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120 questions • General Studies
Q: The voting age in India was changed from 21 years to 18 years under which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
Q: The Preamble of the Constitution serves which of the following purposes? I. Source of power for the Legislature II. States the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote III. Lays out provisions for economic liberty IV. States the source from which the Constitution derives its authority Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following statements regarding the Constitution of India are correct? I. No part of the Constitution can be changed by an ordinary legislation unless so authorized. II. All parts of the Constitution can be amended including the basic features. III. The Fundamental Rights can be amended under Article 368. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: Local Self-Government, in both rural and urban areas, falls under which of the following?
Q: The number of Judges in the Supreme Court can be increased by
Q: Which one of the following is the first State to universalize the pre-primary education formally?
Q: Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?
Q: Consider the following States: I. Andhra Pradesh II. Maharashtra III. Karnataka IV. Telangana How many of the above States have Bicameral Legislature?
Q: Which of the following statements with regard to Proclamation of Emergency are correct? I. It cannot be in operation unless approved by the resolution of both the Houses of the Parliament within one month. II. Proclamation is immune from judicial review. III. Proclamation of Emergency may be made by the President of India at any time if the security of the country is threatened. IV. The President of India can issue a Proclamation of Revocation any time if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: What is the full form of SIR introduced by the Election Commission of India?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct about the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India? I. Article 143 of the Constitution of India lays down that the Supreme Court may be required to express its opinion. II. The Supreme Court’s advisory opinion is binding on the President under Article 143 of the Constitution of India. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: The Anti-Arrack Movement was initiated in which one of the following States of India?
Q: Consider the following pairs: Provisions — Borrowed from I. Centrifugal form of federalism : Canada II. Impeachment of the President : USA III. Concept of the Concurrent List : USSR IV. The Fundamental Duties : Australia How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Property under the Constitution of India? I. Right to Property was part of the Fundamental Rights. II. Right to Property is made a constitutional right under Article 300A. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during the Proclamation of National Emergency?
Q: With reference to tropical thorn forests in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. They are found in regions with less than 50 cm of annual rainfall. II. They are found in parts of Jharkhand. III. Khejri and Khair are important plant species of these forests. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to water vapour in the atmosphere, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It contributes to the stability and instability in the air. II. It acts like a blanket, allowing the Earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to 'conditions favourable for tropical cyclones', which of the following is/are correct? I. Small variations in the vertical wind speed II. Upper divergence above the sea level system Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many States of India?
Q: The Earth in its initial phases of formation was a hot object with a thin layer of atmosphere comprising
Q: Which one of the following refers to 'the Big Splat'?
Q: The International Date Line is made zigzag to avoid which one of the following island groups?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding earthquake: I. Tectonic earthquakes originate due to sliding of rocks along a fault plane. II. Volcanic earthquake is a special class of tectonic earthquake. III. The intensity of an earthquake is measured by the Richter scale. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding metamorphic rocks: I. They undergo recrystallization and reorganization of the original minerals. II. Foliation and banding are associated with these rocks. III. Gneissoid and syenite are examples of these rocks. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: Statement–I: Weathering results in mechanical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rocks. Statement–II: Weathering is controlled by geologic and geomorphic processes but is independent of climatic factors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding terrestrial radiation: I. Insolation received by the Earth is in shortwaves. II. The Earth's energy heats the atmosphere from below. III. The shortwave radiation from the Earth is absorbed by the greenhouse gases. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding South-West monsoons in India: I. The monsoons enter into West Bengal from a South-Westerly direction. II. The retreating South-West monsoons bring rain to the Eastern part of Peninsular India. III. The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the South-West monsoons. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: According to the Ramsar Convention, which one of the following lakes is protected as waterfowl habitat?
Q: Which one of the following government schemes in India promotes organic farming?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding salinity of oceans: I. The North Sea records low salinity because of its location in higher latitudes. II. The Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters. III. The Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to evaporation. IV. The Black Sea has high salinity due to lack of river water influx. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following pairs: I. U-WIN : Digitizing vaccination records for pregnant women and children up to 14 years II. E-Sanjeevani : World's largest tele-medicine implementation in primary health care III. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission : Provides for compulsory participation of private hospitals in the scheme How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Which of the following is/are considered to be part/parts of broad money measure but not part/parts of narrow money measure? I. Currency with the public II. Demand deposits with banks III. Time deposits with banks Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: A bank generated savings credit of ₹1,600 crore in the first round from a savings deposit of ₹2,000 crore. What is the Cash Reserve Ratio fixed by the Central Bank?
Q: In the context of economy, the term 'capital goods' refers to
Q: With reference to distribution of employment in India for the year 2024-2025, consider the following statements: I. Self-employment is a major source of employment for men in rural areas. II. Casual wage work is a major source of employment for women. III. Proportion of women engaged in self-employment in rural areas is more than that in urban areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements about the SANKALP Scheme: I. It is a programme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship with loan assistance from the World Bank. II. Quality assurance of skill development programmes is one of the result areas of this scheme. III. Inclusion of the marginalized population is not an objective of this scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: According to the World Bank Poverty and Equity Brief (October 2025), 46% of India’s poor lived in which of the following States?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY–NRLM): I. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling poor households to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities. II. It assures that at least two members from each rural poor household would be brought under the Self-Help Groups (SHGs) network. III. The programme leverages community resources to build institutions and promote livelihoods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: With reference to the Human Development Report (2023–2024), consider the following countries: I. Sri Lanka II. Myanmar III. Nepal How many of the above countries are performing better in terms of human development than India?
Q: Consider the following statements about the Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE) in India: Statement-I: It is often criticised for being an incomplete criterion for measuring poverty. Statement-II: It does not differentiate between the very poor and the other poor (transient poor). Statement-III: It takes expenditure on food and a few select items as proxy for income. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: Under the leadership of which Sanskritist/Epigraphist was the project of preparing the first critical edition of the epic Mahabharata started in 1919?
Q: Which one of the following texts provides a detailed and connected account of Buddha’s life?
Q: A 150 CE inscription of Shaka ruler Rudradaman and a 5th-century inscription, at the same place, of the time of Gupta king Skandagupta refer to which one of the following?
Q: Consider the following statements about Ashoka’s Dhamma: I. The theme of Ahimsa is an important aspect of Ashoka’s Dhamma. II. The ceremony of Dhamma is in proper courtesy to slaves and servants. III. Dhamma consisted of the promotion of Buddhism. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements about town planning in the Lower Town of Mohenjo-daro: I. The length of the bricks was about twice the height. II. High platforms were built on which houses were constructed. III. The houses were uniformly rectangular in plan. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: The Bahamani kingdom and Vijayanagara empire clashed frequently over the territory of
Q: Which of the following are the salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935? I. Provincial Autonomy II. Dyarchy at the Centre III. Abolition of the India Council Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: With reference to 8th August, 1942 in the Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?
Q: When did the Dandi March begin and when did it end?
Q: Consider the following pairs: Traveller — Century/Centuries I. Marco Polo : Tenth and eleventh centuries II. Al-Biruni : Thirteenth century III. Duarte Barbosa : Sixteenth century How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Which of the following white blood cells (WBCs) are found in the highest number in human blood?
Q: Which of the following statements about the process of respiration is/are correct? I. During inspiration, the diaphragm gets relaxed. II. During expiration, external intercostal muscles contract. III. A healthy human adult breathes 12–16 times per minute at rest. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: Which part of the circulatory system is affected in coronary artery disease?
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Blood of 'A' group has anti-B antibodies in plasma. II. Blood of 'AB' group has both 'A' and 'B' antigens in RBCs. III. Blood of 'AB' group cannot be given to a person having 'A' blood group. IV. Blood of 'O' group does not possess any antibody in plasma. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: Which one of the following is not the function of endoplasmic reticulum?
Q: Which one of the following structures is not found in case of asexual reproduction?
Q: Which one of the following structures is not a part of vegetative propagation?
Q: Which of the following cells in the human digestive system is responsible for secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?
Q: Which one of the following is not a part of the fallopian tube of the female reproductive system of humans?
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct for gynoecium of a flower? I. In syncarpous conditions, more than one pistil fuse together. II. The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains. III. Pistils are fused with stamens in all flowers. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: What is the molarity of NaOH in the solution prepared by dissolving its 4 g in 250 mL of solution? (The atomic mass of sodium is 23)
Q: A solution is prepared by adding 4 g of a substance to 36 g of water. What is the mass percent of the solute?
Q: A tablespoon holds 0.5 mole of water. What is the number of molecules present in it?
Q: Which one of the following characteristics is possessed by enantiomers?
Q: Consider the following statements: The polar nature of water makes it I. a very good solvent for ionic compounds II. to act as an amphoteric substance III. to form hydrates of different types Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: The conversion of naphthalene into naphthalene vapours is called
Q: Which of the following methods can be used for removing permanent hardness of water? I. Treatment with washing soda II. By ion exchange method III. By addition of lime Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Which of the following are characteristics of aromatic compounds? I. They should be planar. II. They should follow (4n + 2) π-electrons rule. III. They should be cyclic. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: The adsorbent used in chromatographic techniques is
Q: Consider the following compounds: I. Anthracene II. Benzene III. Cyclobutane IV. Toluene How many of the above are aromatic compounds?
Q: Which one of the following components is added to optical glass to cut off UV rays?
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of noble gases: I. They are p-block elements. II. They are highly active. III. They have completely filled electronic configurations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements regarding oxidation: I. There is loss of hydrogen. II. There is gain of oxygen. III. There is gain of electrons. IV. Oxidation state increases. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: The manufacturing of Vanaspati Ghee from polyunsaturated vegetable oils involves which one of the following processes?
Q: The cleaning action of soap is characterized by which of the following? I. Emulsification II. Micelle formation around the oil droplet III. Interaction of hydrophilic part of soap with oil IV. Interaction of hydrophobic part of soap with water Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: A23a refers to
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Bahubali is the name of ISRO's Launch Vehicle. II. GSAT-7R is the heaviest communication satellite ever launched from India. III. CMS-03 is a multiband communication satellite of ISRO. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q: The 22nd India-ASEAN Summit was held in October 2025 in
Q: Consider the following pairs: Leader — Country I. Sanae Takaichi : Japan II. Catherine Connolly : Ireland III. Rodrigo Paz Pereira : Cameroon IV. Paul Biya : Bolivia How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q: Consider the following countries: I. Ethiopia II. Nigeria III. Egypt IV. UAE How many of the above are full-time members of BRICS?
Q: Philadelphi Corridor is located between
Q: Which one of the following countries is the newest member of NATO?
Q: India's installed solar capacity in 2025 is close to
Q: Dholera and Sanand in Gujarat are in news for setting up
Q: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is an attached office of which Ministry of the Government of India?
Q: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was first signed during
Q: Low temperature and low precipitation produce which type of biome or forests?
Q: A transition zone between two different ecological communities is known as
Q: Two species that possess the same ecological niche cannot coexist indefinitely. This is known as the I. competitive exclusion principle II. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion III. principle of character displacement IV. principle of self-assembly Which of the above is/are correct?
Q: The conversion of nitrogen to ammonium by bacteria and cyanobacteria is called
Q: Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The leaves of deciduous forest trees produce brilliant colours in autumn. Statement-II: In autumn season, leaves of deciduous forest trees stop producing green chlorophyll pigments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: The measure of area of biologically productive land or sea required to produce food, material and energy for human population is known as
Q: In natural ecosystems, some of the output or output information may be fed back as input to control the functioning. Such system when occurs is called
Q: Consider the following statements as regards to the protection of ozone layer: I. The Vienna Convention aims to protect the ozone layer. II. The Montreal Protocol is recognized as the most successful international environmental treaty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: The fundamental niche of a species refers to
Q: Biodiversity elements with actual or potential use should not be lost simply because we presently do not know their value. Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the reason/reasons for the above statement? I. They may have values unused at present but once discovered could enhance the well-being of mankind. II. They may become useful in future due to changing circumstances. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: Consider the following statements in respect of biodiversity hot spot: I. It is an area unusually rich in biodiversity. II. The flora and fauna are under a constant threat of overexploitation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: I. Keystone species is an organism that has a disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. II. Sentinel species gives us an early warning of problems that could potentially affect other species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q: Consider the following statements: Statement-I : Trophic relationship within ecological communities tends to be complex and web-like. Statement-II : Many consumers feed on more than one species and are fed upon by more than one species. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q: Consider the following: I. Methane digester II. Biodiesel III. Natural compost How many of the above are examples of clean technologies?
Q: For satellite communication, why are microwave links at 10–12 GHz preferred?
Q: A rigid body is placed on a horizontal table. When slightly disturbed, its centre of gravity moves horizontally without any rise or fall in its position. Which one of the following correctly describes the state of the body?
Q: A sphere weighs 0.98 N on the Earth. It is brought on the Moon and is divided into 10 equal parts there. Which one among the following is the mass of each part on the Moon in SI unit? (The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth that of on the Earth)
Q: The diameter of a sphere and the side of a cube are of equal length. Which one of the following is the correct ratio of their mass if both of them are made of the same material?
Q: A compass needle made of paramagnetic alloy is used at a location where the angle of dip is π / 3. When the alloy is slightly cooled below the room temperature, the needle's vertical deflection increases, even though the Earth's magnetic field remains unchanged. Which one of the following best explains this observation?
Q: Consider the following magnetic materials at room temperature: 1. Gadolinium oxide 2. Bismuth 3. Ruthenium 4. Graphite 5. Aluminium 6. Nickel Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the above magnetic materials? I. There are two diamagnetic materials. II. There are three paramagnetic materials. Select the answer using the code given below.
Q: A mercury barometer is placed in an elevator accelerating upwards with a constant acceleration (assume constant temperature and no air leaks). If h is the height of mercury column in the stationary elevator and H is the height of mercury column in the moving elevator, then which one of the following is correct?
Q: A block of wood floats in water with 3/4th of its volume submerged. The same block floats in another fluid with 2/3rd of its volume submerged. What is the specific gravity of the fluid?
Q: Typically a Geiger–Müller tube is used to detect
Q: In which of the following cases, the centre of mass of a metallic rod is definitely not at its centre? I. The density of the metallic rod continuously decreases from left to right. II. The density of the metallic rod continually increases from left to right. III. The density of the metallic rod decreases from left to right up to the centre and then increases. IV. The density of the metallic rod increases from left to right up to the centre and then decreases. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q: For the Newton's laws to hold true at the Earth's equator, if c is the value of correction to the gravitational acceleration (g) that should be subtracted from g, then which one of the following is correct?
Q: Which one of the following materials is strongly paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired f-electrons and is widely used in MRI contrast agents?
Q: In which one of the following regions of electromagnetic spectrum, LASER is most difficult to achieve?
Q: Which one among the following is the primary reason of microwave heating of water?
Q: If the electric conductivity of the Earth's outer core is slightly decreased, then which one of the following is the most immediate effect?
Q: Which of the following constants are necessarily included in defining the seven fundamental base units?
Q: The temperature about which a hot solid object emits infrared radiation alone is
Q: A spacecraft is placed at a Lagrange point in our solar system where it is far away from the Sun. Which of the following could this point be?
Q: Which of the following fields could bring a deflection in an electron beam?
Q: Why is sunscreen lotion used while moving out during daytime in summer?
