ESE 2023Q1
Q: Which one of the following scientists called entropy time arrow?
(a)Thomas Young
(b)Arthur Eddington
(c)Max Planck
(d)Thompson
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ESE 2023
84 questions • General Studies & Engineering Aptitude
ESE 2023Q2
Q: Consider the following statements: Energy balances are fundamental for energy planning, since they allow analysing aspects such as: 1. distribution of final energy consumption per end-use sector. 2. storage and refinement of each fuel or group of energies in the matrix. 3. self-sufficiency in energy, foreign dependence and foreign trade. 4. efficiency in processes for transforming primary energy into secondary. Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(a)2 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)1, 2 and 3 only
(d)4 only
ESE 2023Q3
Q: Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of energy efficiency?
(a)The cost of energy economy is usually smaller than that of its generation
(b)Security of supply increases and resources which are finite are saved
(c)There are micro and macro-economic gains associated with an increase in productivity and in industrial competitiveness
(d)The access to energy services is decreased
ESE 2023Q4
Q: The British economist Nicholas Stern gave the most impressive analysis in the year 2006 on
(a)Ozone layer depletion
(b)Renewable energy sources
(c)Climate change
(d)Deforestation
ESE 2023Q5
Q: Consider the following factors determining the evolution of energy intensity: 1. dematerialization 2. fuel use intensity 3. recycling Which of the above factors is/are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)3 only
ESE 2023Q6
Q: Surface rocks on Earth are cool, but below the surface the temperature increases with depth. This is called
(a)the geothermal gradient
(b)the homogeneous accretion
(c)the pangaea
(d)the mesocrates
ESE 2023Q7
Q: Which one of the following is NOT correct?
(a)The formation of a mountain chain by the compression of crustal rocks is known as an orogeny
(b)Rock between the two extremes is called mesocratic
(c)Sediments are deposited in horizontal layers called clay plates
(d)Particles deposited as sediments are changed into rock by the pressure of later deposits at low temperature is called diagenesis
ESE 2023Q8
Q: Consider the following statements for hammock activities: 1. It derives its name because it spans over a segment of a project. 2. The hammock activity duration is determined after the network plan is drawn. 3. The hammock activities are frequently used to identify the use of fixed resources or costs over a segment of the project. 4. The maximum amount of time an independent activity must be delayed to begin or end. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)2 and 3 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)1 and 4 only
(d)2 and 4 only
Answer pending verification
ESE 2023Q9
Q: Consider the following strategies for mitigating risk under risk response development: 1. Reduce the likelihood that the event will occur 2. Reduce the impact that the adverse event would have on the project 3. Analyze the project to identify sources of risk 4. Assess risks in terms of severity of impact Which of the above strategies are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1 and 4 only
(d)2 and 3 only
ESE 2023Q10
Q: Consider the following statements: The strategy is to assign extra time at critical moments in the project; buffers are added to: 1. activities with no risk. 2. merge activities that are prone to delays due to one or more preceding activities being late. 3. non-critical activities to reduce the likelihood that they will create another critical path. 4. activities that require scarce resources to ensure that the resources are available when needed. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 4 only
(c)2, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 3 and 4 only
ESE 2023Q11
Q: Which one of the following does NOT always yield an optimal schedule, however it is capable of yielding a "good" schedule for very complex networks having many types of resources?
(a)Algorithm
(b)Optimum
(c)Backhoes
(d)Heuristics
ESE 2023Q12
Q: According to CCPM, using 50/50 estimates will discourage Parkinson's law, the student syndrome, and self-protection from coming into play because there is less "free time" available. What does the abbreviation CCPM stand for?
(a)Control – Chain Project Management
(b)Creating – Chain Project Management
(c)Computer – Control Project Management
(d)Critical – Chain Project Management
ESE 2023Q13
Q: According to project cost-duration graph, any reduction in project duration means a reduction in
(a)direct costs
(b)indirect costs
(c)total costs
(d)optimum costs
ESE 2023Q14
Q: When a pair of one cation and one anion are absent from an ionic crystal, then the defect is called
(a)Schottky's defect
(b)Frenkel's defect
(c)Cross-slip defect
(d)Stacking defect
ESE 2023Q15
Q: The diffusion coefficient for copper in aluminium at 500°C and 600°C are 4.8 × 10⁻¹⁴ m²/s and 5.3 × 10⁻¹³ m²/s respectively. What is the approximate time at 500°C that will produce the same diffusion result (in terms of concentration of copper at some specific point in aluminium) as 10 h heat treatment at 600°C?
(a)110·4 h
(b)152·4 h
(c)210·4 h
(d)252·4 h
ESE 2023Q16
Q: A relatively large plate of a glass is subjected to a tensile stress of 40 MPa. If the specific surface energy and modulus of elasticity for this glass are 0.3 J/m² and 69 GPa, respectively, what is approximate maximum length of a surface flaw that is possible without fracture?
(a)6·2 μm
(b)8·2 μm
(c)10·2 μm
(d)12·2 μm
ESE 2023Q17
Q: A piece of copper originally 305 mm long is pulled in tension with a stress of 276 MPa. If the deformation is entirely elastic, what is the resultant elongation approximately?
(a)3·3 mm
(b)0·33 mm
(c)0·77 mm
(d)7·7 mm
ESE 2023Q18
Q: What is the approximate value of ductility (%EL) of a cylindrical copper rod if it is cold worked such that the diameter is reduced from 15·2 mm to 12·2 mm? (Take the tensile strength from the curve for copper as 340 MPa)
(a)7%
(b)3·56%
(c)70%
(d)35·6%
ESE 2023Q19
Q: The density of α-Fe is 7.87 × 10³ kg/m³. Atomic weight of Fe is 55.8. If α-Fe crystallises in BCC space lattice, what is the lattice constant approximately? (Take Avogadro’s number (N) = 6.02 × 10²⁶/kg·mole and number of atoms per unit cell is 2)
(a)0·666 Å
(b)1·766 Å
(c)2·866 Å
(d)3·966 Å
ESE 2023Q20
Q: Which one of the following statements is related to frequency hopping spread spectrum?
(a)It is a spread spectrum technique which allows for the coexistence of multiple networks in the same area by separating different networks using different hopping sequences
(b)It is a spread spectrum technique which allows for the coexistence of multiple networks in the different area by separating different networks using different hopping sequences
(c)It is a spread spectrum technique which does not allow for the coexistence of multiple networks in the same area by separating same networks using different hopping sequences
(d)It is a spread spectrum technique which allows for the coexistence of single network in the different area by separating different networks using same hopping sequence
ESE 2023Q21
Q: Which one of the statements is NOT relevant to quantum computing?
(a)Quantum computing is that much more powerful functions may be computed using qubits and quantum gates
(b)Quantum operations are well adapted to describe discrete state changes, that is, transformations between an initial state and final state, without explicit reference to the passage of time
(c)Quantum computation does not support entanglement and measurements of a quantum computer’s registers can yield only a small, discrete set of values
(d)Quantum computing is the use of quantum phenomena such as superposition and entanglement to perform the computation
ESE 2023Q22
Q: A device which exhibits irregular or unpredictable response times is called
(a)Asynchronous
(b)Synchronous
(c)Sharable
(d)Non-sharable
ESE 2023Q23
Q: Which one of the following tables is used by operating system to keep the track of many I/O requests at the same time?
(a)File allocation table
(b)Device-status table
(c)Memory-status table
(d)Interrupt driven table
ESE 2023Q24
Q: A stream of a video image that is one-quarter the size of a standard TV image; that is, it has a resolution of 352 by 240 pixels. If each pixel is represented by 24 bits of information, as would be the case for 24-bit color, then what is the approximate size of each frame?
(a)247·5 KB
(b)352·5 KB
(c)417·5 KB
(d)532·5 KB
ESE 2023Q25
Q: What is the approximate effective throughput, if user wants to fetch a 1-MB file across a 1-Gbps network with a round-trip time of 100 ms?
(a)50·1 Mbps
(b)74·1 Mbps
(c)84·1 Mbps
(d)90·1 Mbps
ESE 2023Q26
Q: In a network, a transcontinental channel with a one-way latency of 50 ms and a bandwidth of 45 Mbps is able to hold how many bits that fit in the pipe approximately?
(a)2·25 × 10⁶ bits
(b)1·25 × 10⁶ bits
(c)50·00 × 10⁶ bits
(d)45·00 × 10⁶ bits
ESE 2023Q27
Q: Consider the following statements for significance of prominence in the Internet architecture: 1. Programmers are free to define new channel abstractions or applications that run on top of any of the existing protocols. 2. It defines a common method for exchanging packets among a wide collection of networks. 3. It allows someone to propose a new protocol to be included in the architecture. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
ESE 2023Q28
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the failure in the network: 1. Bit errors typically occur because outside forces, such as lightning strikes, power surges, and microwave ovens, interfere with the transmission of data. 2. One of the main difficulties in dealing with lost packets is distinguishing between a packet that is indeed lost and one that is merely late in arriving at the destination. 3. The failure can be caused by software that crashes; a power failure, or a reckless backhoe operator. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
ESE 2023Q29
Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding human values?
(a)Values mean an in-built mechanism which distinguishes the right from the wrong
(b)Values provide us with a unique, personal, and moral template that we use subconsciously to assess and judge the intentions and actions of others and ourselves
(c)Values serve the process of ‘becoming’ in the sense of transformation of the level of consciousness to purer, higher levels
(d)Values are essentially objective while skills are subjective
ESE 2023Q30
Q: Consider the following objectives of the study on professional ethics: 1. Forming consistent viewpoints based on facts 2. Searching beyond obvious the alternative responses to issues and being receptive to creative solutions 3. Comprehending, assessing different views Which of the above objectives is/are correct?
(a)2 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2 only
(d)1 and 3 only
ESE 2023Q31
Q: Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a)Notions or beliefs about manners, tastes, customs, and towards laws are few examples of morality
(b)Morality is more general and prescriptive based on customs and traditions; whereas ethics is specific and descriptive
(c)Morality thrusts on judgment and punishment, in the name of God or by laws; whereas ethics, thrust is on influence, education, training through codes, guidelines, and correction
(d)Morality is more concerned with the results of wrong action, when done; whereas ethics is with the results of a right action, when not done
ESE 2023Q32
Q: The ‘work ethics’ is aimed at NOT ensuring which of the following?
(a)The economy and productivity
(b)Safety and privacy
(c)Consumption and distribution
(d)Health and hygiene
ESE 2023Q33
Q: Which one of the following is NOT included under the categories of civic virtues as indispensable for a self-governing administration?
(a)Self-reflection
(b)Self-restraint
(c)Self-reliance
(d)Self-assertion
ESE 2023Q34
Q: Spirituality is promoted in the workplace by adhering to the following activities: 1. Verbally respect the individuals as humans and recognize their values in all decisions and actions. 2. Support causes outside the business. 3. Do unto others as you would have them do unto you. 4. Realization of the self-potential through meditative acts. Which of the above activities are correct?
(a)2, 3 and 4 only
(b)1, 2, 3 and 4
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3 only
ESE 2023Q35
Q: The normative sense of engineering ethics does NOT include:
(a)Knowing moral values, finding accurate solutions to moral problems and justifying moral judgments in engineering practices
(b)Generating alternate courses of action to resolve the dilemma
(c)Study of decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable in the engineering practice and research
(d)Using codes of ethics and standards and applying them in their transactions by engineers
ESE 2023Q36
Q: Which one of the following characteristic features distinguishes Carol Gilligan’s theory from Kohlberg’s theory with regard to the moral development?
(a)Transactional approach
(b)Logic and rule centric
(c)More of caring
(d)Justice
ESE 2023Q37
Q: Which one of the following theorists and philosophers is NOT associated with the ‘Duty Ethics’?
(a)Immanuel Kant
(b)John Locke
(c)John Rawl
(d)C. W. D. Ross
ESE 2023Q38
Q: Consider the following non-reliability performance measures of automobile industry related objects: 1. Fuel efficiency (km/l) 2. Economic efficiency (cost/km/kg) 3. Quality of ride 4. Emissions (ppm) Which of the above performance measures are correct?
(a)1, 3 and 4 only
(b)1, 2 and 3 only
(c)2, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
ESE 2023Q39
Q: Match the following: List I (Severity of failure) List II (Impact of failure) P. Catastrophic 1. Less than minor injury or system damage Q. Critical 2. Minor injury or minor system damage R. Marginal 3. Result in death or total system loss S. Negligible 4. Result in severe injury or major system damage Select the correct pair using the code given below: P Q R S
(a)3 4 2 1
(b)4 3 1 2
(c)2 1 3 4
(d)1 2 4 3
ESE 2023Q40
Q: Consider the following statements for the multi-state characterization (infinite number of states) with K = ∞: 1. X(t) is non-decreasing. 2. X(t) is continuous-time stochastic process. 3. Higher value of X(t) implies greater degradation and the item failure time. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
ESE 2023Q41
Q: Six sigma gives a precision of
(a)99·9997%
(b)98·4599%
(c)97·7333%
(d)96·2799%
ESE 2023Q42
Q: Consider the following statements with reference to six-sigma: 1. It is a methodology for structured, process-oriented and systematic quality improvement. 2. It provides a systematic approach for quality and process improvement, rather than being just a collection of tools. 3. It is a rigorous, data-driven, decision-making approach to analyse the root causes of problems. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
ESE 2023Q43
Q: As sigma level increases,
(a)cost of poor quality and customer satisfaction both go up
(b)cost of poor quality goes up and customer satisfaction goes down
(c)cost of poor quality goes down and customer satisfaction goes up
(d)cost of poor quality and customer satisfaction both go down
ESE 2023Q44
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the design for six-sigma: 1. The concept of six-sigma originated at Motorola. 2. The goal is to arrive at 3·4 defects per million opportunities. 3. Sigma is used to compare expected outcomes versus failures in a population. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
ESE 2023Q45
Q: In a plain scale, if 1·5 inches = 1 foot and it can measure up to 4 feet, what is the representative factor of the scale?
(a)1/8
(b)1/4
(c)1/5
(d)2/15
ESE 2023Q46
Q: Which one of the following is used when components of same shape but different dimensions are to be manufactured?
(a)Drawing for installation
(b)Tabular drawing
(c)Schematic assembly drawing
(d)Patent drawing
ESE 2023Q47
Q: Which one of the following lines is used to represent the outlines of adjacent parts or alternative and extreme positions of movable parts?
(a)Continuous thick line
(b)Continuous thin line
(c)Chain thin double-dashed line
(d)Dashed thin line
ESE 2023Q48
Q: If a line is inclined to the H.P. and parallel to the V.P., then it has
(a)no trace
(b)only V.T. but no H.T.
(c)both H.T. and V.T.
(d)only H.T. but no V.T.
ESE 2023Q49
Q: A triangular prism, base 40 mm side and axis 50 mm long is resting on one of its bases on the H.P. with a vertical face perpendicular to the V.P. What is the front view of the prism?
(a)a triangle
(b)a rectangle
(c)combination of two rectangles
(d)combination of triangle and rectangle
ESE 2023Q50
Q: Consider the following points while drawing the isometric view of any solid: 1. The isometric view should be drawn according to the given views and in such a way that maximum possible details are visible. 2. At every point for the corner of a solid, at least three lines for the edges must converge. Of these, at least two must be for visible edges. 3. Two lines (for visible edges) will never cross each other. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
ESE 2023Q51
Q: Which one of the following methods is used when the non-isometric lines or their ends lie in isometric planes?
(a)Co-ordinate method
(b)Box method
(c)Offset method
(d)Visual-ray method
ESE 2023Q52
Q: If X₁ = [1 1]ᵀ, X₂ = [1 0]ᵀ, and X₃ = [0 1]ᵀ are the eigenvectors of the matrix A = [2 1 −1; 3 2 −3; 3 1 −2], then A⁵ =
(a)[32 31 −31; 33 32 −33; 33 31 −32]
(b)[32 31 −33; 33 32 −31; 33 31 −32]
(c)[32 31 −32; 33 32 −33; 33 31 −31]
(d)[32 33 −31; 33 32 −33; 33 31 32]
ESE 2023Q69
Q: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below it : 1. Eight doctors P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W visit a charitable dispensary every day except on a holiday i.e., Monday. 2. Each doctor visits for one hour from Tuesday to Sunday except Saturday. The timings are 9 A.M. to 1 P.M. and 2 P.M. to 6 P.M., 1 P.M. to 2 P.M. is lunch break. 3. On Saturday it is opened only in the morning i.e., 9 A.M. to 1 P.M. and each doctor visits for only half an hour. 4. No other doctor visits the dispensary before doctor Q and after U. 5. Doctor W comes immediately after the lunch break and is followed by R. 6. S comes in the same order as P in the afternoon session. If the lunch break and subsequent visiting hours are reduced by 15 minutes, at what time doctor U is expected to attend the dispensary ?
(a)3·15 P.M.
(b)4 P.M.
(c)4·15 P.M.
(d)4·45 P.M.
ESE 2023Q70
Q: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below it : 1. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members in a family in which there are two married couples. 2. T, a teacher, is married to the doctor who is mother of R and U. 3. Q, the lawyer, is married to P. 4. P has one son and one grandson. 5. Of the two married ladies one is housewife. 6. There is one student and one male engineer in the family. How is R related to U ?
(a)Brother only
(b)Sister only
(c)Brother or Sister
(d)Mother
ESE 2023Q71
Q: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow : 1. Madhu and Shobha are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. 2. Anjali and Madhu are good in Computer Science and Physics. 3. Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Physics and History. 4. Nisha and Anjali are good in Physics and Mathematics. 5. Poonam and Shobha are good in History and Dramatics. Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science and Mathematics ?
(a)Poonam
(b)Nisha
(c)Madhu
(d)Anjali
ESE 2023Q72
Q: The question given below has three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : All lions are tigers. All tigers are leopards. Some leopards are wolves. Conclusions : I. No elephant is lion. II. Some wolves are lions. III. Some leopards are lions.
(a)Only I follows
(b)Only II follows
(c)Only III follows
(d)Only I and III follow
ESE 2023Q73
Q: Rohith went 15 km to the west from his house, then he turned left and walked 20 km. He then turned east and walked 25 km and finally turning left covered 20 km. How far is he from his house ?
(a)5 km
(b)10 km
(c)40 km
(d)80 km
ESE 2023Q74
Q: Cryptic language is popular since ages, mostly in the field of espionage and sending classified messages. If ‘I LOVE YOU’ is coded as 7, then how would you code ‘GO TO HELL’ in the same language ?
(a)1
(b)4
(c)3
(d)5
ESE 2023Q75
Q: What letter should replace the question mark ? J A G H L N E I M S P ?
(a)Z
(b)Y
(c)X
(d)W
Answer pending verification
ESE 2023Q76
Q: In the first two circles, the number inside the circle is written according to a particular relation. What is the number inside the third circle which follows the same relation as that of the first two circles ? Circle 1 : inside 8 ; outside bottom numbers 27 and 125 Circle 2 : inside 10 ; outside bottom numbers 64 and 216 Circle 3 : inside ? ; outside bottom numbers 343 and 216
(a)12
(b)13
(c)9
(d)14
ESE 2023Q77
Q: Deepthi is playing a treasure hunt game. At the first stage, Deepthi needs to choose a five-digit code to unlock the vault which contains the treasure. She gets the following codes to choose from 15342 26540 35412 23105 15320 13402 35047 71024 28305 The following clues are given to her to help her to find the code. P. The code number is not an even number. Q. The product of the first two digits is odd. R. The sum of the first four digits is 12. S. The code number is not a multiple of 5. If Deepthi had the option of selecting only one clue, which of the four clues will give her the best chance of finding out the five-digit code ?
(a)S
(b)R
(c)Q
(d)P
ESE 2023Q78
Q: Suppose you enter an elevator at a certain floor. Then the elevator moves up 5 floors, down 3 floors, and up 2 floors. If you are then at the 8th floor, on what floor did you first enter the elevator ?
(a)8
(b)7
(c)6
(d)9
ESE 2023Q79
Q: A number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the options. 0·5, 0·55, 0·65, 0·8, ?
(a)0·9
(b)0·95
(c)0·82
(d)1
ESE 2023Q80
Q: The soccer club is putting together a mural using lightly colored transparent paper. This paper then is cut into squares of different sizes that are placed next to each other to make the designs for the mural. Of course, the club wants to save money, so its members are trying to buy the minimum number of sheets of colored paper. Below is one of the designs they are going to use. What is the minimum number of squares they will need to make this design ?
(a)4
(b)5
(c)6
(d)7
ESE 2023Q81
Q: What is the correct alternative for the question mark ? 2, 3, 8, 63, ?
(a)1038
(b)1998
(c)3008
(d)3968
ESE 2023Q82
Q: Which one of the following is NOT an objective of Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP) ?
(a)To create sustainable agricultural livelihood opportunities for women in agriculture
(b)To ensure food and nutrition security at the household and the community level
(c)To enable women to have better access to inputs and services of the government and other agencies
(d)To help women educate the rural folk and improve their living condition
ESE 2023Q83
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the aim of Jal Jeevan Mission to provide every rural household of the country with adequate tap water of prescribed quality on regular basis: 1. It seeks to ensure 'ease of living' which leads to healthier as well as hygienic living conditions in rural areas. 2. It aims to establish water tanks in good numbers with the slogan 'Har Ghar Jal'. 3. By ensuring community participation at village-level, it will help in developing local leadership based on Gandhiji's philosophy of 'Gram Swarajya'. 4. The Mission seeks to achieve its goal by 2024. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1, 3 and 4 only
(b)1, 2, 3 and 4
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)2 and 4 only
ESE 2023Q84
Q: Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(a)The Last Queen : Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
(b)Inseparable : Simone de Beauvoir
(c)Great Circle : Rumaan Alam
(d)Jungle Nama : Amitav Ghosh
ESE 2023Q85
Q: What is 'The Pandora Papers'?
(a)It is the document related to the top 100 highest tax payers of the world
(b)It is the project of investigation which leaked almost 12 million documents that reveals hidden wealth, money laundering by some of the world's rich and powerful
(c)It is the record of total revenue collected at the world level
(d)It is the document containing record of the top young talented entrepreneurs under the age 30
ESE 2023Q86
Q: Match the following: List I List II P. V. Shanta 1. Film director Q. Akhtar Ali 2. Former Davis Cup coach R. Anil Dharkar 3. Noted journalist S. Sumitra Bhave 4. Renowned Indian oncologist Select the correct pair using the code given below: P Q R S
(a)4 2 3 1
(b)2 4 1 3
(c)3 1 2 4
(d)1 3 4 2
ESE 2023Q87
Q: Select the State/s and/or UTs of India which have been ranked first as 'Zero Hunger' as per SDG: India Agenda for Development:
(a)Tamil Nadu and Delhi
(b)Kerala and Chandigarh
(c)Gujarat and Delhi
(d)Goa and Lakshadweep
ESE 2023Q88
Q: Which one of the following pairs is NOT correct under women achievers?
(a)Megha Rajagopalan : winner of Pulitzer prize in feature writing
(b)Anvee Bhutani : Indian-origin student elected as the President of Oxford Student Union
(c)Delisha Davis : 24-year-old female heavy-vehicle driver carrying hazardous goods
(d)Bela M Trivedi : took oath as the Judge of the Supreme Court of India
ESE 2023Q89
Q: Who among the following is India's first Space Tourist?
(a)Santhosh George Kulangara
(b)Sirisha Bandla
(c)Raja J V Chari
(d)Pankaj Lokhani
ESE 2023Q90
Q: The Wassenaar Arrangement is
(a)an elite club of countries which subscribe to arms export controls
(b)a group of countries concerned with unconventional energy sources in the world
(c)concerned with the preservation of extinct animal species
(d)an arrangement which seeks to study recurring cyclone patterns
ESE 2023Q91
Q: Which one of the following is NOT included in the 12 areas of "Doing Business 2020"?
(a)Getting credit
(b)Paying taxes
(c)Promoting small scale industries
(d)Getting electricity
ESE 2023Q92
Q: Consider the following economic activities: 1. Public administration 2. Financial services 3. Mining and quarrying Which of the above economic activities fall under the tertiary sector?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 2 only
ESE 2023Q93
Q: IMF raises its projection for economic growth in 2021-22 to
(a)11.3%
(b)12.5%
(c)10.2%
(d)8.4%
ESE 2023Q94
Q: Consider the following statements: 1. Ford India will stop manufacturing vehicles in India but will retain the engine-making and technology services business as part of restructuring its India operations. 2. Zee Entertainment Enterprises Ltd announces a merger with Sony Pictures Networks India. 3. Yashoda Hegde is the new CEO of Coffee Day Enterprises Ltd. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)1 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)2 only
ESE 2023Q95
Q: Government of India has moved a resolution in UN General Assembly to declare the year 2023 as the International Year of Millets for which of the following reasons? 1. Support will be provided for post-harvest value addition, enhancing domestic consumption. 2. Support will be provided for branding millet products nationally and internationally. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b)Neither 1 nor 2
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)2 only
ESE 2023Q96
Q: 'Bahujan Hitaya : Bahujan Sukhaya' is the motto of
(a)Central Board of Film Certification
(b)Indian Railways
(c)Doordarshan
(d)All India Radio
ESE 2023Q97
Q: Statement (I): The machine shop produces parts machined from stock material and finishes castings, forgings, etc., requiring machined surfaces. Statement (II): In machine shops, machining operations remove metal, either to make a smoother and more accurate surface, as by planing, facing, milling, etc., or to produce a surface previously existing, as by drilling, punching, etc.
(a)Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b)Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c)Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d)Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
ESE 2023Q98
Q: Statement (I): Ozone depletions are mostly harmful to biological systems in a variety of ways. Statement (II): Ozone depletion in stratosphere leads to the loss of filtering ability of UV light. In the context of the above statements, which of the following is correct?
(a)Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
ESE 2023Q99
Q: Statement (I): Alterations in both physico-chemical (abiotic) and biological (biotic) components of the biosphere by mankind resulted in environmental degradation world over. Statement (II): Major environmental problems are in fact the manifestations of the degraded environments at global level. In the context of the above statements, which of the following is correct?
(a)Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
ESE 2023Q100
Q: Statement (I): Ethics involves the discipline of systematic enquiry into moral norms of standards of behavior and their underlying values and justification. Statement (II): Applied ethics looks into the ways in which moral value can be applied to particular areas of concern such as business. In the context of the above statements, which of the following is correct?
(a)Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true.