Seven girls travel from Mumbai to either Pune, Bangalore, Indore or Kolkata by bus, train or flight respectively. Not more than two girls travel to the same city. Only one girl travels by flight. Shweta and Madhura travel to the same city but by different modes of transport. Farrah travels by train to Indore. Only one girl travels to Kolkata, by train. Only two girls, Madhura and Deepa travel by bus, but to different cities. Kalpana travels to Bangalore but not by flight. Rani travels to Indore. Amruta does not travel by flight. Shweta uses the same mode of transport as Farrah. Which Girl-City-Mode of transport combination is correct?

Study the following data carefully and answer the question that follow. Eight men from a Yoga group were asked for their preference of fragrances from Musky, Woody, Aqua and Cigar and whether they used them in either Perfumes, Deodorants or Talcum. Prasad uses deodorant, Jens uses deodorant in Aqua fragrance. Only one man amongst them used Talcum. Tuene, Prasad and Vighnesh preferred a woody fragrance but used it in three different ways each. Robert uses deodorants. Nazem and Carlos prefer the Cigar fragrance and use it in two different ways each. Only one man likes the Musky fragrance. Eddie prefers the same fragrance as Jens but does not use it in deodorants. Tuene and Nazem do not use deodorants or Talcum. Who amongst the eight men prefers the Musky fragrance?

Study the following data carefully and answer the question that follow: Eight men from a Yoga group were asked for their preference of fragrances, from Musky, Woody, Aqua and Cigar and whether they used them in either Perfumes, Deodorants or Talcum. Prasad uses deodorant. Jens uses deodorant in Aqua fragrance. Only one man amongst them used Talcum. Tuene, Prasad and Vighnesh prefer a Woody fragrance but use it in three different ways each. Robert uses deodorants. Nazem and Carlos prefer the Cigar fragrance and use it in two different ways each. Only one man likes the Musky fragrance. Eddie prefers the same fragrance as Jens but does not use it in deodorants. Tuene and Nazem do not use deodorants or Talcum. Which of the following Person-Product-Fragrance combinations is incorrect?

A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has ₹10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds ₹3 with him and hands it over to A. In this context which one of the following statements is correct?

A batsman played (n+2) innings and got out on all occasions. His average score in these (n+2) innings was 29 runs and he scored 38 and 15 runs in the last two innings. The batsman scored less than 38 runs in each of the first n innings. In these n innings, his average score was 30 runs and his lowest score was x runs. The smallest possible value of x is _____.

The value of 3 + 3 / ( 3 + 1 / ( 3 + 1/3 ) ) is

A rectangular grassy plot is 38 m long and 32 m wide. It has a gravel path of uniform width on the inside having an area of 600 m². The width of the path is:

The 5th and 9th terms of an arithmetic progression are 7 and 13 respectively. What is the 15th term?

Wheat is now being sold at ₹27 per kg. During last month, its cost was ₹24 per kg. Find by how much per cent a family reduces its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed.

45 people take 18 days to dig a pond. If the pond would have to be dug in 15 days, then the number of people to be employed will be

A motorboat moves along a straight-line path along a river bank from point A to point B. If the speed of the boat in still water is doubled, then the round trip (A → B → A) would take only 20% of the time that the motorboat usually requires for the same journey. By how many times is the actual speed of the motorboat greater than the speed of the river current?

Simple interest on a sum of ₹ 1230 for 2 years is ₹ 10 more than the simple interest on ₹ 1130 for the same period. What is the applicable rate of simple interest?

A river, 2 m deep and 45 m wide, is flowing at the speed of 3 km per hour. The quantity of water that runs into the sea per minute is:

A stock of food is sufficient for 240 men for 48 days. How long will the same stock last for 160 men?

The greatest number among 26^0, 34^8, 43^6 and 52^4 is:

The average height of basketball team A is 5 ft 11 in and that of team B is 6 ft 2 in. Team A has 20 players and team B has 18 players. The overall average height is:

A two-digit number is five times the sum of its digits. If 9 is added to the number, its digits interchange their positions. The sum of the digits of the number is:

The product of Rajeev’s age 5 years ago and his age 9 years hence (both in years) is 15. Rajeev’s present age is:

Walking at 3⁄4 of his usual speed, a man is 1 ½ hours late. His usual time to cover the same distance (in hours) is:

Study the graph below that shows the consumption of different packaging materials by the Food and Beverage industry and answer the question given below: What per cent of the total glass packaging material was used for packaging food items?

Study the following graph and answer the question given below it: Approximately how much per cent more plastic was used than iron for packaging food items?

The line graph shows the road accidents in three different cities in India. The Y-axis in the graph represents the number of accidents. In which year was the difference between the accidents in City A and City C minimum?

There are 8 patients in a hospital. The average weight of the 7 lightest patients is 45 kg and the average weight of the 7 heaviest patients is 52 kg. The difference between the weight of the heaviest and the lightest patient is

Total 25 students appear for an examination. Rahul and Mohan are among those 25 students. Rahul scores 98. The average score of the 24 students other than Mohan is 48. The average score of all the 25 students is 2 more than the average score of 24 students other than Rahul. How much has Mohan scored?

The parents have m number of children. The average age of father, mother and m children is 20. The father is 48 years old and the average age of the mother and m children is 16. The number m (numerical value) is –

A is twice as old as B and C is thrice as old as A. If A's age is 2 years less than the average age of all three A, B and C, then C's present age, in years, is –

Twelve years ago, the age of the father was three times the age of his daughter. After twelve years, the father's age will be twice that of his daughter. The ratio of their present ages is –

A mother has decided to sum and product the ages of her children Ishan and Anushka. The sum and product of their ages are 18 and 56 respectively. The solution of which quadratic equation gives the possible ages of Ishan and Anushka?

The product of Vidhi's age (in years) three years ago and her age five years from now is 1 more than twice her present age. Vidhi's present age (in years) is –

X is a% more than Y and Y is b% less than Z. If X > 0, Y > 0, Z > 0 and X > Z, then the relation between a and b is –

The ratio between the prices of two bicycles is 15 : 26. If the price of the first is increased by 10% and that of the second by ₹ 550, the ratio between the prices becomes 13 : 22. What were the initial prices of the two bicycles?

₹ 1200 is divided among X, Y and Z such that ₹ 30 more than 3/5th of X's share, ₹ 10 more than 2/5th of Y's share and ₹ 20 more than 5/7th of Z's share are all equal. What is Z's share?

Ram and Sham together have ₹ 285. If 2/3rd of the money with Ram is equal to 3/5th of the money with Sham, then how much money does Ram have?

Two buses are at two different places 76 km apart. They start moving towards each other. If their speeds are 20 km/hr and 18 km/hr respectively, after how much time will they meet each other?

Two trains are moving in opposite direction. First train is 150 m long and its speed is 40 km/hr. The length of the second train is 170 m. If they cross one another in 4 seconds, what is the speed of the second train?

A man covers a distance of 1400 km in 80 days resting 10 hours a day. If he rests 16 hours a day and walks at 2.5 times the previous speed, then in how many days will he cover 1000 km?

A fraction becomes 3/5 if 3 is added to both numerator and denominator. And it becomes 1/2 if 5 is subtracted from both numerator and denominator. What is the fraction?

There are three fractions. When the largest fraction is divided by the smallest fraction, the result 3/5 is greater than the middle fraction by 1/3. If the sum of the three fractions is 3 2/5, what will be the difference between the largest and the middle fraction?

The product of two fractions is 5/4 and their quotient is 4/20. If the denominator of one fraction is 2/5 times that of the denominator of the other fraction, then what is the sum of the two fractions?

The sum of numerator and denominator of a fraction is 5 less than thrice the denominator. If the numerator and denominator are decreased by 2, then the numerator becomes half the denominator. Determine the fraction.

Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the following two conclusions is definitely true. Statements: O > S, C < D, S ≤ D Conclusions: I. O < C II. S < D

Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the following two conclusions is definitely true. Statements: G = C, P ≥ G, C ≥ D Conclusions: I. D ≥ G II. C ≥ P

Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the following two conclusions is definitely true. Statements: A ≥ J, C = Y, J > C Conclusions: I. Y > J II. A > Y

Direction: Two statements are given below followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statements: No quadrilaterals are polygons. All polygons are rhombuses. Conclusions: I. Some rhombuses are quadrilaterals. II. Some rhombuses are polygons.

Direction: Two statements are given below followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statements: All candles are lanterns. All lanterns are bulbs. Conclusions: I. All lanterns are candles. II. All bulbs are candles.

Direction: Two statements are given below followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statements: All good hockey players are in the Indian hockey team. 'X' is not a good hockey player. Conclusions: I. 'X' is not in the Indian hockey team. II. 'X' wants to be in the Indian hockey team.

Direction: Two statements are given below followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statements: Some scales are pencils. Some erasers are pencils. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are erasers. II. Some pencils are scales.

Should the in-charge of all the police stations in the country be transferred every two years? Arguments: I. No, this will create a lot of administrative hassles and also will create a lot of inconvenience to the police officers. II. Yes, this is the only way to eradicate the nexus between police officers and anti-social elements.

In the following question two statements numbered I and II are given. These two statements may be related as cause and effect, may be effects of the same cause, or may be independent of each other. Choose the correct answer. I. The life today is too fast, demanding and full of variety in all aspects which at times leads to stressful situations. II. Number of suicide cases among teenagers is on increase.

In the following question two statements numbered I and II are given. These two statements may be related as cause and effect, may be effects of the same cause, or may be independent of each other. Choose the correct answer. I. There has been a high increase in the incidents of atrocities against women in the city during the past few months. II. The police authorities have been unable to nab the culprits who are committing crimes against women.

There are five doctors 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; four engineers G, H, K and L; and six teachers M, N, O, P, Q and R. Among these some teams are to be selected. Of these 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Q are females and the rest are males. The formation of the teams is subject to the following conditions: • Wherever there is a male doctor, there will be a female teacher. • Wherever there is a male engineer, there will be a female doctor. • There shall not be more than two male teachers in any team. If the team consists of two doctors, two female teachers and two engineers, all the following teams are possible except:

Which number is in the square, ellipse and triangle?

In the given figure, P is 300 km eastward of O and Q is 400 km north of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R is:

In a college party, 5 girls are sitting in a row. P is sitting to the left of M and to the right of O. R is sitting to the right of N but to the left of O. Who is sitting in the middle?

Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship between players and footballers?

Direction: Examine the following statements and answer the question that follows. Out of four friends A, B, C and D: A and B play football and cricket. B and C play cricket and hockey. A and D play basketball and football. C and D play hockey and basketball. Which game is common to B, C and D?

The age of Amit is the same as Sumit because they are twins. Richa is younger than Sumit. Richa is younger than Jyotsana but elder than Saurabh. Sumit is younger than Jyotsana. Who is the eldest among them?

If 'THEN' is written as 'RLBS', then how will 'CASE' be written in that code?

Deepak said to Nitin, "That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?

City D is to the West of City M. City R is to the South of City D. If City K is to the East of City R, then in which direction is City K located with respect to City D?

Which number will appear on the face opposite to 1? (Two views of a cube are shown.)

If 'JUICE' is coded as '19-41-17-5-9', then 'TOY' will be coded as –

In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for Go, 4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence is continued, which instruction will come next? 4,4,5,4,5,3,1,4,5,3,1,2,4,5,4,5,3,4,5,3

Madhav’s age is currently five-seventh of the age of his father. After 5 years, Madhav’s age would be three-fourth of his mother’s age. Madhav’s father is two years older than Madhav’s mother. What was the age of Madhav ten years back?

Below are given a set of analogies. Which of these analogies are NOT appropriate? 1. Ocean : Pacific :: River : Nile 2. Zoology : Animals :: Cardiology : Brain 3. France : Europe :: China : Australia

What would be the next two terms in the given alphabetic series: bbCCC, cccEE, eeHHH, hhhLL, …….. ?

What would be the 9th term in the given alphabetic series: zYw, xWu, vUs, tSq, ……. ?

In a coding scheme, each letter in a word is written as a letter after shifting N positions ahead in English alphabet, where N is the number of vowels present in the word. For example, BAT has only one vowel, so it will be coded as CBU. A five-letter word LOUIE is taken. It is coded according to this scheme. The resultant is again coded as per this scheme, and so on; this process is repeated for 10 times. What will be the final coded word obtained?

In a coding scheme, a word is coded as product of positions of its letters in English alphabet. However, for the purpose of calculating product, only unique letters are considered. For example, in word FELL, L would be considered only once, and code would be 360. Which of these words would have largest code?

In a family of six persons, two are males and remaining are females. The members are P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are two pairs of father and daughter in the family. S is wife of Q. R and Q are siblings. P is wife of T. U is NOT daughter of S. Below are given a few statements. Based on the given information, select which of the statements is/are definitely true. 1. The two male members of family are Q and T. 2. S is mother of P. 3. T is also a sibling of Q. 4. T is uncle of Q.

Mala is sister of Harish. Harish has two daughters: Reema and Seema. Reema is married to Satish. Rekha is mother of Satish. Below are given a few statements. Based on the given information, select which of the statements is/are definitely true. 1. Reema is niece of Rekha. 2. Rekha is mother-in-law of Seema. 3. Mala is sister of Rekha.

One evening, while returning from college eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H went to a rooftop restaurant. They sat around a rectangular table, parallel to each other, four on each side. Their seating arrangement is described below: (i) A’s shadow fell to the left of D. (ii) C sat between A and B. (iii) H sat in the north-east direction of A. (iv) E sat between G and F. (v) G didn’t sit directly opposite to B and E didn’t sit directly opposite to A. If G and D swap their places, then in which direction is G finally sitting with respect to C? (A) North-West (B) South (C) North-East (D) East

“Ellipses are two dimensional figure. It has two focii and a major axis and a minor axis. A circle is always an ellipse, with equal major and minor axes.” In the text given above, M is the number of times a letter has occurred consecutively (like pp in "dipper"), and N is the number of words with four or more letters that have been repeated in the text. What is the product of M and N? (A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 16

A cube of side length 6 cm is painted red on all its sides. This cube is cut into smaller cubes of side length 2 cm. On each of the smaller cubes, the unpainted faces are painted green. Each of the smaller cubes is now further cut into cubes of side length 1 cm. How many small cubes of side length 1 cm will have exactly three of their faces coloured green? (A) 48 (B) 64 (C) 56 (D) 36

Three statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the following conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: (A) All squares are boxes. (B) Some boxes are coloured. (C) Red is a colour. Conclusions: (I) Some boxes are red. (II) Some squares are red. (III) Some squares are coloured. (IV) Some boxes are squares. (A) Only I follows (B) Only II follows (C) Only III follows (D) Only IV follows

Mirtunjay is planning to buy a test series for the CAT exam. Following are the criteria of selection for any online portal fixed by him: 1. Must contain 25 full-length mock tests. 2. Must contain last 8 years’ previous year papers. 3. Must have more than 10,000 practice questions on the portal. 4. If any portal satisfies all the above criteria except (1) but has more than 20 mock tests and more than 5 previous year papers, then he will keep that shortlisted. 5. If any portal satisfies all the above criteria except (3) but has more than 8,000 practice questions and recorded class videos, then he will ask his mentor. “Let’s crack CAT” is providing an online test series for CAT. It is providing 18 mock tests and 5 previous years’ papers. It is also providing 12,000 practice questions. Which of the following is correct for the selection of the online portal given above? (A) It will be selected (B) It will not be selected (C) It will be shortlisted (D) He will ask his mentor for selection

Mr. Yogendra Kumar is looking for a tenant for a vacant 3-BHK flat in Lakhsami Nagar, Delhi. He has fixed the following criteria for selecting tenants for his flat: (a) The family must have fewer than 5 members. (b) All family members should be vegetarian. (c) All family members must be Indian nationals. (d) If a family satisfies all the above criteria except (a) BUT has no more than 4 adults in the family and the rest are children, he will ask his son about letting it out to them. (e) If a family satisfies all the above criteria except (b) BUT does not cook non-vegetarian food at home, he will ask his wife about letting it out to them. Mr. Mohan Prasad is an Indian national looking for a flat in Lakhsami Nagar, Delhi. He lives with his wife, mother, father, a 6-year-old son and a 4-year-old daughter. All his family members are vegetarian. Which of the following is correct with regard to Mr. Yogendra Kumar’s selection of Mr. Mohan Prasad as a tenant?

Rony is a model and is looking for a personal gym trainer. The selection criteria for a candidate are as follows: (a) Must have completed a Bachelor's degree. (b) Must have at least 3 years of work experience as a trainer. (c) If a candidate meets criterion (a) but NOT (b) and has done a diploma course in personal training, he will keep that person shortlisted. (d) If a candidate meets criterion (b) but NOT (a) and has completed a degree course in nutrition and dietetics, he will ask his manager. Mikal has done a diploma course in personal training, has 2 years’ experience as a gym trainer, and is a graduate from a premier institute. Which of the following options is correct regarding the selection of Mikal?

Vipul is shortlisting universities for his master’s program and has laid down the following criteria: (a) The university must be located in the USA or the UK. (b) It must offer a master’s program in management. (c) Tuition fee must be less than USD 30,000. (d) If a university meets all criteria except (a) and is located in Australia, he will ask his brother about it. (e) If a university meets all criteria except (c) but offers at least 60%-80% scholarship on tuition, he will ask his father about it. The University of Edinburgh is located in Ireland, UK, and offers a master’s in management program to national and international students. The tuition fee is USD 50,000, and it provides a 75% scholarship to deserving candidates. Which of the following is true regarding Vipul’s selection of this university?

Following is the selection criteria for a candidate to get selected for the role of Chief Information Officer (CIO) in an organization Finotech: (a) Must have done B.Tech in Computer Science with at least 60% marks. (b) Must have done MBA in Operations. (c) Must have work experience of at least 2 years as an IT officer. (d) If a candidate fulfils all the criteria except (a) but has done BCA with 80% marks, then the case will be sent to the CEO of the company. (e) If the candidate fulfils all the criteria except (b) but has more than 5 years of work experience, then his case will be sent to the HR Manager. Javed has applied for the post of CIO in Finotech. He has completed his B.Tech with 76% and MBA with 68% marks. He has a total of 1 year of work experience as an IT officer. What will be the outcome in his case?

Four friends Sachin, Rachit, Raj and Pintu live on separate floors of a 4-floor building, but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the first floor is numbered 2, and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 4. • Sachin does not live on an even-numbered floor. • Only three friends live below the floor on which Pintu lives. • Rachit lives immediately above Sachin. Which floor does Raj live on?

In the following question there are four problem figures and four answer figures marked a, b, c and d. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.

In the following question there are four problem figures and four answer figures marked a, b, c and d. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.

In the following question there are four problem figures and four answer figures marked a, b, c and d. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.

Which of the following statements about the architectural profession in India could be inferred from the passage? 1. It became a professional course in 1972, thanks to the Architects Act that came into being that year. 2. Since 1972, on an average 10,000 new architects are acquiring a professional qualification annually. 3. The profession has not developed since 1972 and continues to struggle to be recognised as a professional qualification on par with engineering. 4. The State continues to utterly neglect the profession and there is no clarity about the amendments being proposed by it to the Architects Act (1972). 5. In the last 50 years since the passing of the Architects Act (1972) India has seen the emergence of 126,000 new professional architects.

Which of the following cannot be construed as an opinion of the author in the context of the passage?

Which of the following statements about JET-P are specifically implied in the passage? 1. It is not suitable for India as its socio-economic complexities are way too different from those existing in countries such as South Africa, Indonesia and Vietnam which have successfully adopted this mechanism. 2. Developing countries desirous of forging a deal under this mechanism must first assess their needs in the context of their own internal situation and the challenges unique to their country. 3. It is an unidirectional partnership with the developed countries as givers and the developing countries as receivers. 4. Only three developing countries have so far availed of this benefit, but the insertion of a certain new condition in the Glasgow Pact will make it more difficult for new candidates looking to avail of the same. 5. It could be a clever move of the developed countries, camouflaged as an olive branch but designed to fulfil their own selfish motives, to rope in the developing countries.

As per the passage which of the following is/are challenges likely to be faced by developing countries seeking to forge a JET-P alliance with the developed countries? 1. Having to deal with the income disparities that are likely to develop, between the currently coal-producing and the other regions, in the event of adopting 'phase-down' measures. 2. Not being able to think of suitable alternative energy options/sources that could adequately make up for any loss of coal energy. 3. Not having able and knowledgeable negotiators in the teams designated to interact with the team from the developed countries that are willing to offer them financial assistance. 4. Having to ensure that the developed countries offering financial assistance do collectively comprehend, and deal with, differences in the nature of the economies of the developing countries as compared to their own. 5. Not being able to afford the cost of loans that the developed countries are offering under this mechanism.

As per the passage which of the following is a significant and justified expectation from the developing countries seeking financial assistance from developed countries under JET-P?

Consider the following statements regarding FASTER: 1. It was launched in 2021 by the Supreme Court. 2. It was created for transmission of e-authenticated copies of the judgements/final orders/interim orders to the concerned court/tribunals for due compliance. 3. It aimed at cutting the delay in transmission of the orders passed by the court and consequent delay in the release of the under-trial persons, accused persons and convicts. 4. It stands for Fast and Safe Transmission of Electronic Records. Which of the options given above is/are incorrect?

Consider the following statements: 1. Loan Guarantee Scheme for Covid affected sectors (LGSCAS) with a corpus of Rs. 2,000 crore was launched in 2021 for providing credit guarantee coverage to lending institutes for loans to projects under the health-care sector. 2. The scheme provides credit guarantee of 50 percent to all greenfield projects and 75 percent to all brownfield projects to be set up at the centres other than metropolitan cities. 3. For aspirational districts, the guarantee cover will be 50 percent for both brownfield expansion and greenfield projects. 4. For aspirational districts, the guarantee cover will be 75 percent for both brownfield expansion and greenfield projects. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Agnipath scheme is a recruitment scheme for youth to serve in the armed forces. Which of the following holds true for “Agniveers”, the youth selected under the scheme? 1. Agniveers will be given an attractive customized monthly package along with risk & hardship allowances as applicable in the three services. 2. On completion of their engagement period of five years, they will be paid one-time non-contributory Seva Nidhi Package. 3. Seva Nidhi Package is exempt from income tax. 4. Agniveers will be provided non-contributory Life Insurance Cover of Rs. 24 lakh for the duration of their engagement period in the Indian Armed Forces. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Electronic Voting Machine (EVMs) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) are being used by the Election Commission of India to conduct elections to the Parliamentary & Assembly Constituencies. Consider the following statements: 1. EVMs were first used on pilot basis in Thrissur Assembly Constituency of Kerala. 2. EVMs are manufactured by Electronics Corporation of India Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited. 3. VVPATs were used first in bye-elections for Khonsa Assembly Constituency of Arunachal Pradesh. 4. VVPAT is an additional unit attached to the EVM, which prints a slip of paper that carries only the serial number and symbol of the candidate voted. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT true?

Consider the following statements: 1. Statistics Day is celebrated every year on 29th July. 2. National Statistical Commission was set up in 2004. 3. The base year of Consumer Price Index (Rural) is the same as that of Consumer Price Index (Urban) i.e. 2012 = 100. Which of the above statements is/are FALSE?

Match the following schemes/portals of the Government of Haryana: (i) Meri Fasal, Mera Byora Portal (ii) Uttam Seed Portal (iii) Mukhyamantri Bhagwani Bima Yojna (iv) Real Time Data Acquisition System (a) To free farmers from the risk of weather uncertainties (b) Canals (c) To prevent arbitrariness of seed sellers (d) Allow farmers to sell their crops and provide financial assistance for fertilizers, seeds, loans and agricultural equipment from their homes. Choose the correct option:

Match the following schemes/yojanas of the Government of Haryana: (i) Khet Khali Phir Bhi Khushali (ii) Mera Pani Meri Virasat (iii) Bhavantar Bharpai Yojna (iv) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Pashudhan Suraksha Yojna (a) To make livestock owners risk free (b) To make farmers free from risk at the time of a fall in the prices of fruits, vegetables (c) To encourage farmers to diversify from paddy to alternative less water-intensive crop (d) Farmers get benefit even if the land where paddy is grown is kept fallow. Choose the correct option:

Mukhyamantri Muft Ilaj Yojna, in Haryana, includes the following services: 1. Surgeries, laboratory tests, diagnostics (X-Ray, ECG, ultrasound) only. 2. OPD/IPD, Medicines, Referral transport, dental treatment only. 3. OPD/IPD, diagnostics, laboratory tests, surgeries only. 4. Dental treatment, Referral transport, Medicines, OPD/IPD, Surgeries, Laboratory tests, Diagnostics (X-Ray, ECG, ultrasound) only. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT) is associated with which of the following? 1. Project India Size 2. VISION XT 3. COEK 4. CHAMPIONS Portal Which of the options given above are correct?

Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojna (PMJAY) has been renamed as: 1. Pradhan Mantri Aushadhi Pariyojana 2. Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Vikas Yojna 3. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana 4. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Aushadhi Vikas Yojna Which of the options given above is correct?

Which of the following is/are NOT true regarding the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM) to ensure old-age protection for unorganized workers? 1. Each subscriber shall receive minimum assured pension of Rs. 2,000 per month after attaining the age of 55 years. 2. Each subscriber shall receive minimum assured pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 3. During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the dependent members of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50 % of the pension received by the beneficiary, as family pension. 4. The subscriber’s contribution to PM-SYM is through the auto-debit facility from his/her savings bank account/Jan Dhan Account and it ranges from Rs. 50 to 500 per month depending upon the age of the subscriber. Which of the options given above is/are NOT correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the MusQan initiative: 1. To reduce preventable mortality and morbidity of children below 12 years of age. 2. All pregnant women and sick infants up to 1 year of age attending public health facilities are entitled to free services, drugs and consumables as well as diagnostics services. 3. To provide child-friendly services to the newborn and children in a humane & supportive environment. 4. It is an intensified programme to bring undiluted focus on promotion of breast-feeding and other infant & young child feeding practices. Which of the options given above is/are correct?

Match the following: (i) Sowa-Rigpa (ii) Siddha (iii) Unani (iv) Ayurveda (a) Fusion of traditional knowledge of ancient civilizations like Egypt, Arabia, India, Iran, China & Syria. (b) Health is a pre-requisite for achieving the goals of life i.e. Dharma, Artha, Kama and Moksha. (c) System is evolved based on 96 tools or principles (Thathuvus) which include physical, physiologic, psychological and intellectual aspects of every human being. (d) The basic theory is explained in terms of the body & the mind as the locus of treatment; antidote; method of treatment through antidote; medicines that cure the disease; pharmacology. Choose the correct option:

Match the following: (i) SARTHAQ (ii) DIKSHA (iii) PRABANDH (iv) TALKING BOOKS (a) Developed to aid Divyang students. (b) Project appraisal budgeting achievement & Data handling system portal. (c) Students and Teachers Holistic Advancement through quality education. (d) e-learning expanded through digital infrastructure for knowledge sharing. Choose the correct option:

PM SHRI Schools have the following features: 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme under which more than 15,000 schools will be qualitatively strengthened to include all components of the National Education Policy. 2. Such schools will be developed as Green Schools incorporating environment-friendly aspect. 3. PM SHRI Schools will be developed by strengthening the existing schools from amongst schools managed by central government only. 4. PM SHRI Schools will be developed by strengthening the existing schools from amongst schools managed by central government / State / U.T. government / local bodies / KVS / NVS. Which of the options given above is/are correct?

Match the following: (i) Yukti-Yogya Kalakriti ki Takneek (ii) SAKSHAM (iii) Ishan Uday (iv) Pragati List of schemes/initiatives (a) A scheme of AICTE, aimed at providing assistance for advancement of girls’ participation in technical education. (b) Aims at skill development and up-gradation of design and technologies enhancing the economic prospects of those engaged in traditional crafts and arts as a means of livelihood. (c) Scholarship scheme for differently-abled persons. (d) Special scholarship scheme for students of north-east region. Choose the correct option:

Match List I with List II and choose the correct option: List I 1. Bagar 2. Bet 3. Nali 4. Khadar 5. Bangar List II (a) Parts of Hisar, Bhiwani and Sirsa (b) Flood plains of Markanda (c) Flood plains of Ghaggar (d) Flood plains of Yamuna (e) Old alluvial plains

Match List I with List II and choose the correct option: List I (a) Gujri Mahal (b) Seikh Chilli’s tomb (c) Choron ki Baoli (d) Jal Mahal List II 1. Kurukshetra 2. Mahendragarh 3. Hisar 4. Rohtak

Given below are the administrative divisions of Haryana along with the districts included: Administrative division – Districts included (a) Hisar – Hisar, Fatehabad, Jind, Bhiwani, Sirsa (b) Rohtak – Jhajjar, Sonipat, Bhiwani, Charkhi Dadri, Rohtak (c) Karnal – Panipat, Karnal, Kurukshetra, Kaithal (d) Ambala – Ambala, Kurukshetra, Panchkula, Yamunanagar Which of the above administrative divisions are correctly matched?

Read the following statements about Yadavindra Garden, Pinjore (Panchkula) and choose the correct option: 1. It was built by Nawab Fidai Khan in the 15th century. 2. The garden is an example of Mughal garden style. 3. It was renovated by the rulers of the princely state of Patiala.

Match the following as per popular beliefs: 1. City of five canals 2. City named after wife of Neem Singh 3. City in Arabic meaning Fort 4. City named after a place of monkeys (a) Kaithal (b) Panchkula (c) Bhiwani (d) Hisar

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option in the context of Haryana: Column I 1. Khoria 2. Manjira 3. Surkhab 4. Churma Column II (a) tourist complex (b) sweet dish (c) dance form (d) musical instrument

Given below is a list of districts along with the other districts touching their boundaries: 1. Jind : Hisar, Kaithal, Panipat, Karnal 2. Rohtak : Jind, Charkhi Dadri, Hisar, Rewari 3. Rewari : Mahendergarh, Gurugram, Nuh, Jhajjar 4. Hisar : Bhiwani, Rohtak, Sirsa, Fatehabad Which of the above is / are correctly matched?

Which of the following statements with reference to uniform linear motion and uniform circular motion is / are TRUE? 1. In a uniform linear motion, a body moves in the same direction with a constant speed but in uniform circular motion, the speed of the body remains constant and the direction of the motion changes continuously. 2. In a uniform linear motion, there is instantaneous change in velocity but in uniform circular motion, the velocity remains the same. 3. A uniform linear motion is an accelerated motion but a uniform circular motion is not an accelerated motion.

Which of the following statement(s) about freely falling objects is / are FALSE? 1. Freely falling objects are the objects falling from a height towards the earth under gravitational force of the earth. 2. The acceleration of a body falling freely towards the earth depends on the mass of the body. 3. If an object is dropped freely from a height, its initial velocity ‘u’ is zero and if an object is thrown vertically upwards, its final velocity ‘v’ becomes zero.

Assertion (A): When an artificial satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit with a constant speed, its velocity is not constant because the direction of motion of the satellite is changing continuously. Reason (R): The force of gravity of earth keeps the satellite in circular orbit around it. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

Which of the following statement(s) about artificial sweetening agents is / are TRUE? 1. Ortho-sulphobenizimide is the first popular artificial sweetening agent. 2. Ortho-sulphobenizimide is also called saccharin. 3. Ortho-sulphobenizimide is about 100 times as sweet as cane sugar.

Which of the following statements about the types of soaps is / are TRUE? 1. Transparent soaps are made by dissolving the soap in ethanol and then evaporating the excess solvent. 2. Shaving soaps contain fillers like sodium rosinite, sodium silicate, borax and sodium carbonate. 3. Soap chips are made by running a thin sheet of melted soap onto a cool cylinder and scraping off the soap in small broken pieces.

Match List I with List II. LIST I (Chemical Compounds) A. Norethindrone B. Alitame C. Cetyltrimethylammonium Bromide D. Phenelzine LIST II (Usage) I. Cationic detergent II. Antifertility drug III. Artificial sweetener IV. Anti-depressant drug Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements about the parasite Dodder is/are TRUE? 1. Dodder is a plant parasite, which has special sucking roots called haustoria for absorption of food from the host plant. 2. Dodder is a vine-like parasitic plant and is essentially leafless. 3. Many species of Dodder cause weed problems in the horticulture industry. 4. Once the Dodder plant gets attached to the host plant it loses its root system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List I with List II. LIST I (Process) A. Moulting B. Reeling C. Shearing D. Scouring LIST II (Description) I. Process of extracting silk from cocoons II. Process of removing wool from the body of an animal III. Process of washing the raw, sheared wool to get rid of grease, dirt and dust IV. Process of shedding outer layer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements regarding asexual reproductive structures in Fungi and Simple plants is/are TRUE? 1. Zoospores are flagellated motile spores produced inside a parent cell called zoosporangia. 2. Conidia are non-motile spores produced singly or in chains by constriction at the tip or laterally on special hyphal branches called conidiophores. 3. Gemmules are endogenous buds that are simply a copy of parent nucleus with a small amount of cytoplasm and a protective covering around. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements regarding Soil is/are FALSE? 1. Fertile soil supports plant growth by providing plants with nutrients, acting as a water-holding body and serving as the substrate to which plants anchor their roots. 2. Vegetation, tree cover and forest prevents soil degradation and desertification by stabilizing the soil, maintaining water and nutrient cycling. 3. Grass found on pasture lands cannot protect the soil against soil erosion and also inhibits the soil biological activities. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Consider the following statements under Article 18 of the Indian Constitution: 1. Any citizen of India can take any title from any foreign state. 2. In Balaji Raghavan vs Indian Federation (1996), the Supreme Court has announced that 'Padma-Vibhushan', 'Padma-Bhushan' and 'Padamshree' is a title but these awards violate 'right to equality'. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy consider the following statements: 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy of Indian Constitution have been clearly divided into three parts, i.e., Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal. 2. Directive Principles of State Policy related to co-operative society (under Article 43) of Indian Constitution is taken from Nehru's Objective Resolution of 1946. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Consider the following statements: 1. According to Article 356, Government could declare a state of emergency on grounds of external threat only. 2. Once an emergency is proclaimed, the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the Union Government. 3. The 42nd Amendment was also passed during the emergency. 4. Among the various changes made by the 42nd Amendment, one was that the duration of the legislatures in the country was extended from 5 to 7 years. Which of the statements given above is correct?

Arrange the following events performed by the Constituent Assembly in the correct sequence (earliest to latest): 1. Ambedkar's first speech in the Constituent Assembly. 2. Adoption of the national flag by the Constituent Assembly. 3. Approval of India's Commonwealth membership. 4. Nehru's Objective Resolution.

Consider the following pairs: Committee of the Constituent Assembly — Chairperson 1. Language Committee — Jawaharlal Nehru 2. Union Power Committee — Moturi Satyanarayana 3. Minority Committee — H. C. Mookherjee 4. Fundamental Rights Sub-committee — J. B. Kripalani 5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights — Vallabhbhai Patel How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements regarding the Bill of Rights: 1. The "Motilal Nehru Committee" presented a bill of rights in 1930. 2. A Bill of Rights prohibits government from acting against the rights of the individual and ensures a remedy in case there is a violation of these rights. 3. Government cannot put reasonable restrictions on the exercise of our fundamental rights. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Consider the following statements: 1. A Bill pending in the legislature of a state shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House or Houses thereof. 2. A Bill pending in the Legislative Council of a state which has been passed by the Legislative Assembly shall lapse on a dissolution of the Assembly. 3. A Bill which is pending in the Legislative Assembly of a state, or which having been passed by the Legislative Assembly is pending in the Legislative Council, shall not lapse on a dissolution of the Assembly. Which of the statements above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. A parent or guardian shall provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six to fourteen years. 2. To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. 3. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures. 4. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. 5. To provide primary healthcare to persons below the poverty line. Which of the statements given above is/are related to Fundamental Duties?

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: Federalism in India is, in recent years, moving from a cooperative to a bargaining federal system. Reason R: Residuary powers of legislation are vested in the Union (the Centre). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The Indian National Congress rejected the ‘Cripps Proposal’ because Congress was not convinced with the dominion status offered by the British. Statement II: The Muslim League accepted the ‘Cripps Proposal’ because the indirect demand for Pakistan was accepted by the proposal. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The Fundamental Rights are non-justiciable in the courts. Statement II: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are made justiciable in the courts. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements: Statement I: ‘The doctrine of basic structure’ was propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case in 1973. Statement II: The Indian Parliament has the power to amend the whole Constitution. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Arrange the following movements chronologically (from earliest to latest): a. Kheda Satyagraha b. Ahmedabad Satyagraha c. Rowlatt Act Satyagraha d. Champaran Satyagraha Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I (Schedules of the Constitution) with List-II (Provision/Subject) and choose the correct answer: List-I (Schedule) 1. First 2. Second 3. Third 4. Fourth 5. Fifth List-II (Provision/Subject) a. The state and the union territory b. Oath c. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha d. Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes e. Provision as to the emoluments of the President, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Match List-I (Authors) with List-II (Books) and choose the correct answer: List-I a. S. Khilnani b. Rajni Kothari c. R. Guha d. Atul Kohli List-II I. The Idea of India II. Democracy and Discontent III. India After Gandhi IV. State against Democracy

Match List - I with List - II: List - I a. Estimate Committee b. Public Account Committee c. Rules Committee of Lok Sabha d. Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee List - II I. 22 Members II. 30 Members III. 31 Members IV. 15 Members Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Match List - I with List - II: List - I (Articles) a. 265 b. 266 c. 267 d. 263 List - II (Provisions) I. Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law II. Consolidated Fund of India III. Contingency Fund IV. Inter-State Council Choose the correct answer from the options given below :