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198 MCQs · CSAT + GS-II
Which of the following is NOT a feature of communication?
Fill in the blanks with the correct preposition from the choices given. (i) Harsha was standing _____ Swapna. (ii) Madhu plays Tennis _____ Chess. (iii) Share the cake _____ the two of you. (iv) He divided the property _____ his four sons.
Which of the following refers to the study of eye contact?
Match the following parts of speech: List I List II (a) Absence (i) Verb (b) Busy (ii) Adverb (c) Develop (iii) Adjective (d) Greatly (iv) Noun Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Fill in the blanks with the correct verb that agrees with the subject in the following sentences: (i) Each student ______ informed about the cultural programme. (ii) Neither Ravi nor I ______ any interest in this project.
A generally accepted opinion or decision among a group of people is:
All the skills mentioned below are referred to as Interpersonal skills EXCEPT ______.
A car has a four-digit number such that none of its digits is 0. If you remove the second or the fourth digit, the resultant three-digit number is a perfect square. If you remove the first digit, the resultant three-digit number is a palindrome. No digit in the number is repeated more than twice. What is the remainder left when the square of the car number is divided by 5?
Below are given a set of analogies. Which of these analogies are NOT appropriate? (a) Ocean : Pacific :: River : Nile (b) Zoology : Animals :: Cardiology : Brain (c) France : Europe :: China : Australia
Below are given a set of analogies. Which of these analogies are appropriate? (a) Prime : 1 :: Composite : 8 (b) Pedology : Soil :: Demography : Population (c) Sky : Cloud :: Canal : Mountain
What would be the next two terms in the given alphabetic series: bcCCC, ccEEE, eeHHH, hhLLL, …….., ……..?
What would be the 9th term in the given alphabetic series: zYw, xWu, vUs, tSq, ………..?
Below is given a venn diagram. Irrespective of what normal belief is, the depictions in the venn diagrams are to be considered correct. Based on this diagram, select which of the given statements have a possibility of being true. Statement A : Some stickers are sheets Statement B : Some stickers are mats Statement C : No sheets are mats Statement D : Some carpets are stickers
Below is given a venn diagram. Irrespective of what normal belief is, the depictions in the venn diagrams are to be considered correct. Based on this diagram, select which of the given statements have a possibility of being true. Statement A : Some oceans are canals Statement B : No rivers are lakes Statement C : Some oceans are there which are river, pond and canal at the same time Statement D : All lakes are ponds
In a coding scheme, each letter in a word is written as a letter after shifting N positions ahead in the English alphabet, where N is the number of vowels present in the word. For example, BAT has only one vowel, so it will be coded as CBU. A five-letter word LOUIE is taken. It is coded according to this scheme. The resultant is again coded as per this scheme, and so on, the process is repeated ten times. What will be the final coded word obtained?
In a coding scheme, a word is coded as the product of positions of its letters in the English alphabet. However, for the purpose of calculating the product, only unique letters are considered. For example, in the word FELL, L would be considered only once, and the code would be 360. Which of these words would have the largest code?
In a family of six persons, two are males and the remaining are females. The members are P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are two pairs of father and daughter in the family. S is the wife of Q. R and Q are siblings. P is the wife of T. U is NOT the daughter of S. Below are given a few statements. Based on the given information, select which of the statements is/are definitely true: A : The two male members of the family are Q and T. B : S is the mother of P. C : T is also a sibling of Q. D : T is the uncle of Q.
Mala is sister of Harish. Harish has two daughters: Reema and Seema. Reema is married to Satish. Rekha is the mother of Satish. Below are given a few statements. Based on the given information, select which of the statements is/are definitely true: A : Reema is the niece of Rekha. B : Rekha is the mother-in-law of Seema. C : Mala is sister of Rekha.
Four security guards A, B, C and D are on duty at the four corners of a building compound as shown in the figure given. After some time A and C swap their places. Then B and D move diagonally to the opposite corners. Then B and D each move one side clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively. D and A then move two sides each anti-clockwise and clockwise respectively. What is the current position of C?
Which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure?
Which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure?
Given below are some statements and conclusions: Statements : (A) Some cakes are bikes. (B) Some bikes are hills. (C) All laptops are bikes. Conclusions : (I) All laptops are hills. (II) Some laptops are cakes. (III) Some cakes are hills. (IV) Some laptops are not cakes. In the light of the above, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Given below is a statement followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming the statement to be true, decide which of the conclusion logically follow(s)? Statement : The rise in inflation is likely to increase interest rates. Conclusions : (I) There will be decline in the number of borrowers. (II) There will be more deposits in bank. (III) The rate of unemployment will fall.
“Ellipses are two dimensional figure. It has two focii and a major axis and a minor axis. A circle is always an ellipse with equal major and minor axes.” In the text given above, M is the number of times a letter has occurred consecutively (like p in dipper), and N is number of words with four or more letters that have been repeated in the text. What is the product of M and N?
A total of 83 persons are standing in a queue. Between Mahesh and Suresh, there are 34 persons standing. Which of these could be position of Mahesh so that it is possible to uniquely determine position of Suresh? A : 12th from the front B : 41st from behind C : 59th from behind
A cube of side length 6 cm is painted red on all its sides. This cube is cut into smaller cubes of side length 2 cm. On each of the smaller cubes, the unpainted sides are painted green. Each of the smaller cubes is now further cut into cubes of side length 1 cm. How many small cubes of side length 1 cm will have exactly 3 of its faces coloured green?
Below is given a pair of questions, which are required to be answered, and a triad of statements. Which group of statements is sufficient to answer both the questions? Question 1 : Who is sitting opposite to Q? Question 2 : Who is sitting to the right of Q? Statement 1 : P and U are sitting on left and right sides of T, respectively Statement 2 : P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a round table with six chairs Statement 3 : Q is NOT sitting on the immediate left side of R
A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds Rs. 3 with him and hands it over to A. In this context which one of the following statements is correct ?
Three statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the following conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements : (A) All squares are boxes. (B) Some boxes are coloured. (C) Red is a colour. Conclusions : (I) Some boxes are red. (II) Some squares are red. (III) Some squares are coloured. (IV) Some boxes are squares.
Mritunjay is planning to buy a test series for the CAT exam. Following are the criteria of selection for any online portal fixed by him: (a) Must contain 25 full-length mock tests. (b) Must contain last 8 years previous year papers. (c) Must have more than 10,000 practice questions on the portal. (d) If any portal satisfies all the above criteria except (a) but has more than 20 mock tests and more than 5 previous year papers then he will keep that shortlisted. (e) If any portal satisfies all the above criteria except (c) but has more than 8000 practice questions and recorded class videos, then he will ask his mentor. "Let’s crack CAT" is providing an online test series for CAT. It is providing 18 mock tests and 5 previous year papers. It is also providing 12,000 practice questions. Which of the following is correct for the selection of the online portal given above?
Rony is a model and looking for a personal gym trainer. Following are the selection criteria for a candidate to get selected for the role of a personal gym trainer for Rony: (a) Must have completed Bachelors. (b) Must have work experience of at least 3 years as a trainer. (c) If a candidate fulfils criterion (a) and NOT (b) but has done a diploma course in personal training then he will keep that person shortlisted. (d) If a candidate fulfils criterion (b) and NOT (a) but has done a degree course in nutrition and dietetics then he will ask his manager. Mikal has done a diploma course in personal training, has 2 years’ experience as a gym trainer and is a graduate from a premier institute. Which of the following options is correct for the selection of Mikal?
Vipul is shortlisting universities for his master’s program. He has decided the following criteria for selecting any university: (a) Must be situated in the USA or UK. (b) Must provide a master’s in management program. (c) Must have a tuition fee of less than USD 30,000. (d) If any university fulfils all the criteria except (a) but is situated in Australia then he will ask his brother for the selection of the university. (e) If any university fulfils all the criteria except (c) but provides at least 60% – 80% scholarship on tuition fee then he will ask his father for the university selection. The University of Edinburgh is situated in Ireland, UK and provides a master’s in management program to all national and international students. The tuition fee for the master’s program is USD 50,000 and it provides a 75% scholarship to deserving candidates. Which of the following is true for the selection of the university by Vipul?
A batsman played (n+2) innings and got out on all occasions. His average score in these (n+2) innings was 29 runs and he scored 38 and 15 runs in the last two innings. The batsman scored less than 38 runs in each of the first n innings. In these innings, his average score was 30 runs and his lowest score was x runs. The smallest possible value of x is ______.
Following is the selection criteria for a candidate to get selected for the role of Regional Sales Manager in any organization: (a) Must be a graduate with at least 70% marks. (b) Must have done MBA from any premier institute in India. (c) Must have worked for at least 2 years in the sales department. (d) If a candidate fulfils all the criteria except (a) but has done an additional certificate course in sales and marketing then his/her case will be sent to the HR Head. (e) If a candidate fulfils all the criteria except (b) but has experience of 4 years or more working in sales then his/her case will be sent to the HR VP. Sunit has applied for the post of Regional Sales Manager in the organization. He has completed his B.Sc. with 86% marks. He has a total of 3 years of working experience as a sales manager. He completed his MBA with 78% marks. Which of the following is correct?
Following is the selection criteria for any student to get admission in "Central University of India" for any undergraduate program: (a) Must have completed High school with at least 9.0 CGPA. (b) Must be at least 17 years 8 months old on 1st January 2021. (c) Must have scored more than 85% in the university entrance test. (d) If students fulfil all the criteria except (a) but have scored more than 7.5 CGPA in High school then their case will be sent to the Sr. Admission Officer. (e) If students fulfil all the criteria except (b) but have more than 90% on the university entrance test then their case will be sent to the Head of the department. Rishabh has passed High school with an 8.2 CGPA. He has scored 75% on the university entrance test and he was born on 27th April 2004. Which of the following is correct?
Mandar is going to buy a laptop. Following is the selection-criteria given by his father: (a) Price must be less than Rs. 40,000. (b) It must have RAM equal to or more than 10 GB. (c) It must have an Intel processor of version i3 or above. (d) If a laptop satisfies all the above criteria except (a), then Mandar will need his dad’s permission provided its price is less than Rs. 45,000. (e) If a laptop satisfies all the above criteria except (b), then Mandar will need his mom’s permission provided it has RAM of more than 8 GB. NEWCOM is a new laptop in the market. It costs Rs. 38,000, has 9 GB RAM, and an Intel i3 processor. Which of the following is correct for the laptop described above?
On the day the triplets were born to Moti, the female dog: (I) A weighs more than B. (II) B weighs less than C. (III) Of the three puppies, C weighs the most. If the two statements are true, the third statement is –
Four friends – Sachin, Rachit, Raj, and Pintu – live on separate floors of a 4-floor building, not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the first floor 2, and so on up to the topmost floor numbered 4. Sachin does not live on an even-numbered floor. Only three friends live below the floor on which Pintu lives. Rachit lives immediately above Sachin. On which floor does Raj live?
Calculate the missing term: 300, 296, 287, 271, ___ , 210
Five friends – Vaishali, Rashmi, Payal, Nidhi, and Niyati – study in three different classes VI, VII, and VIII, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them likes a different pen – P, Q, R, S, and T. Not more than two and not less than one study in any class. • Rashmi likes pen S and studies in the same class in which only Vaishali studies, i.e., class VI. • Niyati likes pen Q and does not study in class VIII. • Nidhi studies in class VIII and does not like pen P or T. • Payal does not like pen T and studies in class VIII. Which pen does Vaishali like?
Which of the following cannot be a number of the series? 64, 125, 216, 345, 512, ____
Six friends – Rohit, Rachit, Rinku, Raj, Rajat, and Rishu – are sitting in a row at different positions, not necessarily in the same order. • Rohit is sitting at the first position from the left. • Rajat is sitting at the third position from the right. • Only two friends are sitting between Raj and Rinku. • Raj is an immediate neighbour of Rohit. • Rishu is not an immediate neighbour of Rajat. Who is sitting at the second position from the left?
Six persons – Raj, Rohit, Rachit, Rajat, Rishu, and Rinku – work in an office. Each has a favourite car (P, Q, R, S, T, U) and a different salary – 1000, 2000, 2500, 3000, 3500, and 4000 (order not fixed). • Rajat gets a salary of 2500 and his favourite car is U. • The one who likes car Q gets a salary of 3000. • Rachit likes car P and gets a salary of 3500. • The person with a salary of 1000 does not like car R or S. • Rinku does not like car Q or S and gets a salary of 2000. • Rishu gets a salary of 4000 and does not like car R. • Rohit does not get a salary of 1000. Who gets a salary of 3000?
The only ____ with the proposal is that it is a little expensive.
Five friends – P, Q, R, S, and T – live on separate floors of a 5-floor building, not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the first floor 2, and so on up to the topmost floor numbered 5. • S lives immediately above P. • Only two friends live between S and T. • P lives on the lowermost floor. • Q does not live on an odd-numbered floor. Which floor does R live on?
Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting at different positions in a row of the company, and each of them gets a different salary viz. 500, 800, 1000, 1500, 1800 and 2000 (not necessarily in the same order). The friend who gets a salary of 2000 does not sit at the extreme end of the row. Q sits immediately before R and gets a salary of 800. T sits between U and S. Q is second to the left of S. P sits at the left end of the row and gets a salary of 1000. T gets a salary of 1500. R gets a salary neither of 2000 nor of 1800. How much salary does U get?
Five persons P, Q, R, S and T live on separate floors of a 5-floor building, but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the first floor is numbered 2 and so on up to the topmost floor numbered 5. Each of them also has a favourite subject from Hindi, Science, Math, Art and English, again not necessarily in the same order. The one who lives on the second floor likes Math. R likes Science and lives on the third floor. The person on the lowermost floor likes English. P lives on the fifth floor. S lives on the floor immediately above T. The one who likes Art does not live on an odd-numbered floor. Who lives on the second floor?
Statement: To save the environment, a complete ban on illegal mining should be imposed on the whole country. Assumptions: (I) Mining done legally does not cause any harm to the environment. (II) Mining is one of the factors responsible for environmental damage. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit?
Statement: The largest computer manufacturer has reduced the prices of most of the models of the desktop by about 15 percent with immediate effect. Assumptions: (I) The company may incur huge losses due to the reduction in desktop prices. (II) The sales of desktops manufactured by the company may increase significantly in the near future. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit?
Statement: Before giving full work to the employees, give them work-related training. Assumptions: (I) Training helps the employees to increase their performance. (II) Employees do not have any skills prior to training. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit?
Statement: It is necessary to grow different types of crops in each alternate season to replenish the nutrients in the soil. Assumptions: (I) No crop can be grown for the second time in the same field. (II) If a different crop is grown in the next season, the soil does not require additional nutrients like fertilizers. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit?
Statement: If farmers want better yield then they should use organic manure instead of chemical manure. Assumptions: (I) Chemical fertilizers have some bad effects on health. (II) Chemical fertilizers do not produce as much yield as organic fertilizers. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit?
Rajat starts walking West from his college, then Rajat took one left turn, one right turn and then another left turn to reach his home. In which direction is Rajat's home from his college?
Saurabh walked 10 m West, took a left turn and walked 20 m. He then took a right turn and walked 10 m. Then he took a left turn and walked 20 m. Then he took a right turn and walked 10 m. Finally he took a right turn and walked 40 m. How far was he from the starting point?
Rajat walked 20 m towards East, took a left turn and walked 20 m. Then he took a right turn and walked 20 m. Then he took a left turn and walked 20 m. He again took a left turn and walked 40 m. Finally, he turned to his left and walked 20 m. In which direction is Rajat facing finally?
Gaurav walked 60 km West and then took a left turn and walked 60 km. He took a left turn and walked 20 km. He took a left turn and walked 20 km. He took a right turn and walked 20 km. He again took a left turn and walked 20 km and stopped. How far is Gaurav from his initial position?
A worker starts walking from his office. He first walks 40 metres South, and then 30 metres West. How far is he from the starting point?
The following question contains four problem figures and four answer figures. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures. (Refer to the figures provided in the paper.)
The following question contains four problem figures and four answer figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.
The following question contains four problem figures and four answer figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.
The following question contains four problem figures and four answer figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.
The following question contains four problem figures and four answer figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.
The line graph shows the road accidents that happened in three different cities in India. The Y axis represents the number of accidents. In which year is the difference between the accidents in City A and City C minimum?
There are 8 patients in a hospital. The average weight of the 7 lightest patients is 45 kg and the average weight of the 7 heaviest patients is 52 kg. The difference between the weight of the heaviest and the lightest patient is
A total of 25 students appear for an examination. Rahul and Mohan are among these 25 students. Rahul scores 98. The average score of the 24 students other than Mohan is 48. The average score of all the 25 students is 2 more than the average score of 24 students other than Rahul. How much has Mohan scored?
The parents have n number of children. The average age of father, mother and n children is 20 years. The father is 48 years old, and the average age of mother and n children is 16 years. The number n (numerical value) is
A is twice as old as B and C is thrice as old as A. If A's age is 2 years less than the average age of all three A, B and C, then C's present age, in years, is
Twelve years ago, the age of the father was three times the age of his daughter. After twelve years, father's age will be twice that of his daughter. The ratio of their present ages is
A mother has decided to sum and product the ages of her children Ishan and Anushka. The sum and product of their ages are 18 and 56, respectively. The solution of which quadratic equation gives the possible ages of Ishan and Anushka?
The product of Vidhi's age (in years) three years ago and her age five years later from now is 1 more than twice her present age. Vidhi's present age (in years) is
X is a% more than Y and Y is b% less than Z. If X > 0, Y > 0, Z > 0, and X > Z, the relation between a and b is
Mr. Harshal spends 40% of his savings on the medical expenses for his wife Mrs. Bhasha. He also spends 20% each of the remaining amount on his three daughters on their education. From the remaining amount, half of it was spent for a family trip and the amount remaining in his saving account is Rs 12,000. How much money did Mr. Harshal have initially?
The ratio between the prices of two bicycles is 15 : 26. If the price of first is increased by 10% and that of second by Rs 550, the ratio between the prices is 13 : 22. What were the initial prices of the two bicycles?
Rs 1,200 is divided among X, Y and Z such that Rs 30 more than 3/5th of X's share, Rs 10 more than 2/5th of Y's share and Rs 20 more than 5/7th of Z's share, all are equal. What is Z's share?
Ram and Sham together have Rs 285. If 2/3rd of money with Ram is equal to 3/5th of money with Sham, then what is the money with Ram?
Two buses are at two different places 76 km apart. They start moving towards each other. If their speeds are 20 km/h and 18 km/h respectively, after how much time will they meet each other?
Two trains are moving in opposite direction. The first train is 150 m long and its speed is 40 km/hr and the length of the second train is 170 m. If they cross one another in 4 seconds, what is the speed of the second train?
A man covers a distance of 1400 km in 80 days resting 10 hours a day. If he rests 16 hours a day and walks at 2.5 times the previous speed, then in how many days will he cover 1000 km?
A fraction becomes 3/5 if 3 is added to both numerator and denominator, and it becomes 1/2 if 5 is subtracted from both numerator and denominator. What is the fraction?
There are three fractions. When the largest fraction is divided by the smallest fraction, the result is 3/5 greater than the middle fraction by 1/3. If the sum of the three fractions is 3 2/5, what will be the difference between the largest and the middle fraction?
The product of two fractions is 5/4 and their quotient is 4/20. If the denominator of one fraction is 2/5 times that of the other fraction, then what is the sum of the two fractions?
The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 5 less than thrice the denominator. If the numerator and denominator are decreased by 2, then the numerator becomes half the denominator. Determine the fraction.
Which statement describes the word ‘Dual’?
Find the closest synonym of the underlined word from the given sentence: Scientific studies can remind us of our kinship with animals.
Identify the verb from the given options based on the sentence: But language transforms these natural activities and gives us the power to alter our environment in ways that go far beyond that of other animals.
Which of the following options best describes the given statement? We farm at an industrial scale and eat other animals not just because we are hungry, but because to do so culturally signifies wealth or status.
Which of the following words from the passage convey the meaning ‘the action of killing a king’?
Match the characters in Column 1 with their description in Column 2: Column 1: (a) Hamlet (b) Othello (c) Macbeth (d) King Lear Column 2: (i) Sinner (ii) Coldblooded (iii) Foolish (iv) Executioner
Which of the following inferences can be made from the lines ‘What is singular about Macbeth, compared to the other three great Shakespearean tragedies, is its villain-hero.’?
Which of the following statements do NOT find a support in the given passage?
From the passage identify the TRUE and FALSE statements? (a) Using square nets by fishermen can curtail overfishing. (b) The practice of adopting square nets is financially sustainable. (c) Fishermen were always enthusiastic about using square nets. (d) Young fish cannot survive when farmers use square nets extensively. (e) In the near future, many states are likely to insist that fishermen use square nets.
Which of the following can be inferred from the statement “Since 2015, every trawler in the district now uses square mesh nets”?
Which of the following inferences can be drawn based on the lines “The new technology has increased income by INR 10,000 (US$152) each month because diesel consumption has declined. On an average catch of 18 kgs, it is estimated that the square mesh allows over 3 kgs of juvenile fish and other aquatic mammals to escape, important for the survival of the seas”?
Which of the following sentences from the passage holds the word which conveys the meaning “Have doubts about the truth of something”?
From the lines “These gains remain largely notional because most people cannot move” it can be inferred that
The statement from the passage, ‘The gains for immigrants do not come at the expense of host countries.’ means
Which of the following words from the last sentence in the passage conveys the following meaning “Dislike of or prejudice against people from other countries”?
Which of the following can be inferred from the statement “Because good jobs are slow to come to the poor, the poor must move to find productive employment”?
Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below: Statement-I: Bentonite is an important raw material used for pelletising iron-ore and it is also utilised in the manufacture of fluxes. Statement-II: Calcium carbonate occurs in many geological formations and it is chiefly associated with the Shale System. Which of the following is/are correct?
With reference to the Eastern and Western Ghats, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The highest peak of the Eastern Ghats lies in Andhra Pradesh. 2. Compared to the Eastern Ghats, the Western Ghats are lower in elevation and are not continuous. 3. The height of most mountain valleys is more than 3 km in the Western Ghats. 4. The Eastern and Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Regarding the disaster that occurred in February 2021 in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A part of a glacier broke off, resulting in a flash flood. 2. There was a sudden surge in the flow of the Niti valley, Rishiganga and neighbouring rivers. 3. Both the Tapovan-Vishnugad hydel project and the Rishiganga hydel project suffered serious damage. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below: Statement-I: Till is an unconsolidated sediment deposited by a glacier which can be helpful in excavating or levelling slopes for cultivation. Statement-II: The thick blanket of clay, silt and other material that overlies moraines is also referred to as till. Which of the following is/are correct?
Which of the following statements about waves is/are correct? 1. Within air, waves propagate as longitudinal waves. 2. In liquids, the particles do not execute transverse oscillatory motion during wave movement. 3. Waves are never reflected when they strike an obstacle because of the dynamic nature of air. 4. On the upper surface of water, the alternate rises and falls produced by waves are called crests and troughs respectively. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Match the climate types given in Column I with the corresponding regions of India in Column II. Column I (Climate Type) 1. BWhw 2. Dfc 3. Amw 4. As Column II (Region) A. Arunachal Pradesh B. Western coast of India south of Goa C. Driest part of Rajasthan D. Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct about Bharatmala Pariyojna? 1. It envisages replacement of level crossings on national highways by road over bridges/road under bridges. 2. It aims to develop the road connectivity to border areas. 3. It aims at development of coastal roads including road connectivity for non-major ports. 4. It aims at the improvement in the efficiency of national corridors. Select the correct answer using the code below:
Match the name of the Dams in Column I with the river in Column II. Column I 1. Sardar Sarovar 2. Mettur 3. Hirakud 4. Gandhi Sagar Column II A. Mahanadi B. Chambal C. Kaveri D. Narmada
Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct about Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana? 1. It was launched to achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level. 2. Expand cultivable area under assured irrigation. 3. Improve farm water use efficiency. 4. Introduce sustainable water conservation practices. Select the correct answer using the code below:
Match the name of the state given in Column I with the phrase given in Column II. Column I 1. Assam 2. Meghalaya 3. Uttarakhand 4. Kerala Column II A. Abode of Clouds B. Land of Red River and Blue Hills C. God's Own Country D. Land of the Gods
Read the given statements and select the correct answer from the options given: Statement – I : The pattern of movement of planetary winds is called general circulation of the atmosphere. Statement – II : The general circulation of the atmosphere sets in motion the ocean water circulation which influences the earth's climate.
Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct about the movement of the Indian plate? 1. The Indian plate includes Peninsular India and the Australian continental portions. 2. The subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the southern plate boundary in the form of continent-continent convergence. 3. In the east, it extends through Rakhinyoma Mountains of Myanmar towards the island arc along the Java Trench. 4. The Western margin follows Kirthar Mountain of Pakistan. Select the correct answer using the code below:
Which of the following statement/statements are correct about Laterite soils? 1. These soils develop in the areas with high temperature and low rainfall. 2. These soils are rich in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium. 3. These soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. 4. These soils have mainly developed in the higher areas of the peninsular plateau. Select the correct answer using the code below:
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: List I A. Basel Convention, 1989/1992 B. Rotterdam Convention, 1998/2004 C. Minamata Convention, 2013/2017 D. Stockholm Convention, 2001/2004 List II I. Persistent Organic Pollutant II. Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Waste and their disposal III. Facilitate informed decision making by countries with regard to trade in Hazardous Chemicals IV. Mercury
According to Census of India, 2011, the languages of India are classified into five distinct families. Large numbers of speakers of these languages are found in certain States/UTs. Hence, match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: LIST I (Language family) A. The Indo-European B. The Dravidian C. The Austro-Asiatic D. The Tibeto-Burman LIST II (States / UTs) I. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka II. Assam, Manipur, Nagaland III. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar IV. Jharkhand, Odisha, Meghalaya
Match the crop with the State that is its leading producer and choose the correct answer from the options given below: Crops — A. Jowar B. Bajra C. Rice D. Gram Leading Producer — 1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Rajasthan 4. West Bengal
The correct order of Indian States in terms of population size (2011 Census) is (from highest to lowest population)
Match the National Park with the State in which it is located and choose the correct answer from the options given below: National Park — A. Balphakram B. Mahavir Harina Vanasthali C. Namdapha D. Nameri State — 1. Telangana 2. Assam 3. Meghalaya 4. Arunachal Pradesh
Which of the following rivers are correctly matched with their tributaries? A. Krishna : Tungabhadra, Rayavan, Malprabha B. Ganga : Gomti, Kosi, Gandak C. Yamuna : Ken, Betwa, Chambal D. Kaveri : Kabini, Bhima, Hemavati Choose the correct answer:
Arrange the following rivers in ascending order of their length (from shortest to longest). Which of the following is the correct sequence? (A) Narmada, Tapti, Godavari, Krishna (B) Godavari, Krishna, Narmada, Tapti (C) Narmada, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna (D) Godavari, Narmada, Krishna, Mahanadi
With reference to the Quit India Movement (1942), which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? a. Gaya prison – Guru Kripa broadcast b. K. T. Yaggal – running a parallel government c. Biru uprising – Mantu Ashok Choose the correct answer:
Match the architects of Shahjahan’s reign with their works: a. Ahmad Lahori b. Ustad Isa Shirazi c. Lahori’s son Choose the correct answer:
Match the following new capitals with the States in which they are situated:
“…… is India's first village level tourism and employment initiative in which women of the village provide jeep–safari, cultural performances, food, accommodation etc. to the tourists.” Which village is being talked about?
Which of the following statements about Raja Ravi Varma is/are correct? a. He was related to Travancore royal family. b. He was the first Indian to use oil colours. c. He was himself a great dramatist – Rakhtab, Vijayabharatham being his famous plays. Choose the correct answer:
Which of the following pairs of archaeological sites and their important remains (excavated/renovated in recent years) are correctly matched? a. Nachna–Kuthar, Madhya Pradesh – Parvati temple rebuilt b. Khajuraho – Vishwanath temple c. Pachmarhi – rock shelter group Choose the correct answer:
Match List – I and List – II List – I A. Arikamedu B. Tolkappiyam C. Vallals D. Ma and Veli List – II 1. Patrons 2. Measure of land 3. "Roman Factory" 4. Tamil grammar Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following varieties of mangoes found in India: i. Chausa – West Bengal ii. Totapuri – Madhya Pradesh iii. Kesar – Gujarat iv. Alphonso – Maharashtra Which of the above is correctly matched?
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Rajendra-I Chola introduced Maligai-Kol, a standardised measuring unit. Statement II : Rajendra-I Chola's son Arunmolivarman built the famous Brihadeshwara Temple. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct hierarchy from the highest to the lowest level in Mughal India: A. Faujdar – Subadar – Amin – Muqaddam B. Subadar – Amin – Muqaddam – Faujdar C. Amin – Muqaddam – Subadar – Faujdar D. Subadar – Faujdar – Amin – Muqaddam Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List – I with List – II List – I A. Tipu Shah B. Dudu Mian C. Chait Singh D. Titu Mir List – II I. Benaras Rebellion II. Faraizi Movement III. Tariqah-i-Muhammadiya IV. Pagal Panthi Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a. Manjusha Art is an art form of Angadesh, present-day Bhagalpur. b. The main colours used in this art form are Pink, Green and Yellow only. Which of the above statement/ statements are correct?
Match List – I with List – II List – I A. Kikalot B. Kohbar C. Thia-badia D. Morakuti List – II I. Madhubani II. Patacḥitra III. Sanjhi IV. Pichwai Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Leaders who served more than once as the President of Indian National Congress: A. Surendranath Banerjee B. W.C. Banerjee C. Dadabhai Naoroji D. Rahimtullah M. Sayani E. Sir William Wedderburn Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a. Maharaja Ranjit Singh came from Karorasinghia Mai Misl. b. Jean-Francois Allard and Jean Baptiste Ventura were the two Napoleonic generals in service of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Which of the above statement/ statements are correct?
Which among the following were women Adayar saints of the South-Indian Bhakti Movement? A. Karaikal Ammaiyar B. Godadevi C. Isaignaaniyar D. Akka Mahadevi E. Managayarkarasiayar Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Which statement(s) is/are correct about Cotton Plantation in India in the 19th century? A. American Civil War of 1861 impacted cotton production in India. B. Cotton production boomed in the Deccan countryside. C. By 1862, 90 % of cotton imported to Britain came from India. D. Expansion in cotton production made ryots richer than the sahukars. E. The Deccan Riot of 1875 was the reaction of sahukars against the rich ryots. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I (Inscriptions) with List II (Kings): List I A. Sanchi Copper-plate Inscription B. Aihole Inscription C. Allahabad Pillar Inscription D. Barah Copper-plate Inscription List II I. Pulakeshin II II. Mihir Bhoja III. Chandragupta II IV. Samudragupta Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I (Land / Taxation Units) with List II (Personalities): List I A. Dahsala System B. Bigha-i-Daftari C. Biswa D. Guzar List II I. Alauddin Khilji II. Raja Todar Mal III. Shahjahan IV. Sikandar Lodi Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II: List I A. Saata-Vi-Pahadi B. Sansoti C. Sai D. Bera Raktakala List II I. Uttar Pradesh II. Gujarat III. Odisha IV. Rajasthan Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match the weaving centres in List I with the type of fabric in List II: List I A. Vyanam B. Bhagal C. Dharwad D. Dhot List II I. Wool II. Cotton III. Muslin IV. Cotton & Silk blend Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following events in Indian history: 1. King Vishnu Bhoga raises the Anantashayana image. 2. Fall of Pallava power under Lokeshvara. 3. Foundation of the Pala dynasty by Gopala. 4. Rajendra I ends Chola supremacy. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the events given above?
With reference to the Indian National Movement, arrange the following events in correct chronological order (earliest to latest): 1. Tilak forms the Gaur Seva Samiti 2. Dandi March 3. Rowlatt Act 4. Jallianwala Bagh massacre
In the Later-Vedic period, the term ‘Kaur’ denoted:
In ancient India, to whom did the designation ‘Agniputra’ refer?
Consider the following statements about Beer: 1. Beer is a fermented beverage. 2. Beer can produce pseudomycelium. 3. Beer is produced by anaerobic action of yeast. 4. Beer contains significant carbonate residues. 5. Beer has neuro-toxic properties. 6. Beer contains phenolic compounds. Which of the above statements are correct?
Photosynthesis is a process that helps green plants synthesize their food. A cascade of events and chemical reactions take place in a specified sequential order. Choose an event that does NOT take place in photosynthesis:
A couple suspects a mix-up of their new-born baby in the hospital. Blood typing is sought to resolve the dispute. The man has blood group A and the woman has blood group B. Their biological child can have blood group: i. Either A or B ii. A or B or O or AB iii. A or B or AB iv. Only AB Choose the correct option:
Consider the following statements: i. Nitrification is a process in which nitrates are converted to nitrogen. ii. Denitrification is a process in which nitrogen is converted into nitrates. iii. Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) contain nitrogen. iv. During atmospheric lightening, nitrogen in the air gets converted into oxides of nitrogen. v. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are present in root legumes. Choose the correct statement(s):
Consider the following statements about Lichens: i. Lichens are algae ii. Lichens are autotrophs iii. Lichens are fungi iv. Lichens are symbiotic life-forms v. Lichens are saprotrophs Choose the correct statements:
Following are some processes involving changes of state: A. Evaporation of water B. Burning of candle C. Dissolution of sugar in water D. Electrolysis of water to form hydrogen and oxygen Select the correct option:
Which of the following statements are NOT correct? A. Plaster of Paris is obtained on heating gypsum. B. Sodium carbonate is an important constituent of baking powder. C. Bleaching powder can also act as an oxidising agent. D. Ten water molecules are present in one formula unit of the chemical species commonly called blue vitriol. E. Sodium hydroxide is produced by passing electricity through the aqueous solution of sodium chloride.
Select the correct statements regarding the cleansing action of soap. A. Hydrophilic end of soap molecules interact with the oily droplets. B. The formation of micelles in a soap solution during the cleaning of clothes is called emulsification. C. The hydrophobic end of the soap molecules is in the inner side during micelle formation. D. Micelles surround the Ca²⁺ or Mg²⁺ ions in hard water instead of oily droplets.
Which of the following is/are correct? 1. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon, i.e. only the particles present at the surface of a liquid change into the vapour state. 2. Boiling is a bulk phenomenon, i.e. particles from the whole liquid mass change into the vapour state. 3. Deposition is the direct change of a substance from the gaseous state to the solid state without passing through the liquid state. 4. The state of matter can be changed only by changing its temperature. Choose the correct answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option: List-I 1. Camphor from solid sodium chloride 2. Different pigments from an extract of flower petals 3. Acetone and water mixture 4. Butter from cream List-II I. Chromatography II. Distillation III. Centrifugation IV. Sublimation Options: (a) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (b) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (c) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III (d) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
Consider the legal issues involved in the following advisory opinions rendered by the Supreme Court of India under Article 143(1) of the Constitution. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option: List-I A. Delhi Laws Act, 1951 B. Keshav Singh, 1965 C. Special Reference No. 1 of 2001 D. Special Reference No. 1 of 2002 List-II I. Legislative Privileges II. Gujarat Gas III. Delegated Legislation IV. Gujarat Assembly Election Options: (a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (c) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Which of the following Union Territories are included in the electoral college for election to the office of the President of India by the Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992 for the purposes of Articles 54 and 55? A. NCT of Delhi B. Goa C. Puducherry D. Lakshadweep Choose the correct answer: (a) A and B only (b) B and C only (c) A and C only (d) C and D only
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Public Accounts Committee? A. It comprises of not more than 10 members from the Lok Sabha and not more than 7 members from the Rajya Sabha. B. As per convention, a member of the opposition acts as its Chairman. C. It examines the statement of accounts showing the income and expenditure of State corporations, autonomous and semi-autonomous bodies. D. The term of the Committee does not exceed one year at a time. Choose the correct answer: (a) A, B and C only (b) A, C and D only (c) A, B and D only (d) B, C and D only
Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court: A. An ad hoc Judge is to be appointed if the quorum of the Supreme Court Judges is insufficient to hold or continue any session of the Court. B. The Chief Justice of India is required to consult the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court before appointing a Judge of that High Court as an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court. C. For appointment of an ad hoc Judge, prior consent of the President is not mandatory. D. An ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court, while attending sittings of the Supreme Court, enjoys all the powers and privileges of a Supreme Court Judge. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) A, B and C only (b) A and B only (c) C and D only (d) A, B and D only
Two statements are given below: Statement-I: Chandrayaan-2, India’s lunar spacecraft, was launched on 22 July 2019 from Sriharikota by the GSLV-Mk-III launch vehicle. It consisted of an orbiter, a lander and a rover. Statement-II: The orbiter is designed to revolve around the Moon at an altitude of about 100 km (62 miles). Which one of the following options is most appropriate? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Which of the following is NOT used as a food preservative? (a) Ascorbic acid (b) Potassium metabisulphite (c) Sodium benzoate (d) Sorbic acid
Read the two statements and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Plastic waste contains a large amount of hydrocarbons and can therefore be used as fuel in various industrial applications; if not so used or properly disposed, it still represents a good and safe source of energy. Reason (R): Plastics contain hydrocarbons which on combustion release considerable thermal energy. Options: (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is correct but R is incorrect. (d) R is correct but A is incorrect.
In India, which of the following Plans/approaches were adopted before the formal beginning of the Five-Year Plans? 1. Annual Plan 2. Rolling Plan 3. Bombay Plan 4. People’s Plan Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
With reference to the use of electricity in your home, which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) Devices such as television operate on direct current (DC). (ii) Heavy appliances such as refrigerators operate on alternating current (AC). (iii) A power-surge protector is used with a battery back-up. (iv) Emergency lighting in houses operates on 220-volt DC supply. (v) Electric vehicles use battery-based direct current. Select the correct answer: (a) i, ii and v only (b) ii and iii only (c) iii and iv only (d) ii, iii, iv and v only
Consider the following statements about planet Venus: 1. The Sun rises in the west and sets in the east on Venus because it rotates in a direction opposite to that of the Earth. 2. A ‘day’ on Venus is defined with reference to the apparent motion of the Sun across its sky as observed from the surface. 3. There is no distinct solid surface beneath its dense atmosphere. 4. Radar mapping is used to study the surface topography of Venus through its thick cloud cover. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. Statement-II: An electric generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. Statement-III: Both electric motors and generators have armatures wound on an iron core. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) I, II and III (d) II and III only
Consider the following statements : Statement - I : When an ultrasound travels from one medium to the other medium, its wavelength, frequency and speed change. Statement - II : The frequency of an ultrasound wave remains almost unchanged while travelling from one medium to the other medium. Statement - III: The frequency and speed of an ultrasound wave change when travelling from one medium to the other medium. Statement - IV : ‘Echocardiography’ – a technique used in medical diagnostics, employs ultrasound. Which of the following combination of above statements are true?
A person is not able to see distant objects clearly. Statement - I : The person is suffering from Hypermetropia. Statement - II : The defect may have been caused due to excessive curvature of the eye lens or elongation of the eye ball. Statement - III: The defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power. Statement - IV : The defect can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable power. Which of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
Which of the following provisions require(s) ratification from not less than one-half of the states for an amendment to the Constitution? A. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule B. Article 54, Article 55 and Article 73 C. Chapter VII D. Chapter I of part IX Choose the right code :
Which of the following Article bars the courts from interfering in disputes arising out of certain treaties and agreements made by the Princely States before the commencement of the Constitution?
In which Part and Chapter of the Constitution was the Right to Property inserted after being removed from Part III?
I R Coelho judgment (2007) of the Supreme Court deals with :
Match the cell organelle listed in Column - 'A' with their function in Column - 'B' and select the correct option. Column - A: i. Golgi body ii. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum iii. Ribosome iv. Lysosome Column - B: A. Digestion B. Formation of lysosome C. Protein Synthesis D. Lipid Synthesis Code :
Which of the following group of diseases comprises genetic diseases?
A vitamin that functions both as a hormone and a visual pigment?
The total percentage of carbon present in our human body is
During expiration the air will leave the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs must become
Select the correct option from the codes given below about greenhouse gases from the following: i. Methane ii. Nitrogen iii. Nitrous oxide iv. Water vapours
The Padma Awards are given in various disciplines/fields of activity. Match the name of the Padma awardees of the year 2022 with their field of activities:
Match List-I with List-II:
Which of the following is / are true regarding Tatya Tope, a significant face of the Freedom Struggle of 1857? 1. His real name was Ramchandra Pandurang Rao. 2. In Bithur, he came in contact with Nana Saheb and Moropant Tambe. 3. He belonged to Yeola in Maharashtra. 4. He led a rebellion in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
With a view to position India as a global leader in technical textiles, National Technical Textiles Mission has been approved for creation with a four-year implementation period from FY 2020-2021 to FY 2023-2024 by the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India. Consider the following statements: 1. Technical textiles products are divided into 14 broad categories depending upon their application areas. 2. Penetration level of technical textiles in India is at 5-10 %, against 30-70 % in advanced countries. 3. Promotion of innovation amongst young engineering/technology/science students and graduates will be taken up by the Mission. 4. The National Technical Textiles Mission will be implemented through a 3-tier institutional mechanism.
Consider the following with reference to the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI): 1. The National Dairy Research Institute was started in 1923 at Bengaluru as the Imperial Institute of Animal Husbandry and Dairying. 2. In 1936 it was renamed the Imperial Dairy Institute. 3. In 1955 it was shifted to its present location at Karnal. Select the correct statement(s):
Consider the following with reference to wildlife sanctuaries of Haryana: 1. Nathuawali Wildlife Sanctuary – Fatehabad district 2. Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary – Rewari district 3. Kishangarh–Barsana Wildlife Sanctuary – Fatehabad district 4. Bir Shikargah Wildlife Sanctuary – Panchkula district Select the correct statement(s):
Consider the following matches: 1) FAME India Scheme – Promotion of environment-friendly vehicles 2) D-Free Bharat Initiative – To boost development in villages of the North-East 3) Pighra – National initiative to re-enrol school drop-outs 4) Pradhan Mantri Saubhagya Yojana – Right to electricity connections for rural and urban households Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
With reference to India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), which of the following statements are correct? 1. IPPB was set up in 2016. 2. IPPB was incorporated as a public limited company with 100 % GOI equity under the Department of Posts. 3. To leverage the vast postal network, IPPB is headquartered at New Delhi. 4. Services offered by IPPB include life and general insurance, digital life certificate and domestic money transfer.
Which of the following statements are incorrect? 1. The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body that regulates public exhibition of films. 2. The film ‘Raja Harishchandra’, produced by Dadasaheb Phalke, was the first film approved under the Indian Cinematograph Act, 1920. 3. To modernise and digitise the film certification process, CBFC launched its online portal ‘e-cinepramaan’ in 2015. 4. Members of the Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) are nominated by the Central Government for a period of three years.
With reference to the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), which of the following statements are correct? 1. IGNCA is an autonomous organisation established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Culture. 2. It has started a Gurukul Revival Course to train people in the field of heritage conservation and promotion. 3. Its mandate includes preparing a National Register of rock-art sites and a National Register on ethnography. 4. It is the nodal agency for ‘Vedana Nidan’ and bibliographic compilation.
Match List I with List II : List I A. Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement B. Dronacharya Award C. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy D. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar List II (i) Given to the overall top performing university in the inter-university tournaments (ii) Recognizes contribution made to sports development by entities other than sportspersons and coaches. (iii) Honours eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons and teams and enabled them to achieve outstanding results in international competitions (iv) Honours those sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to contribute to promotion of sports even after retirement from active sporting career. Select the correct match from the codes below:
Which of the following statements are true? 1. Haryana was the first state in the country to achieve hundred percent rural electrification in 1970 itself. 2. Haryana is the sole holder of the country’s rock-salt resources. 3. “Mera Pani Meri Virasat” scheme of Haryana aims to shift farmers’ focus from growing water-consuming crop like paddy to other less-water-requiring crops. 4. Under “Mahara Gaon-Jagmag Gaon”, more than 5000 villages in Haryana have been provided with 24-hour power supply.
Reserve Bank of India raised the repo rate by 40 basis points in May 2022. Now consider the following statements: 1. Repo rates are increased to control inflation. 2. With increase in repo rates, cost of borrowing money increases. 3. With reduction in repo rates, industry gets loans at higher rates from the lender. 4. To decrease money supply in the economy, the RBI hikes up repo rates to encourage banks for borrowing funds. Select the correct statements using the code given below:
Consider the following from Haryana’s Budget 2022-23. 1. Revenue deficit has been brought within the limits prescribed by 15th Finance Commission under the FRBM Act. 2. Fiscal deficit has been projected at 2.98 per cent of GSDP in BE of 2022-23. 3. Debt-to-GSDP ratio is below 25 per cent for Fiscal Year 2021-22 RE. 4. 47 existing budgetary demands for grants have been consolidated into 29 budgetary demands for grants. Which of the above statements are correct?
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojna (AB-PMJAY) provides accessible and affordable health care to the common man in the country. Which of the following are correct about the scheme? 1. AB-PMJAY provides a cover up to Rs. three lakhs per family per year, for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across the public and private empanelled hospitals in the country. 2. It provides cashless and paper-less access to services for the beneficiary at the point of service. 3. Pre-existing conditions are covered from day one. 4. Benefits of the scheme are not portable across the country.
India presented the following nectar elements of its climate action at COP-26 in Glasgow: 1. Reach 1000 GW non-fossil energy capacity by 2030. 2. Meet 50 per cent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030. 3. Reduce total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now to 2030. 4. Reduce the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels. 5. Achieve the target of net-zero emissions by 2090. Which of the following statements are correct?
Top three commodities by percentage contribution in India’s export growth of USD 400 billion are: 1. Engineering goods 2. Petroleum products 3. Gems and Jewellery 4. Rice Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
The National Apprenticeship Training Scheme is a programme that equips technically qualified youth with practical knowledge and skills required in their field of work. Which of the following statements about the Scheme are correct? 1. It is a 6-month programme. 2. The apprentices are imparted training by the organisations at their place of work. 3. During the period of apprenticeship, the apprentices are not paid any stipend.
Which of the following statements are true? 1. GDPMP is the market value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundary of a country in a year. 2. If the GDP of a country is rising, welfare may not necessarily rise as a consequence. 3. The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP is called GDP Deflator. 4. The ratio of real GDP to nominal GDP is called GDP Deflator.
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the Deaflympics 2022? 1. It was held in Caxias Do Sul, Brazil. 2. It was held from 1st April to 15th April 2022. 3. Indian athletes won a total of 16 medals. 4. Sumit Dahiya won a gold medal in wrestling.
Which of the Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat engagement matrix pairings between States/UTs is incorrect? 1. Gujarat : Chhattisgarh 2. Maharashtra : Odisha 3. Goa : Karnataka 4. Chandigarh and Puducherry : Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
Match the Ramsar Sites in List I with their locations in List II: List I A. Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary B. Rudrasagar Lake C. Tso Kar Lake Complex D. Sasthamkotta Lake E. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary List II (i) Tripura (ii) Haryana (iii) Kerala (iv) Uttar Pradesh (v) Ladakh