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200 MCQs · CSAT + GS-II
After melting four metallic spheres of diameter 15 cm in a factory, wire of diameter 0.2 cm was drawn. What would be the length of the wire so obtained?
Nine years ago, the father was nine times as old as his son and ten years hence he will be two years more than twice the age of his son then. What are their present ages?
Suresh lent a sum of money on compound interest in such a way that it amounted to three times in 4 years. For how long should he invest his money so that he gets back an amount which is 9 times the sum of money lent by him?
A shopkeeper marks the price of three identical articles, first, 60% above the Cost Price; second, 45% above the Cost Price and the third, 40% above the cost price. If he gives discount of 25% on first article, 20% on the second article and 15% on the third one, what is his overall profit percentage?
A group of tourists from Australia visited New Delhi for sight-seeing. On a particular day, one-third of them visited Qutub Minar, four times the square root of the total number of tourists visited Red Fort and the remaining 18 tourists were seen walking on the Kartavya Path near the India Gate. What is the total number of tourists who went out for sight-seeing on that particular day?
A man travels from point A in one state to point B in another state by a train moving at a speed of 90 km ph and he returns to the starting point A by another train moving at a speed of 72 km ph. What was the average speed of the trains for the whole journey?
A sum of Rs. 81,270 is divided among P, Q and R in such a manner that if Rs. 75, Rs. 90 and Rs. 105 are subtracted from their amounts respectively, the ratio of their amounts becomes 5 : 6 : 7. How much amount does P receive?
In a △ABC, ∠C = (9/4) ∠B = (3/2) (∠A + ∠B). Find the measure of the angles.
The average score of marks of students of classes XI-A and XI-B in Mathematics is 86.5. The average score of marks in Mathematics of students in Class XI-A is 91 and in Class XI-B is 81. What is the ratio of the number of students of Class XI-A to Class XI-B?
One contractor had undertaken a construction work. To complete the given job, he sought labour comprising 24 men for 12 days, working 10 hours a day. But due to festival season, as the labour had gone to their respective hometowns, he could get only 15 men and they were willing to work only 8 hours a day. With this much labour, in how many days would he be able to complete the same job?
A dealer bought a six-seater Dining Table after getting successive discounts of 15% and 12%. Thereafter, he spent 10% on transport, etc., and finally sold it for Rs. 24,169.75, thereby earning a profit of 25%. What was the marked price of the Dining Table?
Water is flowing at the rate of 12 km per hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 60 m long and 33 m wide. Find the time in which the level of water in the tank will rise by 28 cm.
The compound interest on a certain sum for 3 years at 8% per annum is Rs. 1,94,784. What is the simple interest on the 9⁄10 part of the sum for the same period but at a rate of interest per annum which is 1⁄2 the rate applicable for compound interest?
A sum of Rs. 1,48,000 was distributed among four employees—Arun, Bipin, Chetan and Dheeraj—such that Bipin gets 20 % more than Arun and Chetan gets an amount equal to 50 % of the sum of what Arun and Bipin get together. If Dheeraj gets Rs. 40,618, what is the difference in the amounts received by Bipin and Chetan?
If six times the larger number is divided by the smaller number, the quotient is 7 and the remainder is 7. Also, if nine times the smaller number is divided by the larger number, the quotient is 7 and the remainder is 21. What are the two numbers?
The present age of a father is four years more than 2 ½ times the age of his son. Five years hence, the father’s age will be 5 years more than twice the age of the son. What are their present ages?
Anjali and Sanjana have some marbles. If Sanjana gives 15 marbles to Anjali, Anjali will have 10 marbles less than twice the marbles with Sanjana. If Sanjana gives 40 marbles to Anjali, Anjali will have 20 marbles more than three times the marbles with Sanjana. How many marbles does Anjali have?
Rajender engages Sunil and Vijay to do some construction work in his office. Sunil is highly skilled and is 3 ½ times as good a workman as Vijay. Therefore, Sunil can finish his work in 45 days less than Vijay. In how many days can both working together finish the work?
There is much difficulty ________ getting ________ this place and it is not possible to reach ________ without the grace of God.
Nature is ________ and unchangeable, and it is ________ as to whether its hidden reasons and ________ are ________ to man or not.
Despite being perceived as ________ by all, the club members unanimously decided to ________ Arun, a skinny teenager with prominent ________, as the member of the year, so that the whole affair would be ________ to Arun’s father who was recuperating after a serious illness.
BLOCKED is to YOLXPVW as OZF MXS is to -
USPL is to KMPT as LJGC is to -
THEREFORE is to TEEOERFRH as HELICOPTER is to -
RATION is to RATNIO as TRIBAL is to -
ACEG : DFHJ :: QSUW : ______
kcaC : Cack :: XgmF : ___
EGIK : FILO :: FHL : ___
In a certain code, '247' means 'spread red carpet', '256' means 'dust one carpet' and '264' means 'one red carpet'. Which digit in that code means 'dust'?
In a certain code language, '123' means 'bright little boy', '145' means 'tall, big boy' and '637' means 'beautiful little flower'. Which digit in that code language means 'bright'?
In a certain code, '256' means 'you are good', '637' means 'we are bad' and '358' means 'good and bad'. Which of the following represents 'and' in that code?
In a certain code language, '123' means 'hot filtered coffee', '356' means 'very hot day' and '589' means 'day and night'. Which digit stands for 'very'?
In a certain code, '256' means 'red colour chalk', '589' means 'green colour flower' and '245' means 'white colour chalk'. Which digit in that code means 'white'?
In a certain code language, '526' means 'sky is blue', '24' means 'blue colour' and '436' means 'colour is fun'. Which digit in that language means 'fun'?
Pointing to a man on the stage, Rita said, "He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband." How is the man on the stage related to Rita?
Showing the man receiving the prize, Saroj said, "He is the brother of my uncle's daughter." Who is the man to Saroj?
E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C. C is B's daughter. How is D related to E?
Seven men A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue, one behind the other in that order. That is, A is first in the queue while G brings up the rear. Each of them is wearing a hat of a different colour of the rainbow – Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red – but not necessarily in that order. It is also known that: • D can see in front of him green and blue hats, but not the violet hat. • E can see violet and yellow hats, but not the red hat. • G can see hats of all the colours except Orange. • E is wearing the Indigo coloured hat. What colour hat is worn by F?
Which letter is in the 125th position in the alphabet series A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E F … ?
A wall clock shows that the time is 3.00 AM. What would be the time after the hour hand rotates by 135° from that position?
Which of the following statements about Autism is borne out by the passage? i. It is an incurable mental disease requiring evidence-based therapy rather than stem cell therapy. ii. It is a physical disease that cannot be cured but could be managed using evidence-based therapy. iii.It can be scientifically managed in a way that the patient achieves his or her full potential.
Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the word “altar” as used in the passage?
It is implied in the passage that
In the context of the passage, “predatory marketing” specifically refers to i. unethical efforts by unlicensed clinics to lure gullible parents to seek cures even for commonly incurable conditions. ii. the practices adopted by unauthorised clinics to edge ahead of their competitors in the field and grab maximum possible patients. iii.the act of employing advertising or marketing strategies in the medical field due to the absence of stringent enough regulations against the same.
Which of the following statements about “evidence-based therapies” is implied in the passage? i. These are meant to empower and inform parents of children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. ii. Awareness about such therapies is apparently not as widespread as stem cell therapy which is even being advertised widely to serve commercial interests. iii.Such therapies are any day better than stem cell therapy.
Arun rows from A to B against the current in 8 hrs. and from B to A in 2 hrs. If the speed of the river is 9 m/sec., what is the speed of the boat in still water?
A train travelling at 25 km/hr leaves Delhi at 9 a.m. and another train leaves Delhi at 35 km/hr at 2 p.m. in the same direction. At how many kilometres from Delhi do they meet?
A goods train runs at the speed of 54 km/hr and crosses a 110 metres long platform in 20 seconds. What is the length of the goods train?
P does a job in 11 days while Q takes 12 days and R takes 22 days for the same job. P and Q started working together, but after two days they left and R had to complete the job. Find the total number of days required to complete the job.
A tap can fill a tank in 45 minutes and another tap can empty it in 3 hours. If both taps are opened at 11 : 30 AM, at what time will the tank be filled?
In 36 hours, how many times will the hands of a clock coincide?
Read the information and answer the question. (i) Eleven students Ravi, Vipul, Ketan, Jolly, Aabid, Salman, Dhara, Harlin, Nikita, Joy and Vimal are sitting in a row of the class facing the teacher. (ii) Jolly, who is to the immediate left of Salman, is second to the right of Ketan. (iii) Ravi is second to the right of Aabid, who is at one of the ends. (iv) Joy is the immediate neighbor of Ravi and Vipul and third to the left of Dhara. (v) Harlin is to the immediate left of Jolly and third to the right of Nikita. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?
Using the same information as in Q. 52, who is sitting at the left-most end?
Using the same seating arrangement, which of the following statements is true?
If Aabid and Jolly, Ketan and Vipul, Ravi and Harlin, and Vimal and Salman interchange their positions, which pair of students is sitting at the ends?
Find the related word from the given options: Disease : Death :: Quarrel : ?
Four families decided to go for a picnic to Jhumri Talaiya and agreed to meet at a place called Rani ka Talab before moving for the picnic. One family has no kid, while the others have at least one kid each. Among the families with kids, at least one kid goes on the picnic. The information given below is about the families: (i) The family with two kids came just before the family with no kids. (ii) D, who does not have any kids, reached just before C’s family. (iii) P and his wife reached last with their only kid. (iv) Q is not B’s husband. (v) Q and S are fathers. (vi) C’s and A’s daughters go to the same school. (vii) B came before D and met A when she reached the fixed place. (viii) R stays farthest from the place and he is a good singer. (ix) S explained that his son could not come because of exams. Who amongst the females arrived third?
Four families decided to go for a picnic to Jhumri Talaiya and agreed to meet at Rani ka Talab before moving for the picnic. (Use the information in statements (i)–(ix) given in Question 57.) Which is the correct pair of husband and wife?
Using the same information in statements (i)–(ix) (see Question 57), whose daughters go to the same school?
Based on the information in statements (i)–(ix) (Question 57), whose family has definitely more than one kid?
Referring to the information in statements (i)–(ix) (Question 57), among the males, who arrived second?
Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow: In a joint family of seven persons L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, two are married couples. “R” is a housewife and her husband is a lawyer. “N” is the wife of “M”. “L” is an engineer and is the granddaughter of “R”, and “O” is the father-in-law of “N”, a doctor, and father of “P” a professor. “Q” is L’s brother and M’s son. How is P related to M?
Using the same family information (see Question 62), how is Q related to O?
With reference to the family information in Question 62, who is M’s father?
If W is parallel to U and W is ½ km south of V and 1 km north of T, then which two streets would be 1.5 km apart?
Which of the following possibilities would make two streets coincide?
If street R is between O and P, then distance between N and Q is:
If R is between O and P, then which of the following is false?
Which of the following is necessarily true (given the basic clues)?
Which of the following pair of numbers is different from the others?
Find the next term of the given series. 6.25, 6.3, 6.4, 6.55, 6.75, ?
Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the question figures.
If house is called market, market is called bank, bank is called hospital and hospital is called post office, then where do we go for shopping?
If TABLE is coded as UBCMF, then in the same language CHAIR will be coded as –
Pointing to a woman a girl said, "She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father's only son." How is the girl related to the woman?
Read the information given and answer the question. 'P × Q' means 'P is father of Q'. 'P − Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. 'P · Q' means 'P is mother of Q'. 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. In the expression A + B × C ÷ D, how is C related to A?
If Priya is the sister of the son of Rahul's son, how is Priya related to Rahul?
In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts 70 questions and secures 135 marks, the number of questions he attempts wrong is –
In a group of 1292 persons consisting of captains and soldiers travelling in a train, for every 16 soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is –
If (a + 1)/(a² − 1) = 1/5, then the value of a is –
From the following, choose that which is different from the others.
Find the mirror image of the given figure.
Replace the question-mark sign (?) by observing the pattern.
Choose the correct mirror image from the answer figures of the given figure.
Find the odd one.
In the given figure, going from P to Q only along the drawn lines and taking the shortest possible path, in how many different ways can one reach Q?
A man is performing yoga with his head down and legs up. His face is towards the south. In which direction will his right hand be?
Aditya walks 50 metres toward the West. He turns right and walks 50 metres. Then he turns left and walks 50 metres. Now, in which direction is Aditya from the starting point?
If 13 + 5 = 6 and 34 + 8 = 14, then the value of 8 + 7 is –
Solve the following problem and choose the correct option. (J – D) / 3 = 2 (U – K) / 2 = 5 (T – E) / 5 = ?
Four people were painting a house. Mohan and Kishan were painting the front and back sides respectively, while Napit and Raj were painting the left and right sides respectively when viewed from the front. After 2 hours, Mohan replaced Raj, Raj replaced Kishan, and Kishan replaced Napit. Who is now at the back side?
Select the figure which fits exactly into the given figure to form a complete square.
Select the alternative in which the specified components of the question figure are found.
If the following figure is folded to form a cube, which symbol will be opposite to @ ?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Alok and Parth like tea and milk, Deepak and Aditya like coffee and shake, Vijay and Parth like juice and milk. Aditya likes coffee, milk and shake, Deepak likes tea, coffee and juice. Which of the following do not like milk?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Alok and Parth like tea and milk, Deepak and Aditya like coffee and shake, Vijay and Parth like juice and milk. Aditya likes coffee, milk and shake, Deepak likes tea, coffee and juice. Which of the following do not like juice?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Alok and Parth like tea and milk, Deepak and Aditya like coffee and shake, Vijay and Parth like juice and milk. Aditya likes coffee, milk and shake, Deepak likes tea, coffee and juice. Who like tea, shake, juice and coffee but not milk?
Which of the following group of numbers is similar to (3, 13, 23)?
Choose the correct alternatives. Teacher : Education :: Farmer : ?
Select the appropriate number from the given alternatives: M × N : 14 × 13 :: G × V : ?
Consider the following statements regarding the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Report: Statement-I: Current Weekly Status (CWS) in urban areas is measured at an interval of three months. Statement-II: The present Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) and Unemployment rate show a declining trend when compared with their base year 2017-18. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the recently released Reserve Bank of India "Treatment of Wilful Defaulters and Large Defaulters Directions, 2023": 1. The directions are applicable to all regulated entities including NABARD, SIDBI and EXIM Bank. 2. A wilful-default borrower needs to be reviewed and finalised within six months of an account being classified as a non-performing asset (NPA). 3. A lender cannot proceed against a guarantor without exhausting remedies against the principal debtor. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Scheme for Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP): 1. It provides a mechanism for exemption of taxes, duties, and levies on exported goods. 2. The scheme is WTO-compatible and is being implemented in an end-to-end IT environment. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework: 1. Currently PCA supervisory norms are applicable to both Government and non-Government NBFCs. 2. Discretionary actions under PCA include restriction on branch expansion. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act: 1. A Fugitive Economic Offender (FEO) is a person who has fled the country and against whom an arrest warrant has been issued for involvement in economic offences involving at least Rs. 100 crores. 2. Under the Act, authorities are empowered to confiscate assets even when no conviction has been obtained. 3. Financial Intelligence Unit is the nodal agency to implement the Act. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation: 1. It was released by the World Trade Organisation. 2. The overall score of India has been greater than many developed countries. 3. It is a bi-annual survey that deals with trade facilitation measures taken collectively by the WTO member countries. How many of the statement given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF): 1. It will be established as an Alternative Investment Fund. 2. Contribution to the fund shall be mandatory for specified debt-oriented Mutual Fund Schemes and Asset Management Companies. 3. Initially, it will be established for 5 years and can be extended as per SEBI’s mandate. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) in India: 1. It has fluctuated drastically in the past decade. 2. In 2022-23, the net FPI in India was less than 1% of the GDP. 3. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 is the primary legislation governing FPI in India. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements in reference to the fertilizers sector in India: 1. Sulphur-coated Urea, also commonly called Neem-coated Urea, will help in addressing the sulphur deficiency of the soil. 2. Fertilizer Flying Squads (FFS) was constituted to provide crop-wise recommendations of fertilizers for individual farms. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. International Financial Corporation is an organ of World Bank to finance private sector in developing countries. 2. ICIMOD – International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development is an inter-government knowledge and learning centre situated in Switzerland. 3. All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey is conducted by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) every five years. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Match the following List-I with List-II: LIST-I 1. Absolute Advantage 2. Theory of Big Push 3. Theory of Low-Level Equilibrium Trap 4. Balanced Growth Theory LIST-II a. Paul Rosenstein Rodan b. Adam Smith c. Richard R. Nelson d. Ragner Nurkse Choose the correct option:
Consider the following statements: 1. Gini Index is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or of wealth. 2. Higher the Gini Index, the greater the degree of income equality. 3. The value of Gini Index has increased amongst regular workers while it decreased among casual workers in India as per India Wage Report. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which of the following features are associated with Regur (black) soils in India? 1. It develops on crystalline igneous rocks as a result of intense leaching. 2. It is rich in iron, potash and phosphoric contents. 3. It is typically found in north-west region of Deccan Plateau and is made up of lava flows. 4. It is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the following characteristics is associated with red and yellow soils in India? 1. It develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of heavy rainfall. 2. It develops a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. 3. It develops yellow colour in hydrated forms. 4. It develops red and yellow colour due to iron and sulphur in dry conditions. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statement: There is renewed thrust on production of Millet Crops. Which of the following statement(s) is/are attributable to Ragi Crop? 1. Ragi is a rain-fed crop and mostly grows well in black soil. 2. Ragi grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. 3. It is a crop of dry regions and is rich in iron, calcium and roughage. 4. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh are major ragi-producing states. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Match List I with List II: List I a. Endangered Species b. Vulnerable Species c. Rare Species d. Extinct Species List II i. Desert sheep and hornbill ii. Blue Sheep iii. Lion-Tailed Macaque iv. Pink-headed Duck Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II: List I a. Iron ore Mines b. Copper Mines c. Bauxite Mines d. Mica Mines List II i. Balaghat ii. Amarkantak Plateau iii. Gua and Noamundi iv. Nellore Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following statements: 1. Copper, Lead, Tin and Bauxite are non-ferrous minerals. 2. Manganese, Iron, Cobalt and Mica are ferrous minerals. 3. Potash, Marble and Granite are non-metallic minerals. 4. Nickel, Cobalt and Platinum are precious metals. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Kandla port, also known as Sardar Patel Port, is a tidal port. 2. Marmagao port is for the premier Iron-ore export. 3. Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country. 4. Paradip port specializes in the export of Mica in the country. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements relating to our Solar System: 1. Saptarishi forms part of constellation Big Bear. 2. Saptarishi forms part of the constellation Ursa Major. 3. Asteroids Belt lies between orbits of Mars and Earth. 4. The largest asteroid is Ceres. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Match List I with List II: List I a. Shipki La b. Lipu Lekh c. Jelep La d. Burzil List II i. Kashmir ii. Himachal Pradesh iii. Uttarakhand iv. Sikkim Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II: List I a. Copper and Nickel b. Chromite and Platinum c. Phosphate d. Limestone List II i. South-Africa ii. Ontario iii. Caucasus iv. Algeria Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: List I a. Veld b. Pampas c. Campos d. Prairie List II i. Brazil ii. South-Africa iii. North-America iv. South-America
Consider the following statements: Statement-I : The Jet Streams are the strong cores of upper-level westerly winds which follow a meandering path. Statement-II : The term ‘jet stream’ was first applied to high-velocity upper-level winds during World War-II. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: List I a. Mountain Breeze b. Chinook c. Simum d. Sirocco List II i. Sahara Desert ii. Katabatic iii. Snow Eater iv. Asiatic and African Desert
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: List I a. Angel Falls b. Yosemite Falls c. Niagara Falls d. Victoria Falls List II i. Venezuela ii. California iii. South Africa iv. USA and Canada
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: List I a. Bird Foot Delta b. Estuarine Delta c. Triple Delta d. Arcuate Delta List II i. Mackenzie ii. Mississippi iii. Mahanadi Delta iv. Nile Delta
Consider the following statements: Statement I : The ancient Buddha (Bauddh) Stupa is situated on the west side of Brahmasarovar. Statement II : The mound is spread over an area of approximately three acres. The height of the mound is about 4 m above the surrounding ground level. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following pairs: 1. Aram-i-Kausar : Narnaul 2. Tomb of Sheikh Tayyab : Kaithal 3. Bhai ki Baoli : Meham (Rohtak) How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following statements about Bhumia or Khera: I. It is the god of the homestead or the village. II. Bhumia is worshipped at the time of marriage. III. First milk of cow or buffalo is always offered to Bhumia. How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Match List I and List II: List I a. Ghethi b. Laggat c. Basan d. Nohra List II i. Milking animal ii. Outer house iii. Neck iv. Pitcher Select the correct option from the following:
Consider the following statements: 1. The finest and the best preserved Baoli in Haryana is in Meham. 2. The coin moulds of the later Youdheyas of the third-fourth centuries A.D. have been found in large numbers from Rohtak. 3. An image of Kartikeya sitting in lalitasana on a peacock has been discovered from Khokrakot. How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Arrange the following intangible cultural heritages in order of their year of induction into the UNESCO heritage list (Oldest to Newest): 1. Kalbelia 2. Buddhist Chanting 3. Ramlila 4. Kumbh Mela 5. Nowrouz Choose the correct option from the following:
Consider the following statements: Statement I : A raga is associated with a specific mood, time of the day and season. For every raga there are six female consorts called raginis. Statement II : Ragamala paintings are pictorial interpretations of ragas and raginis. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Aditya-L1, a space observatory with 9 payloads designed to study the Sun. 2. The VELC will image the Sun’s atmosphere, the corona, at high resolution and time cadence. 3. Aditya-L1 carries an ultraviolet imager, three X-ray spectrometers and four in-situ instruments to measure plasma parameters. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following pairs: 1. CREST : Hosakote 2. Solar Observatory : Kodaikanal 3. Radio Observatory : Gauribidanur How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Intelligent Waterbody Management Project : Tamara 2. AMRUT 2.0 : Preserving surface and ground water bodies 3. PLASHBOT : Diffuser Aerators for bottom of water bodies How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Advika : Chickpea 2. Panchamrit : India’s Climate Action Plan 3. Mission LiFE : Life Style in harmony with ecological well-being How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. BHARAT : Agri Infra Fund 2. Longpi pottery : Chhattisgarh 3. Sulur Bamboo Wind Flute : Manipur How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following statements relating to the free coaching scheme under the umbrella scheme ‘SHREYAS’: 1. It provides coaching of good quality for economically disadvantaged SCs, OBCs and Minorities. 2. The ceiling of total family income under the scheme is Rs 8 Lakhs per annum. 3. The ratio of SC and OBC students is 70 : 30 and 30 percent seats are reserved for females in each category. 4. The ratio of SCs, OBCs and minority students has been fixed at 50 : 30 : 20. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements relating to Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna (PMJDY). It is intended to – 1. Provide access to financial and social services at an affordable cost. 2. Use of technology to lower cost and wider reach. 3. Opening of basic saving bank deposit account in camp mode with minimum balance of Rs 500 and zero charges. 4. Issuance of Indigenous Debit Card. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Samudra Gupta's ‘Vyagrasahili’ postures reveal his conquest of the West. 2. The coins of the Ashoka era give us information about his ‘governance system’. 3. On one of the seals of Satavahana King Shatakarni, a picture of a ‘ship’ is engraved, which is a symbol of his victory over the sea. 4. Information about Ashvamedha Yagya is found in the coins of Kumaragupta's ‘Ashvamedha style’. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Match List I with List II: List I a. Abul Hasan al Hujwiri b. Kuli Khan c. Jahanara d. Ameer Hassan Sijji Dehlavi List II i. Munis Al Akhaah ii. Fawaid Al Fuad iii. Kashf ul Mahjub iv. Murakka-E-Delhi Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II: List I a. Dimun b. Makan c. Meluha d. Ur List II i. Sindh Area ii. Mesopotamian Port iii. Bahrain Island iv. Makran Coast (Balochistan) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II: List I a. Nishad b. Charmakar c. Mchhuaaro d. Pukkus or Paulkus List II i. Karawar ii. Mehtar iii. Kaiwart iv. Aakhetak Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II: List I a. Jogalthambi b. Devbarnak c. Devarashtra d. Pattadakal List II i. Nashik (Maharashtra) ii. Bijapur (Karnataka) iii. Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh) iv. Shahabad (Bihar) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The Virupaksha temple was built in the sixteenth century. Statement II : The pavilion in front of the Virupaksha temple was built during the time of Krishnadev Rai. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Bhakti saint Shankardev addressed 'Vaishnav Dharma' as 'Bhagwati Dharma'. Statement II : Shankardev's main composition is Kirtanaghosh. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following statements: 1. The Puranas call the Satavahanas ‘Andhrabhritya’ and ‘Andhrajatya’. 2. The history of Satavahanas is especially found in the Vishnu and Bhagwat Puranas. 3. Names of more than a hundred kings of Satavahanas are found in the Puranas. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Kabir Granthawali is related to Dadupanthis of Rajasthan. 2. Meera's teacher Raidas was a weaver. 3. Malik Mohammad Jayasi promoted the establishment of prayer halls like Namghar. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. The selection of the Vijayanagara site was inspired by the existence of the Virupaksha temple. 2. Vijayanagara was established near the Pampadevi temple. 3. ‘Shri Pampay Namah’ inscription has been found on the Vijayanagara coins. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Pratihar King Bhoj : Gwalior Inscription 2. Satavahana King Pulumavi : Nasik Inscription 3. Hun King Toraman : Eran Varaha Inscription How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Mulfuzat : Conversations of Sufi Saints 2. Maktubat : Recollection of biographies of Sufi saints 3. Tazkiras : Compilation of written letters How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Dar-ul-Adal : Place of Justice 2. Balahar : Low class agricultural labourer 3. Malik-ut-Tijar : Chief of traders How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Leader of the revolution in 1857 in Ahirwal (Haryana) : Rao Tularam 2. Leader of the revolution in 1857 in Faridabad (Haryana) : Dhanu Singh 3. Leader of the revolution in Hansi (Haryana) in 1857 : Imam Ali Qalandar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following statements: 1. In 1676, Shivaji crowned himself formally at Rajgarh. 2. The Karnataka expedition was the last major expedition of Shivaji. 3. In 1678, Shivaji campaigned against Karnataka and forced Qutb Shah to pay a subsidy of one lakh huns. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Nuh Sipihir : Amir Khusrau 2. Riyazul Insha : Mahmud Gawan 3. Burhan-i-Ma’asir : Rafiuddin Shirazi How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Basawan : Akbar 2. Mir Saiyid Ali : Humayun 3. Daswant : Jahangir How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Rani Durgawati : Gondwana 2. Chand Bibi : Ahmadnagar 3. Zuhra : Muhammad Shah How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Amir-i-Dad : Law officer who carried out the decisions of the judges 2. Turkan-i-Chahalgani : A group of forty 3. Barid-i-mamalik : Head of the information and intelligence department How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Sur Das : Sur Sagar 2. Shankaradeva : Kirtan Ghosh 3. Sant Tukaram : Abhangas How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following statements: 1. Guru Gobind Singh, the 10th guru of the Sikhs composed his verses mainly in Hindi (Braj Bhasha). 2. The play Niladarpan was written by Dinabandhu Mitra. 3. Anand Math contained the famous nationalist song ‘Vande Mataram’. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. James Mill was highly critical of Indian religion and culture. 2. William Bentinck announced in 1835 that Persian was abolished as the court language and was substituted by English. 3. Wood’s Despatch led to the establishment of university at Calcutta, Bombay and Delhi. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. The Indian National Army had fighting brigades in the name of Gandhi, Azad, and Subhash. 2. The slogans of the Indian National Army were ‘Jai Hind’ and ‘Delhi Chalo.’ 3. Rash Behari Bose was not associated with the Indian National Army. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. The election to the office of the President of India is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single non-transferable vote. 2. The value of the vote of each Member of Parliament from Uttar Pradesh is greater than the value of the vote of the MP from Goa. 3. Electors cannot use the provision of NOTA in the election of President. 4. The provisions of Anti-defection law are not applicable in Presidential election. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. The writ, Mandamus can be issued against both Public Authorities and Private Individuals. 2. Mandamus can be issued to enforce a contractual obligation. 3. Mandamus cannot be issued against the Governor of a State. 4. Mandamus can be issued against a state to refund the tax collected unlawfully. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. In order to form a new state in the Indian Union, the Parliament can amend the provisions of the Constitution with a Simple Majority. 2. To amend the provisions of Directive Principles of State Policy, the Parliament requires a Special Majority. 3. To amend Article 368 of the Constitution, the Parliament requires Special Majority along with the consent of half of the state legislatures. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Establishment of standards of weight and measures : Union List 2. Adoption and succession : State List 3. Betting and gambling : Concurrent List How many of the above pairs are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Residuary subjects are the subjects that are not included in the three lists of the 7th Schedule of the Constitution. 2. According to Article 248, both the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures can make laws on these subjects. 3. Space technology is an example of a residuary subject. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Match List-I with List-II in reference to the Constitution of India: List-I (a) Article 263 (b) Article 226 (c) Article 239 (d) Article 280 List-II (i) Finance Commission (ii) High Court (iii) Inter-State Council (iv) Union Territory Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (a) Second Schedule of Indian Constitution (b) Fifth Schedule of Indian Constitution (c) Ninth Schedule of Indian Constitution (d) Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution List-II (i) Administration of Scheduled Areas (ii) Comptroller & Auditor General (iii) Anti-defection laws (iv) Land Reform Laws Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (a) Operation Ganga (b) Operation Cactus (c) Operation Maitri (d) Operation Kaveri List-II (i) Ukraine Evacuation Mission (ii) Relief and rescue in Nepal (iii) Neutralizing attempted coup in Maldives (iv) Sudan Evacuation Mission Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Consider the following statements: 1. Public Interest Litigation is a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of public interest. 2. PIL has reinforced the principle of locus standi. 3. Both citizens and organizations can file a PIL. 4. The Supreme Court under Article 32 and the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India can entertain PILs. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Privy purse referred to a specific sum of money that was payable annually to rulers of former princely states that signed the Instrument of Accession. 2. The payment of privy purse was a constitutional obligation before 42nd Amendment. 3. The abolition of Privy Purse was justified on the ground that it stood against the principle of egalitarianism enshrined in the Constitution. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Parliament can legislate on matters enumerated in the State List if two or more state legislatures pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact such laws. 2. A law so enacted will be equally applicable to all the states, irrespective of whether they passed such a resolution or not. 3. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: List-I (a) 26th Constitutional Amendment (b) 52nd Constitutional Amendment (c) 86th Constitutional Amendment (d) 103rd Constitutional Amendment List-II (i) Reservation for EWS (ii) Education as fundamental right (iii) Abolition of Privy Purse (iv) Anti-defection law
Consider the following pairs: 1. Consolidated Fund of India : Payment from the fund can be made without Parliamentary appropriation. 2. Contingency Fund of India : Held by Finance Secretary on behalf of the President of India. 3. Public Account of India : Executive requires Parliamentary approval to withdraw money from this account. How many of the above pairs are correct?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid : Article 36 of Constitution 2. Promotion of Cooperative Societies : Article 43B of Constitution 3. Participation of Workers in Management of Industries : Article 43A of Constitution How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Right to adequate means of livelihood : Article 39(a) of Constitution 2. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women : Article 39(e) of Constitution 3. Right to work, education and public assistance : Article 41 of Constitution How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Educational and economic interests of weaker sections : Article 45 of Constitution 2. Educational and economic interest of SCs & STs : Article 46 of the Constitution 3. Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry : Article 47 of the Constitution How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. The Vice-President of India : Article 62 of Constitution 2. Election of Vice-President : Article 65 of Constitution 3. Term of office of President : Article 59 of Constitution How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Enlargement of Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court : Article 138A of the Constitution of India 2. Conferment on the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs : Article 139A of the Constitution of India 3. Civil and judicial authority to act in aid of the Supreme Court : Article 144A of the Constitution of India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Dengue : Caused by mosquito and spreads through blood 2. Typhoid : Caused by bacteria and spreads through water 3. Ringworm : Caused by fungus and spreads through worms How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following statements regarding diabetes: 1. It is caused by the oversecretion of insulin by pancreas. 2. The glucose level increases in the blood. 3. The patient urinates frequently, loses weight and becomes lethargic. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements : Statement I : The blood arteries have thick and rigid walls. Statement II : Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from heart to various body organs under high pressure. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Hydrogen is considered as a clean automobile fuel for future. Statement II : Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following pairs: 1. Ginning : Separation of cotton fibres from seeds 2. Weaving : Making yarn from fibres 3. Polyester : Melts on catching fire and sticks to the body How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following statements: Statement I: The effect of ant bite can be neutralised by rubbing calamine solution. Statement II: Calamine solution contains zinc carbonate which is basic in nature. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following pairs: 1. Plane mirror : Image of the same size as the object 2. Concave mirror : Rear view mirror in a vehicle 3. Convex mirror : Dentist How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Quick lime : Manufacture of Cement 2. Slaked lime : Preparation of Soap 3. Plaster of Paris : Making Toys How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Take few drops of onion juice, dilute vanilla essence and clove oil in three different test tubes and consider the following statements: 1. The characteristic smell of onion vanishes upon addition of NaOH, however it persists with HCl. 2. The characteristic smell of vanilla is lost upon addition of HCl, however it persists with NaOH. 3. The characteristic smell of clove oil is lost upon addition of NaOH in it. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. When pH of rain water lies in the range of 6 to 7, it is called acid rain. 2. Tooth enamel starts to corrode when pH of mouth is greater than 7. 3. Under acidic conditions farmers would treat the soil with quick lime. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Alkali is a base that dissolve in water. 2. Ca(OH)2 is not an example of alkali. 3. Dissolution of a base in water is an exothermic process. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following pairs: 1. Acid left by bee sting of honey bee : HCl 2. Atmosphere of Venus : H2SO4 3. Antacid : Methanoic Acid How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Consider the following statements: Touching a flame is an urgent and dangerous situation and we drag our hands involuntarily. This fast reaction is attributable to which of the following structures of the nervous system? 1. Spinal Cord 2. Motor Neuron 3. Brain 4. Sensory neuron How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: Which of the following functions is/are influenced by adrenalin? 1. Increase the heart beat 2. More Oxygen supply to muscles 3. Increased supply of blood to the digestive system 4. Breathing rate declines How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: Anaerobic breakdown of glucose in cells results in formation of which of the following compounds? 1. Ethanol 2. Lactic Acid 3. Carbon dioxide 4. ATP How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: During Urine formation which of the following substances are selectively reabsorbed from the initial filtrate? 1. Glucose 2. Amino Acid 3. Salts 4. Water How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: Which of the following plant hormones helps in promoting growth in plants? 1. Auxins 2. Gibberellins 3. Cytokinins 4. Abscisic Acid How many of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: Statement-1: The length of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the food they eat. Statement-2: Herbivores needs a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be digested. How many of the statements given above are correct?